Nursing Assessment and Fluid Regulation, Exams of Nursing

Download Nursing Assessment and Fluid Regulation and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR 300 Final Exam Latest Study Guide 2024/2025 Actual Exam Questions Included (Verified Answers) Already Graded A+ NUR 300 Final Exam Which of the following are types of urinary incontinence? Select all that apply. A. Urge incontinence B. Purposeful incontinence C. Age-related inconvenience D. Stress incontinence E. Overflow incontinence F. Functional incontinence G. Nocturnal enuresis A. Urge incontinence The nurse is tallying the intake and output record for the shift. What should be included on the intake record? Select all that apply. A. Intravenous fluids B. Hot tea C. Ice chips D. Ice cream E. Oatmeal A. Intravenous fluids B. Hot tea C. Ice chips D. Ice cream What is considered a risk factor for a urinary tract infection? A. Diabetes B. Heart disease C. Liver failure D. Hypertension A. Diabetes The nurse admits a client with fever and chills. The nurse is concerned the client may have a urinary tract infection, so which other symptoms should the nurse ask about? Select all that apply. A. Night sweats B. Back pain C. Painful urination D. Bladder spasms E. Urgency B. Back pain C. Painful urination D. Bladder spasms E. Urgency An instructor asks the student nurse about common reasons for urinary incontinence. How should the student respond? Select all that apply. A. Sneezing and laughing B. Overfilled bladder C. Physical disabilities D. Bladder infection E. Kidney stones A. Sneezing and laughing B. Overfilled bladder C. Physical disabilities The nurse is teaching bowel health to a group of senior citizens. What are some common reasons for bowel changes in the older adult? Select all that apply. A. Increased peristalsis B. Loss of smooth muscle tone B. Wash hands often. C. Increase caffeinated soda use. D. Increase hydration with popsicles. E. Eat bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast. B. Wash hands often. D. Increase hydration with popsicles. E. Eat bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast. Which findings in the immobile client are complications related to immobility? Select all that apply. A. Lung fluid B. Decreasing appetite C. Muscle growth D. Constipation E. Bladder infection A. Lung fluid B. Decreasing appetite D. Constipation E. Bladder infection Which intervention in the immobile client's plan of care best helps develop muscle strength? A. Consume a diet high in protein. B. Perform AROM each hour. C. Use overbed trapeze to pull self up in bed. D. Log-roll client every 2 hours. B. Perform AROM each hour. Two nurses are planning to transfer a comatose client from the bed to a stretcher. Which device should be used? A. Transfer board B. Transfer belt C. Footboard D. Scoot sheet A. Transfer board The client is being educated about the use of crutches after a cast was applied to his left ankle. What directions by the nurse are most important before discharge? A. “Be careful of slippery floors and puddles.” B. “Let me see you use the crutches to walk around the nurses’ station.” C. “Keep the crutches close to you during the night in case you need to get up.” D. “Don’t lean or swing on the crutches.” B. "Let me see you use the crutches to walk around the nurses' station." Which statements about nutrition are correct? Select all that apply. A. Fats are unhealthy and should be avoided. B. Vegetables can be eaten with other vegetables to make a complete protein. C. Carbohydrates raise blood glucose levels. B. Peanut butter C. Turkey D. Cheese E. Refried beans A. Whole grain bread B. Peanut butter E. Refried beans The nurse is teaching a patient about the importance of reducing saturated fats in a cardiac diet. Which oils should the nurse recommend as options? Select all that apply. A. Palm oil B. Coconut oil C. Cottonseed oil D. Peanut oil E. Olive oil C. Cottonseed oil D. Peanut oil E. Olive oil Which is the correct formula for calculating body mass index? A. Weight in pounds ÷ (height in inches) squared B. Weight in pounds ÷ (height in meters) squared C. Weight in kg ÷ (height in meters) squared D. Weight in kg ÷ (height in inches) squared C. Weight in kg ÷ (height in meters) squared What are the parts of a comprehensive nutritional assessment? Select all that apply. A. Body composition B. Physical assessment C. Laboratory findings D. Body surface area E. Dietary history A. Body composition B. Physical assessment C. Laboratory findings E. Dietary history Which objective measures can a nurse use to assess a person’s dietary history? Select all that apply. A. Measure body composition B. Ask about diet C. 3-day food record diary D. Food questionnaire E. 24-hour memory recall C. 3-day food record diary D. Food questionnaire D. Bladder elasticity increases with age. E. Prostate size increases with age. A. The number of functioning nephrons decreases with age. E. Prostate size increases with age. The nurse would anticipate which symptoms for a client with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)? Select all that apply. A. Urinary frequency B. Urinary urgency C. Anuria D. Abdominal pain E. Polyuria A. Urinary frequency B. Urinary urgency The nurse is evaluating a urinalysis for a client. Which items can be found on this report? Select all that apply. A. Hemoglobin B. Potassium C. Protein D. Glucose E. Bilirubin A. Hemoglobin C. Protein D. Glucose E. Bilirubin Which of the following are risk factors for urinary tract infection? Select all that apply. A. Enlarged prostate B. Sexual intercourse for women C. Diabetes D. Heart disease E. Sexual intercourse for men F. Pregnancy G. Dietary intake H. Kidney stones A. Enlarged prostate B. Sexual intercourse for women C. Diabetes F. Pregnancy H. Kidney stones Which of the following are symptoms of a urinary tract infection? Select all that apply. A. Urinary frequency C. Increase intake of bread and pasta D. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables E. Increase intake of lean meats F. Increase intake of beans and legumes D. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables F. Increase intake of beans and legumes A client is diagnosed with an intestinal infection after traveling to a developing country. The nurse should encourage the intake of which food to optimize the gut's normal flora, creating a healthier environment? A. Yogurt B. Bread C. Oatmeal D. Milk A. Yogurt A nurse is teaching wellness to a church group. How many daily 8-ounce servings of water should be encouraged for normal bowel health? A. 4 to 6 servings B. 6 to 8 servings C. 8 to 10 servings D. 10 to 12 servings B. 6 to 8 servings The nurse is assisting a client in the emergency department who needs to use the restroom for a bowel movement. Which option is best? A. Bedpan B. Bedside commode C. Public restroom D. Private restroom D. Private restroom The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has not had a bowel movement for 3 days. What factors are concerning? Select all that apply. A. Client has not eaten for 48 hours. B. Client is on bedrest. C. Client is receiving an iron supplement. D. Client is in a semiprivate room. E. Client took a laxative prior to hospitalization. A. Client has not eaten for 48 hours. B. Client is on bedrest. C. Client is receiving an iron supplement. D. Client is in a semiprivate room. E. Client took a laxative prior to hospitalization. The nurse is caring for a patient who is confined to the bed. The nurse asks the patient if he needs to have a bowel movement 30 minutes after eating a meal because: A) The digested food needs to make room for recently ingested food. B) Mastication triggers the digestive system to begin peristalsis. C) The smell of bowel elimination in the room would deter the patient from eating. E. Skin F. Sputum G. Lungs H. Mucous membranes A. Urine D. Feces E. Skin G. Lungs Which of the following are hormones that control fluid balance? Select all that apply. A. Insulin B. Brain natriuretic peptide C. C-type natriuretic peptide D. Atrial natriuretic peptide E. Thyroid hormone F. Aldosterone G. Renin–angiotensin H. Antidiuretic hormone B. Brain natriuretic peptide C. C-type natriuretic peptide D. Atrial natriuretic peptide E. Thyroid hormone F. Aldosterone G. Renin-angiotensin H. Antidiuretic hormone Which of the following are risk factors for hypovolemia? Select all that apply. A. Motor vehicle accident with trauma B. Poor myocardial functioning C. Uterine rupture during childbirth D. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E. Significant burns to the body F. Hiker without water supply G. Increased release of aldosterone H. Vomiting from a viral infection A. Motor vehicle accident with trauma C. Uterine rupture during childbirth E. Significant burns to the body F. Hiker without water supply H. Vomiting from a viral infection Which of the following are risk factors for hypervolemia? Select all that apply. A. Excessive IV fluid administration B. Excess salt intake B. Tachycardia C. Reddened, warm skin D. Jugular venous distention (JVD) E. Bounding pulses F. Tachypnea G. Weight loss H. Sunken eyes A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia D. Jugular venous distention (JVD) E. Bounding pulses F. Tachypnea The nurse is caring for a client with a hypotonic fluid ordered for infusion. What would be the reason for this type of fluid being used? Select all that apply. A. Extracellular spaces are swollen. B. Extracellular spaces are dry. C. Intracellular space is swollen. D. Intracellular space is dry. E. Both extracellular and intracellular space is equal. A. Extracellular spaces are swollen. D. Intracellular space is dry. The nurse receives hand-off report on each of these clients. Who is at the greatest risk for fluid volume excess? A. The client recovering from a large abdominal surgery. B. The client with diarrhea for the past three days C. The client with heart failure D. The client who's semiconscious and unable to drink water C. The client with heart failure The nurse is caring for a client with severe diabetic ketoacidosis. Which electrolyte imbalance will occur as a result of the acidotic state? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia The nurse is assessing a client after surgery who is dehydrated and experiencing hypotension, tachycardia, and decreased urine output. What additional assessment should the nurse perform? A. Lung sounds B. Bowel sounds C. Pupillary response D. Tongue and skin turgor D. Tongue and skin turgor Which electrolytes are inversely related to each other? A. Potassium and phosphorous B. Phosphorous and calcium C. Calcium and magnesium D. Magnesium and sodium The nurse is concerned that a client is in uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Which are possible reasons why the body is not compensating? Select all that apply. A. Kidney failure B. Excess sedation medication C. Brain injury from a bleed D. Blockage of the airway E. Dehydration B. Excess sedation medication C. Brain injury from a bleed D. Blockage of the airway A client with impaired renal function is in diabetic ketoacidosis. What acid-base imbalance would be anticipated? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis The client's arterial blood gases are pH 7.34; PCo2 33; HCO3 24. How would the nurse describe these gases? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Normal D. Normal A student nurse is preparing to explain to a patient how fluid levels are regulated within the body. The student nurse will include in his teaching that the organ most responsible for controlling fluid balance through excretion is which of the following? A. Heart B. Bladder C. Liver D. Kidney D. Kidney You are caring for a patient with a blood pressure of 86/48. The pulse is weak and at a rate of 94. The patient has had no appetite for several days because of nausea and only sips fluids. The healthcare provider has ordered IV fluids. Which of the following IV fluids should the nurse be prepared to administer? A. Hypertonic B. Isotonic C. Hypotonic B. Isotonic Which of the following are responsible for sodium retention in the body? Select all that apply. A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Renin-angiotensin system C. Aldosterone D. Thyroid hormone E. BNP B. Renin-angiotensin system C. Aldosterone What is the best way to help a patient avoid skin sheer? A. Use a Hoyer lift to move the patient in bed B. Use drawsheet to move the patient in bed C. Reposition the patient every 2 hours D. Don't allow the patient to get out of bed B. Use drawsheet to move the patient in bed Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A. Provides attachments for muscles and ligaments B. Protects vital organs C. Aids in vitamin D regulation D. Aids in calcium regulation C. Aids in vitamin D regulation True or false: bone structure changes as a person ages. True ______________ connect bone to bone, while ______________ connect muscle to bone. - Ligaments - Tendons True or false: cartilage is a vascular tissue. False What are joints? The area where 2 or more bones meet What are ligaments? White shiny fibrous bands of tissue that bind the bones together What are tendons? Tissues that connect muscle to bone True or false: Cartilage changes as a person ages. True What is the function of the nervous system? Regulates movement and posture People without a chronic illness lose ____% per day of muscle strength while on bedrest. A. 15% B. 3% C. 1% D. 10% B. 3% What is disuse atrophy? Reduced size and functioning associated with immobility and bedrest What is the greatest contributor to workplace injuries? Manual lifting What is a contracture? Shortening of a muscle, leading to a limited range of motion of the joint due to lack of use D. Gastrointestinal E. Central nervous A. Endocrine B. Skeletal D. Gastrointestinal E. Central nervous Why does immobility cause damage to the endocrine system? Endocrine system helps maintain homeostasis, and immobility disrupts normal metabolic functioning by decreasing basal metabolic rate (BMR) What is pseudodiarrhea and what does it indicate? - Loose stools - Indicates fecal impaction Immobility causes ____________ (increased/decreased) peristalsis and ____________ (increased/decreased) appetite. - Decreased - Decreased What are anthropometric measurements? - Height - Weight - Skin folds When a patient is immobile, the nurse should check their lab values for what 3 things? - Electrolytes - Serum and total protein - BUN What type of diet should an immobile patient be placed on? High-calorie, high-protein diet, supplemental vitamin B and C Why should the nurse be concerned when an immobile has a decreased cough response? A decreased cough response decreases the ability to have a productive cough, which increases pooling of secretions - perfect environment for bacteria, so increased risk of bacterial infections What is the most common respiratory complication among bedridden/immobile patients? Hypostatic pneumonia Why is it important to assess the O2 saturation of patients on bedrest? Decreased respiratory movement (lung expansion) can result in decreased oxygenation and carbon dioxide exchange Why should the nurse teach a bedridden patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe (TCDB) every 1 to 2 hours? - Helps to mobilize and dislodge secretions in the lungs - Reduces risk of pneumonia How often should a bedridden patient use the incentive spirometer? 10 times per hour What kind of model is shared governance? a. Nurses model their practice after their manager. b. Nurses have control over their practice. c. Nursing practice is decided by the organization. d. Nursing practice is unit specific. b. Nurses have control over their practice. What impact on communication might the informal organization have? a. Meets the needs of the organization. b. Communication follows the chain of command. c. Communication comes only from the top. d. Meets the needs of the individual. a. Meets the needs of the organization. The State Children's Health Insurance Plan (SCHIP) was designed for families who did not qualify for Medicaid yet could not afford health insurance. How is this plan funded? a. By the federal government. b. By the state government. c. By the federal and state governments jointly. d. By the state government and private endowment. c. By the federal and state governments jointly. What is included in direct nursing costs? a. Supervising other staff. b. Planning and implementing patient care. c. Evaluating the work of other staff. d. Acuity of patients on unit. b. Planning and implementing patient care. True or False: Legal and ethical standards of care are defined by the profession. True Multitasking on a nursing unit presents its own dangers. What is a danger created when a nurse multitasks? a. All tasks may not be finished on time. b. You must re-orient and re-focus. c. Delegating of tasks is not accomplished. d. You may feel scattered and forget part of the task. d. You may feel scattered and forget part of the task. True or False: A type of standard to which a nurse is held accountable is called a process standard. True What is the term used for a systematic data collection process that commonly focuses on documentation? a. Cost-analysis report b. Benchmarking c. Audit d. Survey c. Audit True or False: A medication error that results in the death of the patient is a sentinel event. True What is one purpose of risk management? The charge nurse on a step-down unit has just delegated some responsibilities to the LPN on her shift. The charge nurse knows that by delegating these responsibilities appropriately she has done what? a. Provided an essential foundation for patient safety. b. Decreased her workload so she could get paperwork done. c. Made sure the LPN stays busy the entire shift. d. Showed good management principles to the new unit manager. a. Provided an essential foundation for patient safety. True or False: The person serving as a coach to others must possess competent skills and be well liked. False One of the suggestions for giving negative feedback is that it is frequent. What does this mean? a. You know when your staff is making a lot of mistakes and you need to do something about it. b. Look for negative things to give feedback on to all your staff. c. When given frequently, negative feedback is less threatening and easier to give. d. Always precede a positive comment with a negative one. c. When given frequently, negative feedback is less threatening and easier to give. One of the critical elements in disciplinary actions involves proving that the employee's behaviors were serious enough to warrant being disciplined. How is that accomplished? a. The conduct that is being criticized must not have been ignored earlier. b. Leave notes in the employee mailbox telling them of expected improvements. c. Ask someone else to sit in on the disciplinary action. d. There must be a signed contract with the employee for improvement. a. The conduct that is being criticized must not have been ignored earlier. True or False: Peer evaluations can be especially important in areas where the supervisor has limited contact with the person being evaluated. True Change in our health care delivery system is an ongoing process. The view that stability in any organization or system is achieved through a balance or equilibrium of forces acting on the situation is a component of which theory of change? a. Coghlan and McAuliffe b. Bridges c. Lewin d. Bennis and Chin c. Lewin True or False: One reason that change fails is recognizing the losses inherent in change. False What is a prerequisite to being an effective advocate? a. Believe you know what is best for your client. b. Define your own beliefs and values. c. Identify what family members believe and value. d. Be supportive of other health care personnel. b. Define your own beliefs and values. are important to you. What would be an appropriate question to ask a prospective employer? a. Do I have to work with people I don't like? b. Do I have to care for patients that are elderly? c. What types of services are offered at the facility? d. Since I graduated first in my class do I have to start at the bottom of the clinical ladder? c. What types of services are offered at the facility? When leaving a position, you should not write about any of your concerns in the letter of resignation. How would you voice your concerns about the position you are leaving in the most appropriate manner? a. Be fair and unemotional b. Put your concerns in writing c. Remember to include who, what, and where d. Be detailed a. Be fair and unemotional Janice has been a nurse for 22 years. She has not practiced for the last 7 years because she wanted to take care of her chronically ill mother. What does the NCSBN say Janice must do before she can practice nursing competently? a. Retake the NCLEX RN. b. Put together a professional portfolio. c. Take a refresher course. d. Develop an individualized remediation plan. c. Take a refresher course. Our country is a true "melting pot" of different races, cultures, and beliefs. When maintaining cultural competence, what would be important for you to look at in yourself? a. Your own ethnicity. b. Your own ethical beliefs. c. How well you get along with staff from different countries. d. How ethnocentric you are. b. Your own ethical beliefs. True or False: As you work to maintain your competence in nursing, the first step is self-assessment. True Which of the following places us in the position of having intrapersonal conflict? a. Anger b. Coercion c. Complaints d. Divided loyalties b. Coercion Jocelyn has a long history of tardiness and absenteeism. The nurse manager begins to note other evidence of erratic behavior and has received several patient complaints. The nurse manager suspects that Jocelyn has an alcohol abuse problem and contacts the hospital's employee assistance program. What might be planned to help Jocelyn with her problem? a. A conference b. A seminar c. An intervention d. An indictment c. An intervention In the mid-1900s what happened in the history of nursing? a. Nursing education followed the "apprenticeship" route. b. Nursing schools became accredited. c. Physicians gave the lectures in nursing schools. d. Nurse licensure was not mandatory. b. Nursing schools became accredited. True or False: Differentiated nursing practice is based on the idea that nurses with different educational backgrounds have different competencies and therefore should have differentiated scopes of practice. True How might Nursing's Agenda for the Future impact the new graduate nurse? a. Force nurses to go back to school for master's degrees b. Make you pay for outside workshops c. Make hospitals have one uniform nurse practice model d. Pay you according to the work you do d. Pay you according to the work you do What is an example of a resource that is a part of an operating budget in health care? DISPOSABLE ITEMS SUCH AS NEEDLES, SYRINGES, AND CATHETERS. Give an example of a factor that contributes to the rising cost of health care PATIENTS DEMANDING CARE THAT IS NOT ALWAYS NECESSARY. LIKE UNWANTED DIAGNOSTIC TESTS. What task would you delegate as a nurse to the UAP or unlicensed assistive personnel? TAKING A PATIENT'S BLOOD PRESSURE. True or False: Medicaid covers those who are over the age of 65 False MEDICARE VOVERS THOSE WHO ARE 65 - MEDICAID COVERS THOSE WHO ARE LOW INCOME. True or False: Cost containment is the effort directed towards preventing a rise of cost in health care. True True or False: The State Children's Health Insurance Program (SCHIP) provides health care coverage to adults who make too much money to be eligible for Medicaid. False What are the three types of standards? A. Structural, process, outcome B. Structural, safety, outcome C. Structural, process, cost-effective D. Process, outcome, standards of care A. Structural, process, outcome Does acting to prevent error focus on health care individuals or the healthcare system? A. Health care systems B. Health care individuals A. Health care systems C. Motivation, Hygiene Theory D. Hierarchy of Needs A. Theory X and Y True or False: Verbal communication is first to be perceived by the receiver. False Which of the following is an example of assertive behavior? A. Interrupting the person when they're speaking because of a disagreement B. Walking away from the person after they're done speaking C. Telling them that they're wrong D. Making appropriate eye contact and starting your sentence with "I disagree, because." D. Making appropriate eye contact and starting your sentence with "I disagree, because." As a nurse, you know that it is most appropriate to confront your coworker...? A. During their lunch break when they're speaking because of a disagreement B. When they're going out to their car C. In front of the charge nurse D. Over a scheduled meeting in a private room away from other coworkers and patients D. Over a scheduled meeting in a private room away from other coworkers and patients What are some factors affecting learning? (SATA) A. Age B. Height/Weight C. Learning styles D. Parents educational backgrounds E. Life experiences F. Gender G. ACT score A. Age C. Learning styles E. Life experiences F. Gender What may be some teaching barriers? (SATA) A. Finding time to teach B. Not wanting to read C. Just not wanting to learn A. Finding time to teach D. Personal problems What is a good way to ask for feedback from a delegate? A. Did you do what you were supposed to do today? B. You do not need to ask for feedback, only when delegate has concerns C. How did the patient respond to getting out of her bed? D. I see you have done nothing on your list today, you are a lazy employee C. How did the patient respond to getting out of her bed? Which of these is NOT an effective way to support effective delegation? A. Creating proper job descriptions B. Providing a time frame for delegation C. Hiring individuals who are looking to get paid the least salary True or False: Moral distress often causes burnout in nurses True Coworkers evaluate you based off their viewpoint and communication with you A. Informal performance review B. Mentoring C. Peer review C. Peer review Communicated what others have done well or correctively A. Performance appraisal B. Peer review C. Self-evaluation D. Positive feedback D. Positive feedback An individual who directs the activities of others as related to a particular endeavor A. Coach B. Supervisor C. Performance standard D. Manager B. Supervisor Steps of progressive discipline A. Verbal warning, coaching, written warning, termination B. Coaching, verbal warning, written warning, termination C. Written warning, verbal warning, coaching, termination B. Coaching, verbal warning, written warning, termination Specific expectations regarding processes that must be implemented in the care of patients A. Standard of care B. Job description C. Coaching D. Not this one A. Standard of care True or False: A mentor is an individual who actively supports the development and growth of another person True What are the three phases included in Lewin's Force-Field Analysis? A. Ending, neutral, beginning B. Starting, middle, ending C. Unfreezing, movement, refreezing D. Terminate, changing, refreshing C. Unfreezing, movement, refreezing Which best describes transformational change? A. Changes or improvements of currently used processes or/and operations B. Moves an organization into different patterns of operation and structure with a clear goal in mind C. Changes in response in external events that may occur D. Creates a whole new set of attitudes and approaches within an entire organization D. Creates a whole new set of attitudes and approaches within an entire organization A. Contact the local congressman about a new health law A client in the mental health unit is experiencing escalating agitation. As an advocate for this client, what is the first thing the nurse should do? A. Tell the client to calm down immediately B. Take away the privileges the client has earned C. Give the client an emergency shot with sedative effects D. Remove the client to a quieter setting D. Remove the client to a quieter setting What is one of the first things you should do when looking for a job? a. Interview b. Construct a Resume c. Apply for something that doesn't interest you b. Construct a Resume Which of the following is NOT a career style? a. Linear Style b. Entrepreneurial Style c. Spiral Style d. Creative Style d. Creative Style What is known as a process by which one develops a master plan for career advancement? a. Career Planning b. Building a Career c. Career Mapping d. Career Building c. Career Mapping True or False: Many jobs do NOT require a formal education. True True or False: elf-analysis examines other values, beliefs, and philosophy. False Which of the following is not a type of goal? a. Medium term goals b. Short-term goals c. Long-term goals d. Intermediate goals a. Medium term goals What term explains that using respectful language to assess the client and family to understand their cultural health beliefs, and to obtain translation services when those are needed? a. Culturally Appropriate b. Therapeutic communication c. Cultural understanding d. Respectful thinking a. Culturally Appropriate Is continued education an approach to continued competence? a. Yes b. No Which type of employee has the greatest work output and best knowledge in technical know- how skills? a. Marginal b. Super achiever c. Accommodator d. Insubordinate b. Super achiever This type of employee only declares themselves as in it for the money. a. Super achiever B. Marginal C. Non-productive D. Motivated By Self-Interest D. Motivated By Self-Interest Which employee type is described as the incurable pessimist? a. Doomsayer b. Insubordinate c. Non-productive D. Motivated By Self-Interest a. Doomsayer True or False: The Insubordinate employee can be consciously or unconsciously undermining the leadership of the manager or the group. True Which one is not a sign of anger? a. Raising voice b. Rapid speech c. Flushed Face d. Smiling d. Smiling Which Individual would be considered a problem employee? a. The employee is always on time and doesn't have a high rate of absenteeism. b. The employee who works at a strong pace and completes assignments. c. The employee is disruptive to coworkers and displays uncooperative behavior. d. The employee who has all the necessary skills required for the position. c. The employee is disruptive to coworkers and displays uncooperative behavior. Which ones are indications of drug diversion? SATA a. Frequent volunteering to administer medications for others. b. Properly scans and documents medication administration. c. Frequently reports wasted or lost medications. d. Their patient reports no pain relief after the administration of pain meds. a. Frequent volunteering to administer medications for others. c. Frequently reports wasted or lost medications. d. Their patient reports no pain relief after the administration of pain meds. True or False: The ADA allows for discrimination in hiring, job expectation, and promotion against the person with a qualifying disability. False True or False: Qualitative research emphasized experimentation & statistical analysis & focuses on measurable observations. False What is step 4 in the research process? a. Review of literature b. Formation of hypothesis c. Interpretation of findings d. Identification of variables d. Identification of variables Which of these is NOT one of the four pathways into registered nursing? a. master's entry program b. Associate degree program c. Licensed practicing nurse program d. Baccalaureate degree program e. Diploma program c. Licensed practicing nurse program True or False: The Nursing Advisory Council is legislative in origin. True What is used to plan and document care that assists in the collection of information which will study the effectiveness and cost of nursing treatments? a. NIC b. NANDA c. Omaha System d. NOC a. NIC What is the most significant regulatory agency impacting nursing? a. State board of nursing b. Public advisory Group c. The Omaha System d. Nursing Advisory Group a. State board of nursing Which of these is NOT a contributing factor to the nursing shortage? a. High demand of the highest quality care b. Growing and aging U.S. population c. Cost of nursing education has increased d. Nurses at or approaching retirement age e. Difficulty attracting new nurses and retaining the existing workface c. Cost of nursing education has increased True or False: The Institute of Medicine has established 10 core nursing competences. False Which of the following are included in the ten areas of concern established by the ANA in publication of Nursing Agenda for the Future in 2001? Select all that Apply a. Education b. Diversity c. Time management d. Delivery system e. Costs of care