NURSING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS TESTED AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS RATED A+, Exams of Nursing

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1. A patient diagnosed with brain abscess was 5 days admitted in Grey-Sloan Memorial hospital, the client complained recurrent headaches ranging from 6 to 10. When the charge nurse was doing rounds, she noticed a change in level of consciousness, and focal generalized seizures. This indicates which of the following:
   1. Spreading of the infection through thin places in the wall of capsule
   2. None of the above
   3. Development of additional abscess
   4. Development of increasing ICP
2. A type of degenerative neurological disorder, which is also considered as the most common type of the motor neuron disease. It involves degeneration of both anterior horn cells and the corticospinal tracts. It also known as “Lou Gehrig’s disease.” a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson’s disease d. Myasthenia gravis
3. Which of the following manifestations of ALS indicates that the upper motor neuron is damaged? a. Dysphagia and dysartheria b. Weakness, hyperreflexia and dysartheria c. Weakness, atrophy, cramps, and fasciculation d. Spasticity and hyperreflexia
4. In caring for a 55 year old male with ALS, all of the following interventions are not involved except a. Daily physical activities b. Extremes exposure to hot and cold environment c. Allowing the client to use leg braces, canes and walkers. d. Engagement in strenuous activity
5. In feeding a client with ALS, What should be in the bedside during meals? a. Papase tablets b. Suction equipment c. Large syringe with short tubing on the tip d. Cardiac monitor
6. The client is for EEG this morning. Which of the following is not included when preparing him for the procedure? a. Render hair shampoo b. Exclude caffeine from his meal

c. Instruct the client to remain still during the procedure d. Assess for claustrophobia

8. If the client with increased ICP demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe a. Extension of upper extremities, flexion of lower extremities b. Flexion of both upper and lower extremities c. Flexion of elbows, extension of knees, plantar flexion of the feet d. Extension of elbows and knees, plantar flexion of feet, flexion of the wrists
9. The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority in the care of the client who has become comatose following cerebral hemorrhage is: a. Impaired physical mobility b. Altered Nutrition: Less than body requirements c. Ineffective airway clearance d. Constipation
10. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing intervention for the client with increased ICP? a. Provide a quiet and darkened room b. Elevate the head of bed 15 to 30 degrees c. Limit fluid intake d. Teach controlled coughing and deep breathing
11. The nurse enters the room of client who is in the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure. The initial nursing action should be to: a. insert a padded mouth gag b. gently restrain the legs c. Place some padding under the head d. obtain equipment for orotracheal suctioning
12. The nurse enters the room of client who is in the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure. The initial nursing action should be to: a. No answer text provided. b. insert a padded mouth gag c. No answer text provided. d. No answer text provided.
13. A quadriplegic client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The most appropriate first nursing intervention for the client is: a. assist him in emptying his bladder b. monitor his BP and RR

c. notify the physician d. elevate his head as high as possible

14. Following surgery for a brain tumor near the hypothalamus, the nursing assessment should include observing for: a. Inability to regulate body temperature b. bradycardia c. inability to perceive sound d. visual disturbances
15. An elderly client had CVA and can only see the nasal visual field on one side and the temporal portion on the opposite side. Which of the following correctly describes the condition? a. Agnosia b. oculogyric crisis c. homonymous hemianopsia d. receptive aphasia
16. Which of the following medications may be prescribed to prevent thromboembolic CVA? a. Ticlopidine b. Dexamethasone c. Acetaminophen d. Mannitol
17. To maintain airway patency during a stroke in evolution, which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate? a. Place client in supine position b. Thicken all dietary fluids c. Have orotracheal suction available at all times d. Restrict dietary and parenteral fluids
18. For a client with CVA, which of the following criteria must be fulfilled first before the client is fed? a. Cranial nerves III, IV and VI are intact b. The gag reflex returns c. The client swallows small sips of water d. Speech returns to normal
19. Clear liquid is draining from the nose of a client who had a head trauma 3 hours ago. This may indicate which of the following? a. cerebral palsy

b. Basilar skull fracture c. Cerebral concussion d. Sinus infection

20. Which of the following adverse effects mat occur during Phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy? a. Tachycardia b. Dry mouth c. Gingival hyperplasia d. Urinary incontinence
21. Which of the following results would best show that Mannitol is effective in the client with increased ICP? a. Urine output increased b. BUN and creatinine levels return to normal c. Systolic BP = 150mmHg d. Pupils are 8mm and nonreactive
22. A client with a C6 spinal cord injury would most likely have which of the following symptoms? a. Quadriplegia b. Aphasia c. Hemiparesis d. Paraplegia
23. A client with paraplegia from a T10 injury is getting ready to a rehabilitation hospital. When the nurse offers to assist him, the client throws his suitcase on the floor and says, "you don't want to help me." Which of the following responses would be most appropriate for the nurse to give? a. "You know I want to help you, I offered" b. "I'll pick these things up for you and come back later c. "You seem angry today. Going to rehab may be scary" d. "When you get to rehab, they won't let you behave like a spoiled brat."
24. A client is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following conditions is the cause of the disease? a. Loss of myelin sheath surrounding peripheral nerves b. A postviral disease characterized by ascending paralysis c. Inability of the basal ganglia to produce sufficient dopamine d. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors causing muscle weakness
25. Which of the following is an early sign commonly seen in myasthenia gravis?

a. Dysphagia b. Respiratory distress c. Fatigue lessened at the end of the day d. Ptosis

26. One hour after receiving Pyridostigmine Bromide (Mestinon), a client reports difficulty swallowing and excessive respiratory secretions. The nurse notifies the physician and prepares to administer which of the following medications? a. Edrophonium Chloride b. Neostigmine c. Atropine Sulfate d. Additional pyridostigmine
27. When evaluating the extent of Parkinson's disease, a nurse observes for whcih of the following conditions? a. muscle rigidity b. diplopia c. bulging eyeballs d. hemoparesis
28. Which of the following best describes Parkinson's disease? a. Degeneration of the substantia nigra, depleting dopamine b. Bleeding into the brainstem c. Loss of myelin sheath surrounding peripheral nerves d. An autoimmune response that destroys acetylcholine
29. The following are signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease except: a. drooling b. aspiration c. intentional tremors d. akinesia
30. To evaluate Levodopa/ Carbidopa, a nurse would observe for which of the following results? a. Reduction in short-term memory b. Improved visual acuity c. Decreased level of energy d. Lessened rigidity and tremors
31. Which of the following pathophysiological processes characterizes multiple sclerosis? a. destruction of basal ganglia

b. Degeneration of nucleus pulposus causing pressure on spinal cord c. chronic inflammation of the meninges of the brain d. Demyelination of nerve fibers interfering with nerve transmission

32. In Huntington ’s disease, presence of clinical manifestations usually starts in what age range? a. 20’s to 30’s b. 50’s to 60’s c. 40’s to 50’s d. 30’s to 40’s
33. Deaths in Huntington’s disease are all caused by: a. Progression of the disease b. Pneumonia c. Brain trauma d. Respiratory tract infections
34. How is Huntington’s disease being diagnosed? a. CT or MRI b. Clinical manifestations and family history c. Presence of jerky legs d. Imbalanced walking
35. A 45 year old female was diagnosed with Huntington’s disease, how many percent is it most likely for her daughter to develop the same disease? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%
36. The pathologic changes of HD involve degeneration of? a. Glial cells b. Striatum (caudate & putamen) c. Brain stem d. Cerebral cortex
37. The client with Huntington’s disease, was given haloperidol what effect should be manifested in the client? a. Controls the abnormal movements and some behavioral manifestations b. Lowers depression c. Lowers anxiety

d. Controls oral and respiratory muscles

38. What independent nursing intervention can a nurse do in assisting the family of a patient with Huntington’s disease who is experiencing poor control of oral and respiratory muscles. a. All of the choices b. Refer the family to a speech specialist to develop techniques to communicate c. Assist the family in developing signals such as raising hand or keeping the eyes open or closed for yes and no responses. d. Let the family develop their own unique ways of communication
39. Which of these assessment findings should the healthcare provider expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis? a. Clonus b. Vision loss c. Dementia d. muscle atrophy
40. A client with multiple sclerosis reported of having difficulty in urinating. A nursing a diagnosis appropriate for this client would be: a. Impaired urinary elimination related to impaired sensory motor function b. Impaired urinary elimination related to bladder dysfunction c. Constipation related to immobility and demyelination d. Impaired bowel movement related to sphincter problems
41. A 60 year old client with multiple sclerosis stated “I feel bad that my children has to take care of me. I am not a good mother. I cannot do anything on my own.” An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be: a. Situational self-esteem related to loss of independence and fear of disability b. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support system c. Low self-esteem related to chronic illness d. Ineffective coping related to loss of independence
42. How much more likely are women to get multiple sclerosis than men? a. 2 times more likely b. Men are more likely to develop multiple sclerosis than men. c. 10 times more likely d. 5 times more likely
43. Which of the following are most commonly involved areas of the brain in multiple sclerosis?

a. Optic nerves b. Cerebrum c. All of the choices d. Cervical spinal cord

44. It is a chronic demyelinating disease that affects the myelin sheath of neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). a. Multiple Sclerosis b. Huntington’s disease c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Brain abcess
45. This is a part of the brain which is essential for normal conduction of nerve impulses. a. Activated T cells b. Axon c. Activated T lymphocytes d. Myelin Sheath
46. This is a chronic irritation of the fifth cranial nerve. This disorder is also referred to as “tic doulourex”. a. Trochear Nerve palsy b. Cerebral Palsy c. Stroke d. Trigeminal Neuralgia
47. In caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia, which part of assessment and history taking is important to obtain? a. History of facial spasm b. All of the choices c. Report of pain on the face d. Triggering factors
48. Trigeminal neuralgia is more prevalent in which part of the client’s face? a. Frontal lobe b. Maxillary and mandibular distributions and on the right side of the face c. Forehead d. Chin
49. How many divisions has trigeminal nerve have? a. three b. one

c. two d. Four

50. Jaya, A 61 year old female was brought to the emergency room with a chief complaint of stabbing unilateral facial pain that is triggered by chewing and touching. The pain originates from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. Upon running some tests, Dr. Zagado have diagnosed Jaya to have trigeminal neuralgia, she then ordered carbamazepine and phenytoin for managing the patient. Which of the following should be monitored before and during medication therapy? a. Liver functions b. Carbamazepine levels on blood c. Liver enzymes d. Blood pressure
51. Which drug is contraindicated to clients with history of alcohol abuse? a. Opioids b. Morphine c. Baclofen d. Phenytoin
52. As a nurse, you know that aside from pain medications, a client with trigeminal neuralgia also needs what type of support? a. Rehabilitation b. Emotional Support c. Financial support d. Group therapy
53. What data should the client report to consider that it is a trigeminal neuralgia? a. Tingling sensation on the jaw that lasts for 2 minutes and is relieved by pain medications b. Tingling sensation on the jaw that lasts for less than 2 minutes and is relieved by pain medications c. intense, sharp, superficial or stabbing pain that lasts from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes and is triggered by chewing d. Sharp pain on clients jaw that is not triggered by any factors
54. All of the following are possible nursing diagnosis for a client with trigeminal neuralgia except: a. Chronic pain related to trigeminal nerve compression b. Impaired verbal communication related to present condition as evidenced by complain of pain on client’s jaw c. Risk for injury to the eyes r / t the risk factors: possible reduction in corneal sensation d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to pain during chewing

55. Traumatic Brain Injury is: a. None of the choices b. Physical damage to some part of the brain due to sudden force to the head c. Physical damage to some part of the skull due to sudden force of the head. d. All of the choices
56. All of the following are not the leading cause of head injuries for Traumatic Brain Injury except: a. Infection b. Motor-vehicle accidents c. Head banging d. Alcohol intake
57. An injury caused by the collision of an object with the body in which the object does not enter the body is called a(n): a. Closed injury b. Internal injury c. Blunt trauma d. Penetrating trauma
58. A type of head trauma that may result in loss of consciousness for 5 minutes or less and retrograde amnesia. There is no break in the skull or dura, and no damage is visible on CT or MRI scan a. Blunt Trauma b. Contussion c. Concussion d. Penetrating trauma
59. A type of head injury that is associated with more extensive damage. There is a presence of multiple hemorrhage and bruised areas in brain tissue. a. Penetrating trauma b. Contussion c. Blunt trauma d. Concussion
60. A type of head injury that is associated with more extensive damage. There is a presence of multiple hemorrhage and bruised areas in brain tissue. a. Blunt trauma b. Epidural Hematoma c. Penetrating Trauma

d. Coup-contrecup injuries

61. Which of the following is not a sequence is correct in following the sequence of events of epidural hematoma? I - The client is unconscious immediately after head trauma II - The client awakens is quite lucid III - Loss of consciousness occurs and pupil dilation response rapidly deteriorates, with onset of eye movement paralysis, on the same side as that of the hematoma IV - The client lapses in contact a. III, IV, II b. I, II, III c. I, II, III, IV d. II, III, IV, I
62. A unique term can be used for this complex head injury. The client has sustained a combined injury at the point of impact and an injury, on the side pf the brain opposite from the movement of the brain within the skull. a. Blunt trauma b. Coup-contrecoup injuries c. Penetrating trauma d. Concussion
63. Collection of blood in the subdural space. a. Subdural hematoma b. Subarachnoid hematoma c. Epidural hematoma d. Acute and sub-acute hematoma
64. What type of diagnostic exam confirms presence of hematoma in the brain? a. MRI scan b. CBC c. X-ray d. CT scan
65. Which of the following outcomes is applicable to a head-injured client? a. Stabilization of other conditions b. Prompt recognition and treatment pf hypoxia and acid-base disorders that can contribute to cerebral edema c. all of the choices

d. Control increasing ICP resulting from factors such as cerebral edema or expanding hematoma

66. Which of the following data is important to gather in patients with head injury? a. Neurological Status b. Complete physical history c. Complete history of the accident/ incident d. Vital signs
67. Which of the following is included in initial management of client’s with head injury? a. Assessment of ABC (airway, breathing and circulation) b. all of the choices c. have an x-ray d. Immobilization of the spine and neck at the scene of injury
68. In assessing function of cranial nerve (CN) I, the nurse offers a client coffee, toothpaste, and alcohol. The client can only identify toothpaste. The nurse would record that CN I is a. Unable to be assessed b. functional c. not functional. d. partially functional
69. The nurse asking a client questions that test orientation would include a. “What would you do if you lost your house key?” b. “Can you count backward from 100 by 7s?” c. “What year is this?” d. “Do you have any brothers and sisters?”
70. When testing comprehension in a client who is expressively aphasic, the nurse lays out a pencil, a key, and a ball and then would a. hold up the key and ask, “What do you do with this?” b. point to the pencil and ask, “Is this a pencil?” c. ask the client to pick up the ball. d. point to the pencil and ask, “What is this?”
71. When the nurse asks the client to raise the eyebrows and grimace or puff the cheeks, the nurse would be assessing the function of cranial nerve a. VII b. VIII c. IX d. X

72. Neurologic examination reveals that a client has intact, functioning cranial nerves (CNs) III through XII. The nurse would conclude that the client has normal function of the a. spinal cord b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. cerebrum
73. In assessing the function of CNs III, IV, and VI, the nurse would ask the client to a. shut the eyes tightly. b. move the eyes in six directions. c. look straight ahead for examination with an ophthalmoscope. d. read a newspaper.
74. If the client has adequate proprioception, the nurse would know that the client can a. bend over at a 90-degree angle and return to upright position. b. touch nose with eyes closed. c. touch top lip with tip of tongue. d. stand steady with feet together.
75. In assessing a client for Babinski’s reflex, the nurse would a. press thumbs under the ball of the client’s foot b. tickle the sole of the client’s foot with a fingernail. c. tap the sole with a percussion hammer at mid-arch. d. scrape the sole with a blunt object from heel toward great toe.
76. In assessing the cause of the decreased level of consciousness in a client in a coma, the diagnostic procedure that would provide the most accurate information is a. detailed history of the accident. b. physical examination. c. computed tomography (CT) scan. d. skull x-ray film.
77. During a lumbar puncture on a client in the lateral recumbent position, the physician remarks that the opening pressure is normal. The nurse would interpret this to mean that the pressure is a. between 14 and 25 mm Hg. b. between 6 and 13 mm Hg. c. above 25 mm Hg. d. below 5 mm Hg.

78. A client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a CT scan. Which of these factors, if present in the client’ history, would affect the nurse’s preparation for the scan? a. The client is having trouble remembering recent events. b. The client is allergic to seafood and iodine. c. The client takes an anticonvulsant medication on a regular basis d. The client has periods of paresthesia in the hands.
79. The nurse would explain to a client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) that an EEG a. assesses for the presence of solid masses in the brain. b. records cerebral blood flow patterns. c. measures the adequacy of cerebral perfusion. d. traces superficial electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
80. The nurse is reading progress notes pertinent to a muscle strength assessment on a client and sees that the client has a score of 4/5 on his right arm. The nurse would interpret this to mean that the right arm a. can move actively against gravity alone. b. moves across a surface but cannot overcome gravity. c. has normal strength and can move through full range of motion against gravity and resistance. d. can move through full range of motion against gravity and shows weakness to applied resistance.
81. A client describes a throbbing bifrontal and suboccipital headache after a lumbar puncture. The nurse would explain that the discomfort is most likely to be a. related to increased intracranial pressure. b. a clinical manifestation of spinal cord compression. c. relieved by bed rest. d. diminished by restricting fluids.
82. A client’s headache after lumbar puncture persists for 2 days, and an epidural patch is ordered. The nurse would explain that the patch closes the puncture in the dura with a. exposure to ultrasonic waves b. insertion of a small stent. c. an injection of sterile polymer glue. d. fibrin from blood drawn from the client.
83. In the post-procedure care of a client after cerebral angiography, the nurse would include a. ambulating the client on return from radiology

b. assessing the pedal pulses c. carefully monitoring the intake and output. d. elevating the affected leg above the level of the heart

84. When a client does not respond to verbal stimuli, to determine level of consciousness, the nurse should a. apply pressure across the client's nail bed. b. lightly pinch the skin of the hand. c. ask the client to squeeze the nurse's fingers. d. check deep tendon reflexes.
85. The nursing action that is important to prevent complications from nasogastric feeding in a comatose client receiving tube feedings is to a. feed the client in the supine position. b. feed only small amounts every hour. c. check residual volume every 4 hours. d. stimulate the gag reflex every 8 hours
86. The nurse who is beginning oral feedings on a client who is returning to consciousness will a. stroke the posterior neck to promote swallowing. b. place about 1 teaspoonful of liquid in the front of the mouth. c. position the client upright. d. begin feedings with water.
87. Prior to the evacuation of a fecal impaction from a comatose client, the nurse applies an anesthetic jelly to the rectum in order to a. prevent discomfort to hemorrhoids. b. prevent rectal tearing. c. prevent possible seizures. d. prevent discomfort to hemorrhoids.
88. The nurse closely monitors the intake and output of a comatose client receiving hypertonic tube feedings because such feedings can cause a. hypovolemia b. retention of fluid c. renal failure d. concentration of urine
89. The nurse will hyperoxygenate a comatose client prior to suctioning the airway to decrease the risk of

a. seizure. b. infection c. hypotension d. dysrhythmias

90. A nurse preparing to give mouth care to a comatose client should first place this client into the position of a. low fowlers b. high fowlers c. lateral d. Prone
91. When a comatose patient receiving nasogastric (NG) feedings is scheduled to have a gastrostomy tube inserted, the nurse informs the family that the advantage of this feeding tube over nasogastric tubes is a. decreased risk of infection. b. decreased risk of aspiration. c. increased access for mouth care. d. less complicated feeding procedure
92. When assessing the throat of a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse would expect the superficial reflex response of a. absent pharyngeal reflex on the affected side. b. positive triceps jerk on the unaffected side. c. abnormal patellar reflex on the unaffected side. d. absent Achilles tendon reflex on the affected side
93. A car accident damaged a client’s spinal cord at the level of the third sacral vertebra (S3). The nurse would know that the client is most likely to experience a. anesthesia of the upper extremities. b. dysarthria. c. fecal incontinence. d. urinary retention.
94. Which of the following symptoms may occur with phenytoin level of 32 mg/dl? a. Tonic-clonic seizure b. Sodium depletion c. Urinary incontinence d. Ataxia and confusion

95. The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious client. The nurse would plan to use which of the following to test the client's peripheral response to pain? a. Pressure on the orbital rim b. Sternal rub c. Nail bed pressure d. Squeezing the sternocleidomastoid muscle
96. The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which of the following trends in vital signs of the ICP is rising? a. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure b. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure c. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure d. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure.
97. The nurse will administer Phenytoin (Dilantin) per IV to the client with grand mal seizures. Which of the following should the nurse prepare? a. 10mL LR b. 10mL D10W c. 10mL D5W d. 10 mL NaCl 0.9%
98. A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300mL, dry skin, and dry mucous membranes. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate to perform initially? a. Anticipate treatment for renal failure. b. Slow down the IV fluids and notify the physician. c. Provide emollients lo The skin lo prevent breakdown. d. Evaluate urine specific gravity.
99. When evaluating on ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the PaCO2 is 30mm Which of the following responses best describes this result? a. Significant, the client has alveolar hypoventilation. b. Appropriate, lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranic pressure c. Emergent: the client is poorly oxygenated. d. Normal
100. A client comes into the ER after hitting his head in a Motor Vehicle Accident. He's alert and oriented. Which of the following interventions should be done first?

a. Immobilize the client's head and neck. b. Open the airway with the head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver c. Call for an immediate chest x-ray. d. Assess full ROM to determine extent of injuries

101. A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of 210/100 and heart rate of 50. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first? a. Give one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. b. Assess patency of the indwelling urinary catheter c. Raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees d. Place the client flat in bed.