Nursing Final Exam Questions with Answers with Latest Updates 2023/2024 100% Verified sol, Exams of Nursing

Download Nursing Final Exam Questions with Answers with Latest Updates 2023/2024 100% Verified sol and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Nursing Final Exam Questions with Answers with Latest Updates 2023/2024 100% Verified solutions with Guaranteed Success Questions chapter 1 1. When providing respectful, appropriate nursing care, how should the nurse identify the patient and his or her observable characteristics? a. The manic patient in room 234 b. The patient in room 234 is a manic c. The patient in room 234 is possibly a manic d. The patient in room 234 is displaying manic behavior 2. Recognizing the frequency of depression among the American population, the nurse should advocate for which mental health promotion intervention? a. Including discussions on depression as part of school health classes b. Providing regular depression screening for adolescent and teenage students c. Increasing the number of community-based depression hotlines available to the public d. Encouraging senior centers to provide information on accessing community depression resources 3. Which statement made by a patient demonstrates a healthy degree of resilience? Select all that apply. a. “I try to remember not to take other people’s bad moods personally.” b. “I know that if I get really mad I’ll end up being depressed.” c. “I really feel that sometimes bad things are meant to happen.” d. “I’ve learned to calm down before trying to defend my opinions.” e. “I know that discussing issues with my boss would help me get my point across.” 4. Which statement demonstrates the nurse’s understanding of the effect of environmental factors on a patient’s mental health? a. “I’ll need to assess how the patient’s family views mental illness.” b. “There is a history of depression in the patient’s extended family.” c. “I’m not familiar with the patient’s Japanese’s cultural view on suicide.” d. “The patient’s ability to pay for mental health services needs to be assessed.” 5. When considering stigmatization, which statement made by the nurse demonstrates a need for immediate intervention by the nurse manager? a. “Depression seems to be a real problem among the teenage population.” b. “My experience has been that the Irish have a problem with alcohol use.” c. “Women are at greater risk for developing suicidal thoughts then acting on them.” d. “We’ve admitted several military veterans with posttraumatic stress disorder this month.” 6. A nursing student new to psychiatric-mental health nursing asks a peer what resources he can use to figure out which symptoms are present in a specific psychiatric disorder. The best answer would be: a. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) b. Operant conditioning c. Behavioral d. Cognitive-behavioral 7. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the most basic needs category for nurses to address is: a. physiological b. safety c. love and belonging d. self-actualization 8. In an outpatient psychiatric clinic, a nurse notices that a newly admitted young male patient smiles when he sees her. One day the young man tells the nurse, “You are pretty like my mother.” The nurse recognizes that the male is exhibiting: a. Transference b. Id expression c. Countertransference d. A cognitive distortion 9. Linda is terrified of spiders and cannot explain why. Because she lives in a wooded area, she would like to overcome this overwhelming fear. Her nurse practitioner suggests which therapy? a. Behavioral b. Biofeedback c. Aversion d. Systematic desensitization 10. A patient is telling a tearful story. The nurse listens empathically and responds therapeutically with: a. “The next time you find yourself in a similar situation, please call me.” b. “I am sorry this situation made you feel so badly. Would you like some tea?” c. “Let’s devise a plan on how you will react next time in a similar situation.” d. “I am sorry that your friend was so thoughtless. You should be treated better.” Answers 1. a; 2. b; 3. a, b, e ; 4. c; 5. d; 6. d; 7. a; 8. a; 9. d; 10. c Chapter 3 1. Besides antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is also commonly given to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders? a. Antipsychotics b. Mood stabilizers c. Antidepressants d. Cholinesterase inhibitors 2. What assessment question will provide the nurse with information regarding the effects of a woman’s circadian rhythms on her quality of life? a. “How much sleep do you usually get each night?” b. “Does your heart ever seem to skip a beat?” c. “When was the last time you had a fever?” d. “Do you have problems urinating?” 3. You realize that your patient who is being treated for a major depressive disorder requires more teaching when she makes the following statement: a. “I have been on this antidepressant for 3 days. I realize that the full effect may not happen for a period of weeks.” b. “I am going to ask my nurse practitioner to discontinue my Prozac today and let me start taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.” c. “I may ask to have my medication changed to Wellbutrin due to the problems I am having being romantic with my wife.” d. “I realize that there are many antidepressants and it might take a while until we find the one that works best for me.” 4. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramel-teon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Persistent depressive disorder d. Substance use disorder 5. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply. a. “I hope Wellbutrin will help my depression and also help me to finally quit smoking.” b. “I’m happy to hear that I won’t need to worry too much about weight gain.” c. “It’s okay to take Wellbutrin since I haven’t had a seizure in 6 months.” d. “I need to be careful about driving since the medication could make me drowsy.” e. “My partner and I have discussed the possible effects this medication could have on our sex life.” 6. Which drug group calls for nursing assessment for development of abnormal movement disorders among individuals who take therapeutic dosages? a. SSRIs b. antipsychotics c. benzodiazepines d. tricyclic antidepressants 7. A nurse reviews an order for a CYP450 test. He explains to his patient from Thailand that the testwill determine how the antidepressant will be: a. Metabolized b. Absorbed c. Administered d. Excreted 8. Psychotropic drugs have been used for more than half a century. What statement regarding their current status is true? a. Only one classification of psychotropic drugs exists. b. The Food and Drug Administration no longer approves new antidepressants. c. We do not know exactly how they work. d. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine), the first psychotropic, continues to be the treatment of choice with hallucinations. 9. The nurse administers each of the following drugs to various patients. The patient who should be most carefully assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the one receiving: a. lithium (Eskalith ) b. clozapine (Clozaril) c. diazepam (Valium) d. amitriptyline 10. A psychiatric nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs: a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors d. All of the above Answers 1. c; 2. a; 3. b; 4. d; 5. a, b; 6. b; 7. a; 8. c; 9. a; 10. b Chapter 4 Questions 1. A patient needs supportive care for the maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder. The new nurse demonstrates an understanding of the services provided by the various members of the patient’s mental healthcare team when he makes which statement: a. “Your social worker will help you learn to budget your money effectively.” b. “Your counselor asked me to remind you of the group session on critical thinking at 2:00 today.” c. “The mental health technician on staff today will administer the medication that you require.” d. “Remember to ask the occupational therapist about sources of financial help that you are qualified for.” 2. A patient has been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility after an unsuccessful attempt to harm himself. Which statement demonstrates a need to better educate the patient on his patient’s rights? a. “I understand why I was restrained when I was out of control.” with nature.” c. “Spending money on medicine for his diabetes is not a comfortable concept for my patient.” d. “The patient refuses treatment.” e. “We discussed the patient’s needs regarding warding off evil spirits before her surgery.” 3. Which assessment questions will support effective communication with a patient who recently emigrated from an Asian country? Select all that apply. a. “What do you call this kind of pain?” b. “What do you think is causing your pain?” c. “How do you think your pain should be treated?” d. “Do you consider this kind of pain a serious problem?” e. “Do you think American medicine will help your pain?” 4. When considering culturally competent care for a Muslim patient diagnosed with cardiac problems, which intervention is particularly important to implement initially when a low fat diet is prescribed? a. Requesting a dietary consult b. Identifying dietary considerations c. Explaining the importance of a low fat diet d. Including the family in conversation about food preparation 5. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates ethnocentrism toward the Hispanic patient? a. “What do you want us to do to help your symptoms?” b. “Tell me more about what you think is causing these symptoms.” c. “I’m sure we can do something to make your symptoms more manageable.” d. “How much have these symptoms made it more difficult for you to go to work?” 6. Ling has a nursing diagnosis of risk for other-directed violence. Ling’s Eastern culture family is having difficulty coping with the illness due to their beliefs. A favorable therapeutic modality for this patient might include: a. Outpatient therapy b. Family therapy c. Long-term inpatient care d. Assimilation therapy 7. A nurse practitioner is interviewing a female patient from Southeast Asia. She complains of stomach pain and chest discomfort. Knowing that the patient’s adult son died in a car accident last month, the nurse suspects: a. Vulnerability b. Acid reflux c. Somatization d. Transference 8. Which nursing intervention can assist a Hindu patient in maintaining his religious practice? a. Assisting the patient to choose his own food from the menu b. Contacting the hospital pastor for a visit c. Showing him which side of the room faces east d. Offering a Torah to the patient 9. Intergenerational conflict may arise in immigrant families because the process of acculturation may be: a. Ignored due to cultural beliefs b. Filled with traumatic experiences c. Easier for children d. A function of assimilation 10. Which nursing actions demonstrate cultural competence? Select all that apply. a. Planning mealtime around the patient’s prayer schedule b. Helping a patient to visit with the hospital chaplain c. Researching foods that a lacto-ovo-vegetarian patient will eat d. Providing time for a patient’s spiritual healer to visit e. Ordering standard meal trays to be delivered three times daily Answers 1. b; 2. a, b, c, e; 3. a, b, c, d; 4. b; 5. c; 6. b; 7. c; 8. a; 9. c; 10. a, b, c, d Chapter 6 Questions 1. Which statement made by the nurse concerning ethics demonstrates the best understanding of the concept? a. “It isn’t right to deny someone healthcare because they can’t pay for it.” b. “I never discuss my patient’s refusal of treatment.” c. “The hospital needs to buy more respirators so we always have one available.” d. “Not all ICU patients have the right to unbiased attention from the staff.” 2. Which nursing intervention demonstrates the ethical principle of beneficence? a. Refusing to administer a placebo to a patient. b. Attending an in-service on the operation of the new IV infusion pumps c. Providing frequent updates to the family of a patient currently in surgery d. Respecting the right of the patient to make decisions about whether or not to have electroconvulsive therapy 3. How can a newly hired nurse best attain information concerning the state’s mental health laws and statutes? a. Discuss the issue with the facility’s compliance officer b. Conduct an internet search using the keywords “mental + health + statutes + (your state)” c. Consult the American Nurses Association’s (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses d. Review the facility’s latest edition of the policies manual 4. When considering facility admissions for mental healthcare, what characteristic is unique to a voluntary admission? a. The patient poses no substantial threat to themselves or to others b. The patient has the right to seek legal counsel c. A request in writing is required before admission d. A mental illness has been previously diagnosed 5. Which situations demonstrate liable behavior on the part of the staff? Select all that apply. a. Forgetting to obtain consent for electroconvulsive therapy for a cognitively impaired patient b. Leaving a patient with suicidal thoughts alone in the bathroom to shower c. Promising to restrain a patient who stole from another patient on the unit d. Reassuring a patient with paranoia that his antipsychotic medication was not tampered with e. Placing a patient who has repeatedly threatened to assault staff in seclusion 6. A nurse makes a post on a social media page about his peer taking care of a patient with a crime- related gunshot wound in the emergency department. He does not use the name of the patient. The nurse: a. Has not violated confidentiality laws because he did not use the patient’s name. b. Cannot be held liable for violating confidentiality laws because he was not the primary nurse for the patient. c. Has violated confidentiality laws and can be held liable. d. Cannot be held liable because postings on a social media site are excluded from confidentiality laws. 7. In providing care for patients of a mental health unit, Li recognizes the importance of standards of care. When Li notices that some policies fall short of the state licensing laws, which of the following statements represents the most appropriate standard of care pathway? a. Professional association, customary care, facility policyb. State board of nursing, facility policy, customary care c. Facility policy, professional associations, state board of nursing d. State board of nursing, professional association, facility policy 8. Lucas has completed his inpatient psychiatric treatment, which was ordered by the court system. Which statement reveals that Lucas does not understand the concept of conditional release? a. “I will continue treatment in an outpatient treatment center.” b. “My nurse practitioner has recommended group therapy.” c. “I am finally free, no more therapy.” d. “Attending therapy and taking my meds are a part of this conditional release.” 9. Implied consent occurs when no verbal or written agreement takes place prior to a caregiver delivering treatment. Which of the following examples represents implied b. Using the nursing process as a guide c. Using language the specific patient can understand d. Avoiding legal jargon 10. Amadi is a 40-year-old African national being treated in a psychiatric outpatient setting due to a court order. Amadi’s medical record is limited in scope, so where can Renata, his registered nurse, obtain more data on Amadi’s condition within legal parameters? Select all that apply. a. Emergency department records b. Police records related to the offense resulting in the court order for treatment c. Calling his family in Africa for details about Amadi’s mental health d. Past medical records in the current facility Answers 1. a, e; 2.c; 3. a, b, d, e; 4. c; 5. d; 6. d; 7. b; 8. a; 9. b; 10. a, b, d Chapter 8 1. Which statement made by either the nurse or the patient demonstrates an ineffective patient nurse relationship? a. “I’ve given a lot of thought about what triggers me to be so angry.” b. “Why do you think it’s acceptable for you to be so disrespectful to staff?” c. “Will your spouse be available to attend tomorrow’s family group session?” d. “I wanted you to know that the medication seems to be helping me fell less anxious.” 2. The patient expresses sadness at “being all alone with no one to share my life with.” Which response by the nurse demonstrates the existence of a therapeutic relationship? a. “Loneliness can be a very painful and difficult emotion.” b. “Let’s talk and see if you and I have any interests in common.” c. “I use Facebook to find people who share my love of cooking.” d. “Loneliness is managed by getting involved with people.” 3. Which patient outcome is directly associated with the goals of a therapeutic nurse- patient relationship? a. Patient will be respectful of other patients on the unit. b. Patient will identify suicidal feelings to staff whenever they occur. c. Patient will engage in at least one social interaction with the unit population daily. d. Patient will consume a daily diet to meet both nutritional and hydration needs. 4. What is the greatest trigger for the development of a patient’s nurse focused transference? a. The similarity between the nurse and someone the patient already dislikes b. The nature of the patient’s diagnosed mental illness c. The history the patient has with their parents d. The degree of authority the nurse has over the patient 5. Which patient statement demonstrates a value held regarding children? a. “Nothing is more important to me than the safety of my children.” b. “I believe my spouse wants to leave both me and our children.” c. “I don’t think my child’s success depends on going to college.” d. “I know my children will help me through my hard times.” 6. Mary is a 39-year-old attending a psychiatric outpatient clinic. Mary believes that her husband, sister, and son cause her problems. Listening to Mary describe the problems the nurse displays therapeutic communication in which response? a. “I understand you are in a difficult situation. ” b. “Thinking about being wronged repeatedly does more harm than good.” c. “I feel bad about your situation, and I am so sorry it is happening to you and your family.” d. “It must be so difficult to live with uncaring people.” 7. A registered nurse is caring for an older male who reports depressive symptoms since his wife of 54 years died suddenly. He cries, maintains closed body posture, and avoids eye contact. Which nursing action describes attending behavior? a. Reminding the patient gently that he will “feel better over time” b. Using a soft tone of voice for questioning c. Sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or when to remain silent d. Offering medication and bereavement services 8. A male patient frequently inquires about the female student nurse’s boyfriend, social activities, and school experiences. Which is the best initial response by the student? a. The student requests assignment to a patient of the same gender as the student. b. She limits sharing personal information and stresses the patient-centered focus of the conversation. c. The student shares information to make the therapeutic relationship more equal. d. She explains that if he persists in focusing on her, she cannot work with him. 9. Morgan is a third-year nursing student in her psychiatric clinical rotation. She is assigned to an 80-year-old widow admitted for major depressive disorder. The patient describes many losses and sadness. Morgan becomes teary and says meaningfully, “I am so sorry for you.” Morgan’s instructor overhears the conversation and says, “I understand that getting tearful is a human response. Yet, sympathy isn’t helpful in this field.” The instructor urges Morgan to focus on: a. “Adopting the patient’s sorrow as your own.” b. “Maintaining pure objectivity.” c. “Using empathy to demonstrate respect and validation of the patient’s feelings.” d. “Using touch to let her know that everything is going to be alright.” 10. Emily is a 28-year-old nurse who works on a psychiatric unit. She is assigned to work with Jenna, a 27-year-old who was admitted with major depressive disorder. Emily and Jenna realize that they graduated from the same high school and each has a 2-year-old daughter. Emily and Jenna discuss getting together for a play date with their daughters after Jenna is discharged. This situation reflects: a. Successful termination b. Promoting interdependence c. Boundary blurring d. A strong therapeutic relationship Answers 1. b; 2. a; 3. b; 4. d; 5. a; 6. a; 7. c; 8. b; 9. c; 10. c Chapter 9 1. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication? a. “The patient’s verbal and nonverbal communication is often different.” b. “When my patient responds to my question, I check for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication to help validate the response.” c. “If a patient is slumped in the chair, I can be sure he’s angry or depressed.” d. “It’s easier to understand verbal communication that nonverbal communication.” 2. Which nursing statement is an example of reflection? a. “I think this feeling will pass.” b. “So you are saying that life has no meaning.” c. “I’m not sure I understand what you mean.” d. “You look sad.” 3. When should a nurse be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient? a. Change of shift report b. Admission interviews c. One-to-one conversations with patients d. Conversations with patient families 4. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the nurse be monitoring? Select all that apply. a. Auditory b. Visual c. Written d. Tactile e. Olfactory 5. What principle about nurse-patient communication should guide a nurse’s fear about “saying the wrong thing” to a patient? a. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation. b. The patient is more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say and so is not likely to be offended. c. Considering the patient’s history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm. d. Most people with a mentally illness have by necessity developed a high tolerance of forgiveness. 7. Hugo is 21 and diagnosed with schizophrenia. His history includes significant turmoil as child and adolescent. Hugo reports his father was abusive and routinely beat him, all of his siblings, and his mother. Hugo’s early exposure to stress most likely: a. Made him resilient to stressful situations b. Increased his future vulnerability to psychiatric disorders c. Developed strong survival skills d. Shaped his nurturing nature 8. Hugo has a fraternal twin named Franco who is unaffected by mental illness even though they were raised in the same dysfunctional household. Franco asks the nurse, “Why Hugo and not me?” The nurse replies: a. “Your father was probably less abusive to you.” b. “Hugo likely has a genetic vulnerability.” c. “You probably ignored the situation.” d. “Hugo responded to perceived threats by focusing on an internal world.” 9. First responders and emergency department healthcare providers often use dark humor in an effort to: a. Reduce stress and anxiety b. Relive the experience c. Rectify moral distress d. Alert others to the stress 10. Your 39-year-old patient, Samantha, who was admitted with anxiety, asks you what the stress- relieving technique of mindfulness is. The best response is: a. Mindfulness is focusing on an object and repeating a word or phrase while deep breathing b. Mindfulness is progressively tensing, then relaxing, body muscles c. Mindfulness is focusing on the here and now, not the past or future, and paying attention to what is going on around you d. Mindfulness is a memory system to assist you in short-term memory recall Answers 1. b; 2. a, b, c, e; 3. c; 4. b, d, e; 5. c; 6. d; 7. b; 8. b; 9. a; 10. c Chapter 11 1. Which statement demonstrates a well-structured attempt at limit setting? a. “Hitting me when you are angry is unacceptable.” b. “I expect you to behave yourself during dinner.” c. “Come here, right now!” d. “Good boys don’t bite.” 2. Which activity is most appropriate for a child with ADHD? a. Reading an adventure novel b. Monopoly c. Checkers d. Tennis 3. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is going well when a 12-year- old patient in therapy reports to the nurse practitioner: a. “I was so mad I wanted to hit my mother.” b. “I thought that everyone at school hated me. That’s not true. Most people like me and I have a friend named Todd.” c. “I forgot that you told me to breathe when I become angry.” d. “I scream as loud as I can when the train goes by the house.” 4. What assessment question should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager’s mental health resilience? Select all that apply. a. “How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?” b. “Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?” c. “How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?” d. “Where do you see yourself in 10 years?” e. “Do you like the school you go to?” 5. Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply. a. Limited language skills b. Level of cognitive development c. Level of emotional development d. Parental denial that a problem exists e. Severity of the typical mental illnesses observed in young children 6. Pam, the nurse educator, is teaching a new nurse about seclusion and restraint. Order the following interventions from least (1) to most (5) restrictive: a. With the patient identify the behaviors that are unacceptable and consequences associated with harmful behaviors b. Placing the patient in physical restraints c. Allowing the patient to take a time-out and sit in his or her room d. Offering a PRN medication by mouth e. Placing the patient in a locked seclusion room 7. In pediatric mental health there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, and there are long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in: Select all that apply. a. Child b. Increased stress in the family unit c. Markedly increased funding d. Premature termination of services 8. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents’ home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his “nice” mom, that he loves school, and gets above average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is: a. Temperament b. Genetic factors c. Resilience d. Paradoxical effects of neglect 9. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that: a. Time-out is an important part of April’s baseline discipline. b. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure. c. April enjoys time-out, and acts out to get some alone time. d. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint. 10. Adolescents often display fluctuations in mood along with undeveloped emotional regulation and poor tolerance for frustration. Emotional and behavioral control usually increases over the course of adolescence due to: a. Limited executive function b. Cerebellum maturation c. Cerebral stasis and hormonal changes d. A slight reduction in brain volume Answers 1. a; 2. d; 3. b, e; 4. a, b, d; 5. a, b, c; 6. a-1, b-5, c-3, d-2, e-4; 7. a, b, d; 8. c; 9.d b; 10. Chapter 12 Questions 1. Which characteristic in an adolescent female is sometimes associated with the prodromal phase of schizophrenia? a. Always afraid another student will steal her belongings . b. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics. c. Demonstrates no interest in athletics or organized sports. d. Appears more comfortable among males. 2. Which nursing intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia? a. Screening a group of males between the ages of 15 and 25 for early symptoms. b. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 who are diagnosed with substance use issues. c. Providing a group for patients between the ages of 45 and 55 with information on coping skills that have proven to be effective. d. Educating the parents of a group of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on the importance of early intervention. 3. To provide effective care for the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, the nurse should frequently assess for which associated condition? Select all that apply. a. Alcohol use disorder b. Major depressive disorder c. Stomach cancer 4. A male patient calls to tell the nurse that his monthly lithium level is 1.7 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention will the nurse implement initially? a. Reinforce that the level is considered therapeutic. b. Instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and contact the prescriber. c. Have the patient go to the hospital emergency room immediately. d. Alert the patient to the possibility of seizures and appropriate precautions. 5. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select all that apply. a. Monitor the patient’s vital signs frequently. b. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities. c. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks. d. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment. e. Use a firm but calm voice to give specific concise directions to the patient. 6. Substance abuse is often present in people diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Laura, a 28- year-old with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, drinks alcohol instead of taking her prescribed medications. The nurse caring for this patient recognizes that: a. Anxiety may be present. b. Alcohol ingestion is a form of self-medication. c. The patient is lacking a sufficient number of neurotransmitters . d. The patient is using alcohol because she is depressed. 7. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends: a. Clonazepam (Klonopin) b. Fluoxetine (Prozac) c. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) d. Lurasidone (Latuda) 8. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, “You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing”: a. A higher dosage b. Once a week dosing c. A lower dosage d. A different drug 9. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse’s suspicion as correct? a. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough b. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine c. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus d. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness 10. Luc’s family comes home one evening to find him extremely agitated and they suspect in a full manic episode. The family calls emergency medical services. While one medic is talking with Luc and his family, the other medic is counting something on his desk. What is the medic most likely counting? a. Hypodermic needles b. Fast food wrappers c. Empty soda cans d. Energy drink containers Answers 1. a, c, d, e; 2. a, b, e; 3. d, e; 4. b; 5. a, c, d, e; 6. b; 7. c; 8. c; 9. b; 10. d Chapter 14 1. Which response by a 15-year-old demonstrates a common symptom observed in patients diagnosed with major depressive disorder? a. “I’m so restless. I can’t seem to sit still.” b. “I spend most of my time studying. I have to get into a good college.” c. “I’m not trying to diet, but I’ve lost about 5 pounds in the past 5 months.” d. “I go to sleep around 11 p.m. but I’m always up by 3 a.m. and can’t go back to sleep.” 2. Which assessment question asked by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder? Select all that apply. a. “Do rules apply to you?” b. “What do you do to manage anxiety?” c. “Do you have a history of disordered eating?” d. “Do you think that you drink too much?” e. “Have you ever been arrested for committing a crime?” 3. Which nursing intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population? a. Conducting routine suicide screenings at a senior center. b. Identifying depression as a natural, but treatable result of aging. c. Identifying males as being at a greater risk for developing depression. d. Stressing that most individuals experience just a single episode of major depression in a lifetime. 4. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select all that apply. a. Female b. 7 years old c. Comorbid autism diagnosis d. Outbursts occur at least once a week e. Temper tantrums occur at home and in school 5. Which chronic medical condition is a common trigger for major depressive disorder? a. Pain b. Hypertension c. Hypothyroidism d. Crohn’s disease 6. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider? a. Fluoxetine (Prozac) b. Isocarboxazid (Marplan) c. Amitriptyline d. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) 7. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors c. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor 8. When a nurse uses therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to: a. Meditate in the quiet environment b. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer c. Use the technique of making observations d. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep 9. The biological approach to treating depression with electrodes surgically implanted into specific areas of the brain to stimulate the regions identified to be underactive in depression is: a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation b. Deep brain stimulation c. Vagus nerve stimulation d. Electroconvulsive therapy 10. Two months ago, Natasha’s husband died suddenly and she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement? 1. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the treatment of choice for patients managing the effects of traumatic events? a. “I attend my therapy sessions regularly.” b. “Those intrusive memories are hidden for a reason and should stay hidden.” c. “Keeping busy is the key to getting mentally healthy.” d. “I’ve agreed to move in with my parents so I’ll get the support I need.” 2. Which goal should be addressed initially when providing care for 10-year-old Harper who is diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Harper will be able to identify feelings through the use of play therapy. b. Harper and her parents will have access to protective resources available through social services. c. Harper will demonstrate the effective use of relaxation techniques to restore a sense of control over disturbing thoughts. d. Harper and her parents will demonstrate an understanding of the personal human response to traumatic events. 3. The care plan of a male patient diagnosed with a dissociative disorder includes the nursing diagnosis ineffective coping. Which behavior demonstrated by the patient supports this nursing diagnosis? a. Has no memory of the physical abuse he endured. b. Using both alcohol and marijuana. c. Often reports being unaware of surroundings. d. Reports feelings of “not really being here.” 4. Which statement accurately describes the effects of emotional trauma on the individual physically? a. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical problems b. The physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary c. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms d. Patients are more aware of the physical problems caused by trauma 5. The school nurse has been alerted to the fact that an 8-year-old boy routinely playacts as a police officer “locking up” other children on the playground to the point where the children get scared. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely an indication of: a. The need to dominate others b. Inventing traumatic events c. A need to develop close relationships d. A potential symptom of traumatization 6. A pregnant woman is in a relationship with a male who routinely abuses her. Her unborn child may engage in high-risk behavior as a teen as a result of: a. Maternal stress b. Parental nurturing c. Appropriate stress responses in the brain d. Memories of the abuse 7. Maggie, a child in protective custody, is found to have an imaginary friend, Holly. Her foster family shares this information with the nurse. The nurse teaches the family members aboutchildren who have suffered trauma and knows her teaching was effective when the foster mother states: a. “I understand that imaginary friends are abnormal.” b. “I understand that imaginary friends are a maladaptive behavior.” c. “I understand that imaginary friends are a coping mechanism.” d. “I understand that we should tell the child that imaginary friends are unacceptable.” 8. An incest survivor undergoing treatment at the mental health clinic is relieved when she learns that her anxiety and depression are: a. Going to be eradicated with treatment b. Normal and will soon pass c. Abnormal but will pass d. A normal reaction to posttraumatic events 9. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from: a. Major depression b. Normal grieving c. Adjustment disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorder 10. A young child is found wandering alone at a mall. A male store employee approaches and asks where her parents are. She responds, “I don’t know. Maybe you will take me home with you?” This sort of response in children may be due to: a. A lack of bonding as an infant b. A healthy confidence in the child c. Adequate parental bonding d. Normal parenting Answers 1. a; 2. c; 3. b; 4. c; 5. d; 6. a; 7. c; 8. d; 9. c; 10. a Chapter 17 1. The care plan of a patient diagnosed with a somatic disorder includes the nursing diagnosis ineffective coping. Which patient behavior demonstrates a successful outcome for that nursing diagnosis? a. Showers and dresses in clean clothes daily b. Calls a friend to talk when feeling lonely c. Spends more time talking about pain in her abdomen d. Maintains focus and concentration 2. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a stress- induced myocardial infarction? a. A patient who lost a child in an accidental shooting 24 hours ago b. A woman who has begun experiencing early signs of menopause c. A patient who has spent years trying to sustain a successful business d. A patient who was diagnosed with chronic depression 10 years ago 3. What precipitating emotional factor has been associated with an increased incidence of cancers? Select all that apply. a. Anxiety b. Job-related stress c. Acute grief d. Feelings of hopelessness and despair from depression e. Prolonged, intense stress 4. You are caring for Aaron, a 38-year-old patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. When interacting with you, Aaron continues to focus on his severe headaches. In planning care for Aaron, which of the following interventions would be appropriate? a. Call for a family meeting with Aaron in attendance to confront Aaron regarding his diagnosis. b. Educate Aaron on alternative therapies to deal with pain. c. Improve reality testing by telling Aaron that you do not believe that the headaches are real. d. After a limited discussion of physical concerns, shift focus to feelings and effective coping skills. 5. Living comfortable and materialistic lives in Western societies seems to have altered the original hierarchy proposed by Maslow in that: a. Once lower level needs are satisfied, no further growth feels necessary b. Self-actualization is easier to achieve with financial stability c. Esteem is more highly valued than safety d. Focusing on materialism reduces interests in love, belonging, and family 6. Diane, a 63-year-old mother of three, was brought to the community psychiatric clinic. Diane and her son had a bitter fight over finances. Ever since Diane has been complaining of “a severe pain in my neck.” She has seen several doctors who cannot find a physical basis for the pain. The nurse knows that: a. Showing concern for Diane’s pain will increase her obsessional thinking. b. Diane’s symptoms are manipulative and under conscious control. c. Diane believes there is a physical cause for the pain and will resist a psychological explanation . d. Diane is trying to make her son feel bad about the argument. c. “You will be eating five times a day here.” d. “The daily structure is based around your desire to eat.” 8. Safety measures are of concern in eating-disorder treatments. Patients with anorexia nervosa are supervised closely to monitor: Select all that apply. a. Foods that are eaten b. Attempts at self-induced vomiting c. Relationships with other patients d. Weight 9. Malika has been overweight all of her life. Now an adult, she has health problems related to her excessive weight. Seeking weight loss assistance at a primary care facility Malika is surprised when the nurse practitioner suggests: a. A trial of SSRI antidepressant therapy b. Mild exercise to start, increasing in intensity over time c. Removing snack foods from the home d. Medication treatment for hypertension 10. Malika agrees to try losing weight according to the nurse practitioner’s outlined plan. Additional teaching is warranted when Malika states: a. “I am willing to admit I am depressed.” b. “Psychotherapy will be a part of my treatment.” c. “I prefer to have a gastric bypass rather than use this plan. ” d. “My comorbid conditions may improve with weight loss.” Answers 1. b; 2. a; 3. a, c, e; 4. d; 5. a; 6. b; 7. a; 8. a, b, d; 9. a; 10. c Chapter 21 Questions 1. Which statement made by a 9-year-old child after hitting a classmate is a typical comment associated with childhood conduct disorder? a. “I’m sorry, I won’t hit him again.” b. “He deserved it for being a sissy.” c. “I didn’t think I hit him very hard.” d. “He hit me first. You just didn’t see it.” 2. What assessment data would support a diagnosis of conduct disorder? Select all that apply. a. Evidence of social isolation b. Arrested twice for disorderly conduct c. Expresses difficulty in keeping employment d. Demonstrates objective signs of phobia e. Exhibits signs of chronic self-mutilation 3. Which event experienced in the patient’s childhood increases the risk of the development of behaviors associated with intermittent explosive disorder? a. Orphaned at age 4 b. Physically abused from ages 3 to 10 c. Born with a chronic congenital disorder d. One parent was diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder 4. What is a common behavior observed in a patient diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder? Select all that apply. a. Short attention span b. Threatens suicide c. Often purges after eating d. Uses alcohol to excess e. States, “Everyone is out to get me.” 5. When discussing oppositional defiant disorder with a group of parents, what information should the nurse include about the disorder? Select all that apply a. Classic symptoms include anger, irritation, and defiant behavior. b. Children generally outgrow the behaviors without formal treatment. c. Severity is considered mild when symptoms are present in only one setting. d. Disorder is diagnosed equally in both males and females. e. Argumentative and defiant are terms often used to describe the patient. 6. Tommy, a 12-year-old boy admitted to the pediatric psychiatric unit, has recently been diagnosed with conduct disorder. In the activity room, the games he wanted to play were already in use. He responded by threatening to throw furniture and to hurt his peers who had the game he wanted. Nancy, a registered nurse, recognizes that Tommy’s therapy must include: a. Consistency in implementing the consequences of breaking rules b. Empathetic reasoning when Tommy acts out in the activity room c. Teaching Tommy the benefits of socializing d. Solitary time so that Tommy can think about his action 7. Some cultures have lower rates of diagnosed conduct disorders than observed in Western societies. The lower rate of incidence may be contributed to: a. Strict parenting with corporal punishment b. Cultural expression of anger as normal behavior c. Parents’ limited tolerance for externalizing behavior d. Widespread acceptance of conduct disorders 8. Larry, a middle-aged male in a treatment facility, is loudly displaying anger in the day room with a visiting family member. It is obvious to the nurse this pattern has played out before. Violence is often escalated when family members or authority figures: a. Use a soft tone of voice to gain control of the situation b. Move away from the agitated person in fear c. Use simple words to communicate d. Engage in a power struggle 9. The impulse control spectrum can begin in childhood and continue on into adulthood, often morphing into criminal behaviors. Working with patients diagnosed with these disorders, the best examples of expressed emotion by the nursing staff are: a. Low to prevent emotional reactions b. Matched to the patient’s level of emotion c. Flat without evidence of any emotional output d. High expression to improve therapeutic patient emotions 10. Claude is a new nurse on the psychiatric unit. He asks a senior nurse on staff for the “best advice” when working with oppositional defiant disorder. Which statement reflects advice on solid therapeutic communication? a. “When correcting behavior, use a loud firm tone.” b. “Use language beyond the patient’s education level.” c. “When setting limits, be specific and outline consequences.” d. “An aggressive body language will make the patients respect your position.” Answers 1. b; 2. a, b, c; 3. b; 4. a, b, d; 5. a, b, c, e; 6. a; 7. b; 8. d; 9. a; 10. c Chapter 22 1. A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder has been prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse). Which physical effects support the suspicion that the patient has relapsed? Select all that apply. a. Intense nausea b. Diaphoresis c. Acute paranoia d. Confusion e. Dyspnea 2. Which assessment data confirm the suspicion that a patient is experiencing opioid withdrawal? Select all that apply. a. Pupils are dilated b. Pulse rate is 62 beats/min c. Slow movements d. Extreme anxiety e. Sleepy 3. The nursing diagnosis ineffective denial is especially useful when working with substance use disorders and gambling. Which statements describe this diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Reports inability to cope b. Does not perceive danger of substance use or gambling c. Minimizes symptoms d. Refuses healthcare attention e. Unable to admit impact of disease on life pattern c. Assists with monitoring food intake d. Helps prevent constipation 6. Ophelia, a 69-year-old retired nurse, attends a reunion of her former coworkers. Ophelia is concerned because she usually knows everyone, and she cannot recognize faces today. A registered nurse colleague recognizes Ophelia’s distress and “introduces” Ophelia to those attending. The nurse practitioner recognizes that Ophelia seems to have a deficit in: a. Lower-level cognitive domain b. Delirium threshold c. Executive function d. Social cognition 7. Nancy is a nurse. After talking with her mother, she became concerned enough to drive over and check on her. Her mother’s appearance is disheveled, words are nonsensical, smells strongly of urine, and there is a stain on her dressing gown. Nancy recognizes that her mother’s condition is likely temporary due to:a. Early onset dementia b. A mild cognitive disorder c. A urinary tract infection d. Skipping breakfast 8. Darnell is an 84-year-old widower who has lived alone since his wife died 6 years ago. A neighbor called Darnell’s son to tell him that Darnell was trying to start his car from the passenger’s side. He became angry and aggressive when the car would not start. After a medical assessment, Darnell was diagnosed with a major neurocognitive disorder. The nurse realized additional family teaching is necessary when Darnell’s son states: a. “My father’s diagnosis is interfering with his daily functioning.” b. “This neurocognitive disorder will probably progress.” c. “Advancing age is a risk factor in my father’s diagnosis.” d. “With person-centered care, my father will be able to remain in his home.” 9. In the 2 months after his wife’s death, Aaron, aged 90 and in good health, has begun to pay less attention to his hygiene and seems less alert to his surroundings. He complains of difficulty concentrating and sleeping and reports that he lacks energy. His family sometimes has to remind and encourage him to shower, take his medications, and eat, all of which he then does. Which response is most appropriate? a. Reorient Mr. Smith by pointing out the day and date each time you have occasion to interact with him. b. Meet with family and support them to accept, anticipate, and prepare for the progression of his stage 2 dementia. c. Avoid touch and proximity; these are likely to be uncomfortable for Mr. Smith and may provoke aggression when he is disoriented. d. Arrange for an appointment with a therapist for evaluation and treatment of suspected depression. 10. Nurses caring for patients who have neurocognitive disorders are exposed to stress on many levels. Specialized skills training and continuing education are helpful to diffuse nursing stress, as well as: Select all that apply. a. Expressing emotions by journaling b. Describing stressful events on Facebook c. Engage in exercise and relaxation activities d. Having realistic patient expectations e. Happy hour after work to blow off steam Answers 1. c; 2. a; 3. b; 4. a, c, d, e; 5. a; 6. d; 7. c; 8. d; 9. d; 10. a, c, d Chapter 24 1. Which statement made by the psychiatric nurse demonstrates an accurate understanding of the factors that affect an individual’s personality? a. “Therapy will help her identify that her problems are personality related.” b. “I’ll need to learn more about this patient’s cultural beliefs.” c. “It’s encouraging to know that personality disorders respond well to treatment.” d. “A person’s personality is fluid and adjusts to current social situations.” 2. When assessing a patient diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder, which statement by the patient warrants immediate attention? a. “My mother died ten years ago.” b. “I haven’t needed medication in weeks.” c. “My dad never loved me.” d. “I’d really like to hurt her for hurting me.” 3. What is the current accepted professional view of the effect of culture on the development of a personality disorder? a. There aren’t sufficient studies to confirm the role that ethnicity and race have on the prevalence of personality disorders. b. The North American and Australian cultures produce higher incidences of personality disorders among their populations. c. Neither culture nor ethnic background is generally considered in the development of personality disorders. d. Personality disorders have been found to be primarily the products of genetic factors, not cultural factors. 4. Which personality disorders are generally associated with behaviors described as “odd or eccentric”? Select all that apply. a. Paranoid b. Schizoid c. Histrionic d. Obsessive-compulsive e. Avoidant 5. Which behaviors are examples of a primitive defense mechanism often relied upon by those diagnosed with a personality disorder? Select all that apply. a. Regularly attempts to split the staff b. Attempts to undo feelings of anger by offering to do favors c. Regresses to rocking and humming to sooth themselves when fearful d. Lashes out verbally when confronted with criticism e. Destroys another person’s belongings when angry 6. Personality disorders often co-occur with mood and eating disorders. A young woman is undergoing treatment at an eating disorders clinic and her nurse suspects the patient may also have a Cluster B personality disorder due to the young woman’s: a. Desire to avoid eating b. Dramatic response to frustration c. Excessive exercise routine d. Morose personality traits 7. Larry is from a small town and began displaying aggressive and manipulative traits while still a teenager. Now at 40 years old, Larry is serving a life sentence for the murders of his wife and her brother. John, the prison psychiatric nurse practitioner, recognizes that Larry’s treatment will most likely: a. Transform Larry to a model prisoner b. Not improve Larry’s coping skills c. Reaffirm Larry’s high-risk behaviors d. Manifest as small incremental changes 8. Connor is a 28-year-old student, referred by his university for a psychiatric evaluation. He reports that he has no friends at the university and people call him a loner. Recently, Connor has been giving lectures to pigeons at the university fountains. Connor is diagnosed as schizotypal, which differs from schizophrenia in that persons diagnosed as schizotypal: a. Can be made aware of their delusions b. Are far more delusional than schizophrenics c. Have a greater need for socialization d. Do not usually respond to antipsychotic medications 9. Garret’s wife of 8 years is divorcing him because the marriage never developed a warm or loving atmosphere. Garrett states in therapy, “I have always been a loner,” and was never concerned about what others think. The nurse practitioner suggests that Garrett try a trial of bupropion (Wellbutrin) to: a. Improve his flat emotions b. Assist in getting a good night’s sleep c. Increase the pleasure of living d. Prepare Garrett for group therapy 10. Josie, a 27-year-old patient, complains that most of the staff do not like her. She says she can tell that you are a caring person. Josie is unsure of what she wants to do with her life and her “mixed- up feelings” about relationships. When you tell her that you will be on vacation next week, she becomes very angry. Two hours later, she is found using a a. Focus primarily on developing solutions to the problems leading the patient to feel suicidal. b. Assess the patient thoroughly and reassess the patient at regular intervals as levels of risk fluctuate. c. Avoid talking about the suicidal ideation as this may increase the patient’s risk for suicidal behavior. d. Meet regularly with the patient to provide opportunities for the patient to express and explore feelings. e. Administer antidepressant medications cautiously and conservatively because of their potential to increase the suicide risk in Kara’s age group. f. Help the patient to identify positive self-attributes and to question negative self- perceptions that are unrealistic. Answers 1. b; 2. a, b, c, d; 3. a, b, c, d; 4. a, b, e; 5. d; 6. c; 7. b; 8. b; 9. c; 10. b, d, e, f Chapter 26 Questions 1. Which patient statement indicates the helpfulness of the nurse-patient relationship? a. “I appreciate the time you spent with me. I have a better understanding of what I can do to manage my problem.” b. “I really need to talk with you. You always give me good advice about how to address my anger issues.” c. “If it wasn’t for you and the hours we’ve spent talking, I don’t think I would be on my way to getting my anxiety under control.” d. “You always showed me sympathy when I was at my lowest point after the sexual assault. Knowing you had been there too was such a help.” 2. A female nurse had been sexually assaulted as a teenager. She finds it difficult to work with patients who have undergone the same trauma. What is the most helpful response? a. Discussing these feelings with the nurse supervisor. b. Requesting that these patients not be a part of her patient assignment. c. Discussing these feelings with a mental health professional. d. Accepting her role in providing unbiased, respectful, and professional care to all patients. 3. A patient whose history includes experiences with abusive partners is being treated for major depressive disorder. The patient’s care plan includes rape-trauma syndrome among its nursing diagnoses. What goal is directly associated with this diagnosis? a. Remains free from self-harm b. Wears appropriate clothing c. Reports feeling stronger and having a sense of hopefulness d. Demonstrates appropriate affect for both positive and negative emotions 4. The nurse is engaged in crisis intervention with a patient reporting, “I have no reason to keep on living.” What is the nurse’s initial intervention? a. Advise the patient about the services available to help them. b. Ask the patient, “Have you ever been this depressed before?” c. Ask the patient, “Do you have any plan to hurt yourself or anyone else?” d. Assure the patient that he or she is in a safe place and will be well cared for. 5. Which statement concerning a crisis experience is true and should be used as a guideline for crisis management care? Select all that apply. a. A crisis is self-limiting and usually resolves within 4 to 6 weeks. b. The earlier interventions are implemented, the better the expected prognosis. c. The nurse should maintain a nondirective role. d. The patient in crisis is assumed to be mentally unhealthy and in an extreme state of disequilibrium. e. The goal of crisis management is to return the patient to at least the precrisis level of functioning. 6. Which statement about crisis theory will provide a basis for nursing intervention? a. A crisis is an acute time-limited phenomenon experienced as an overwhelming emotional reaction to a problem perceived as unsolvable. b. A person in crisis has always had adjustment problems and has coped inadequately in the usual life situations. c. Crisis is precipitated by an event that enhances a person’s self-concept and self- esteem. d. Nursing intervention in crisis situations rarely has the effect of stopping the crisis. 7. Lilly, a single mother of four, comes to the crisis center 24 hours after a fire in which all the houses within a one-block area were wiped out. All of Lilly’s household goods and clothing were lost. Lilly has no other family in the area. Her efforts to mobilize assistance have been disorganized, and she is still without shelter. She is distraught and confused. You assess the situation as: a. A maturational crisis. b. An adventitious crisis c. A crisis of confidence d. An existential crisis. 8. When responding to the patient in question 7, the intervention that takes priority is to: a. Reduce anxiety. b. Arrange shelter. c. Contact out-of-area family. d. Hospitalize and place the patient on suicide precautions. 9. Which belief would be least helpful for a nurse working in crisis intervention? a. A person in crisis is incapable of responding to instruction. b. The crisis counseling relationship is one between partners. c. Crisis counseling helps the patient refocus to gain new perspectives on the situation. d. Anxiety-reduction techniques are used so the patient’s inner resources can be accessed. 10. The highest-priority goal of crisis intervention is: a. Anxiety reduction. b. Identification of situational supports. c. Teaching specific coping skills that are lacking. d. Patient safety. Answers 1. a; 2. c; 3. c; 4. c; 5. a, b, e; 6. a; 7. b; 8. a; 9. a; 10. d Chapter 27 Questions 1. Which individuals are most at risk for displaying aggressive behavior? Select all that apply. a. An adolescent embarrassed in front of friends. b. A young male who feels rejected by the social group. c. A young adult depressed after the death of a friend. d. A middle-aged adult who feels that concerns are going unheard. e. A patient who was discovered telling a lie. 2. A newly admitted male patient has a long history of aggressive behavior toward staff. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates the need for more information about the use of restraint? a. “If his behavior warrants restraints, someone will stay with him the entire time he’s restrained.” b. “I’ll call the primary provider and get an as needed (prn) seclusion/restraint order.” c. “If he is restrained, be sure he is offered food and fluids regularly.” d. “Remember that physical restraints are our last resort.” 3. Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement when helping a patient expresses anger in an inappropriate manner? Select all that apply. a. Approach the patient in a calm, reassuring manner. b. Provide suggestions regarding acceptable ways of communicating anger. c. Warn the patient that being angry is not a healthy emotional state. d. Set limits on the angry behavior that will be tolerated. e. Allow any expression of anger as long as no one is hurt. 4. Which guidelines should direct nursing care when deescalating an angry patient? Select all that apply. a. Intervene as quickly as possible b. Identify the trigger for the anger d. A domestic violence shelter e. The hospital emergency department 6. Secondary effects of abuse often manifest as arrested development in children due to the fact that: a. Coping is easier than emotional growth b. Energy for development is diverted to coping c. Children cannot differentiate love from abuse d. Abuse fosters a sense of belonging, even if dysfunctional 7. The use of a patient-centered interview technique works well for gathering information about abusive situations. It is a good use of clinical time to sit near the patient and: a. Establish trust and rapport b. Ask lots of questions c. Interrupt the patients’ story to allow for decompression d. Utilize closed-ended questions 8. The abused person is often in a dependent position, relying on the abuser for basic needs. At particular risk are children and the elderly due to: a. The love they have for parents or children. b. Their limited options. c. The need to feel safe at home. d. Other relatives do not want them. 9. An appropriate expected outcome in individual therapy regarding the perpetrator of abuse would be: a. A decrease in family interaction so that there are fewer opportunities for abuse to occur. b. The perpetrator will recognize destructive patterns of behavior and learn alternate responses. c. The perpetrator will no longer live with the family but have supervised contact while undergoing intensive inpatient therapy. d. A triad of treatment modalities, including medication, counseling, and role- playing opportunities. 10. Perpetrators of domestic violence tend to: Select all that apply. a. Have relatively poor social skills and to have grown up with poor role models. b. Believe they, if male, should be dominant and in charge in relationships. c. Force their mates to work and expect them to handle the financial decisions. d. Be controlling and willing to use force to maintain their power in relationships. e. Prevent their mates from having relationships and activities outside the family. Answers 1. b; 2. a, b, c, e; 3. b; 4. d; 5. a, b, c, d; 6. b; 7. a; 8. b; 9. b; 10. a, b, d, e Chapter 29 Questions 1. Which statement made by a sexually assaulted patient strongly suggests the drug gamma hydroxybutyrate acid (GHB) was involved in the attack? a. “I remember everything that happened, but felt too tired to fight back.” b. “The drink I was given had a salty taste to it.” c. “They tell me I was unconscious for 24 hours.” d. “I heard that I was fighting the nursing staff and saying that they were trying to kill me.” 2. Considering the guilt that women feel after being sexually assaulted, which nursing assessment question has priority? a. “Do you want the police to be called?” b. “Did you recognize the person who assaulted you?” c. “Do you have someone you trust that can stay with you? ” d. “Do you have any thoughts about harming yourself?” 3. Which statement is an accurate depiction of sexual assault? a. Rape is a sexual act. b. Most rapes occur in the home. c. Rape is usually an impulsive act. d. Women are usually raped by strangers. 4. Which signs and symptoms are associated with acute stress disorder and often observed inpatients who have been sexually assaulted? Select all that apply. a. Outbursts of anger b. Depression c. Auditory hallucinations d. Flashbacks e. Amnesia for the event 5. Which racial identification places a woman at the greatest risk of being sexually assaulted in her lifetime? a. Multiracial b. American Indian c. Black non-Hispanic d. Caucasian 6. The stress of being raped often results in suffering similar to people who have witnessed a murder or had a physiological reaction to trauma, resulting in: a. Posttraumatic stress disorder b. Anxiety c. Depression d. All of the above 7. A young woman named Carly was raped behind the restaurant where she works after closing shift. Six months have passed and Carly has not been able to return to work, refuses to go out to eat, and feels that she has less value as a woman now that she has been raped. Carly’s clinical presentation suggests: a. Re-experiencing b. Hyperarousal c. Avoidance d. Physical effects 8. Ron is a victim of assault and has revealed to his family and friends the fact that he was raped. The family reacts with horror and disgust, and the nurse caring for Ron recognizes: a. Ron’s family is being judgmental. b. Ron’s family should leave the hospital. c. Ron’s family will also need support. d. Dysfunctional family dynamics. 9. Perpetrators of sexual assault are often incarcerated but frequently do not undergo therapy. Samuel, convicted of rape and sentenced to 15 years in prison, has requested to see a therapist. The psychiatric nurse practitioner is surprised to learn of the request as many perpetrators: a. Boast of their assault history b. Feel regret and remorse c. Do not acknowledge the need for change d. Are unable to recognize rape as a crime 10. You are working at a telephone hotline center when Abby, a rape victim, calls. Abby states she is afraid to go to the hospital. What is your best response? a. “I’m here to listen, and we can talk about your feelings.” b. “You don’t need to go to the hospital if you don’t want to.” c. “If you don’t go to the hospital, we can’t collect evidence to help convict your rapist ” d. “Why are you afraid to seek medical attention?” Answers 1. b; 2. d; 3. b; 4. a, b, d, e; 5. a; 6. d; 7. c; 8. c; 9. c; 10. a Concept 04: Culture 1. The nurse is caring for an older Chinese adult male who is grimacing and appears restless after abdominal surgery. What is the nurse’s best action? a. Ask the patient if he is anxious about his hospital stay. b. Ask a translator to conduct a FACES pain scale assessment. c. Ask the patient about pain and assess vital signs. d. Ask the patient about any history of depression or anxiety. 2. A new registered nurse asks the registered nurse (RN) preceptor what could be done to become more professional. What is the preceptor’s best response? a. “Attend nursing educational meetings.” b. “Listen to other nurses.” c. “Read the agency newsletter.” d. “Pass the licensing exam.” ANS: A 3. The qualities of leadership, clinical expertise and judgment, mentorship, and lifelong learning would best describe which type of nurse? a. Administrator b. Certified nurse specialist c. Practitioner d. Professional ANS: D 4. The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) outlines expectations of the nursing profession in which type of documentation? a. Gallup poll b. Goldman report c. Social Policy Statement d. Social identity theory ANS: C 5. What nursing recommendations are published in the Institute of Medicine (IOM’s) report The future of nursing: Leading change, advancing health? a. Teach, advocate, assess, and nurture. b. Should have a graduate degree to practice. c. Diagnose and recommend treatments. d. Must have continuing education. ANS: A 6. Nursing demonstrates dedication to improving public health through which avenue? a. Changing health care standards b. Legal regulations c. Scope of practice d. Technology ANS: C 1. Components of a professional identity in nursing include which attributes? (Select all that apply.) a. Accountability b. Advocacy c. Autonomy d. Competence e. Culture ANS: A, B, C, D Concept 49: Evidence 1. One of the first nurse researchers to document evidence-based practice for nursing was Florence Nightingale. What did Nightingale incorporate into her practice that made her practice different from her colleagues? a. Nightingale gathered scientific data. b. Nightingale calculated statistics to report her findings. c. Nightingale communicated her findings to powerful others. d. Nightingale based her nursing practice on her findings. ANS: D 2. The nurse administrator is doing a study that entails gathering data about new employees over a 10-year period. Which research method would be the best one to use for this type of study? a. Quantitative longitude cohort b. Qualitative longitudinal c. Qualitative interview d. Qualitative case study ANS: A 3. The nurse in the outpatient setting would like to conduct a research study that compares patients who take tramadol (Ultracet) to patients who take oxycodone hydrochloride and acetaminophen (Percocet) for managing back pain. Which quantitative research method should yield the best results? a. Longitude study b. Controlled study c. Systematic reviews/meta-analysis d. Survey study ANS: B 4. The nurse in the psychiatric unit is involved in a research study for a depression medication. In the study, patients are randomly assigned to one depression medication and the other group is receiving no medication to treat the depression. What method of research are the patients involved with? a. Descriptive b. Correlational c. Quasi-experimental d. Experimental ANS: D 1. How does the Iowa model transcend mere nursing care? (Select all that apply.) a. It includes formalized internal feedback loops. b. Its triggers can have their origins practically anywhere. c. It generates change in practice solely through research. d. It implies a layer of policy development. e. It addresses multiple disciplines’ impacts on quality. ANS: A, B, D, E 2. Which statements are true about the Iowa model of EBP? (Select all that apply.) a. It addresses utilization of research findings at an individual level. b. It prioritizes pressing items of interest related to quality of care. c. Individual nurses enact an Iowa decision tree when they examine risk management data. d. It identifies triggers capable of posing hazard or benefit. e. It reiterates that innovators embrace change far earlier than laggards. ANS: B, D b. Send an email reminder that all staff need to review the policy and procedure book. c. Wait for a staff member to come forward who is willing to be identified. d. Form a small group to explore why staff are not comfortable reporting errors. ANS: D 8. A hospital is experiencing a drop in patient admissions, resulting in the implementation of a hiring freeze. What is a potential critical consequence of this internal organizational decision? a. A decrease in the availability of future nurses to hire b. A savings of salaries and benefits c. Increased scholarships to nursing students from the local high school d. Increased cross-training of current staff ANS: A 1. A hospital organization is applying for Magnet© status to show excellence in nursing practice. What components would indicate that the hospital is meeting Magnet© principles? (Select all that apply.) a. The education budget for nursing has been cut to provide for new laboratory equipment. b. On average, 40% of new nurses are leaving within 1 year of hire. c. Nurses are active participants on all major hospital committees. d. Quality improvement projects are planned and evaluated by nurses. e. Patient care outcome data are reported in the annual executive board meeting. ANS: C, D Concept 01: Development 1. The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is used to assess for needs related to a. anticipatory guidance. b. low-risk adolescents. c. physical development. d. sexual development. ANS: A 2. The nurse preparing a teaching plan for a preschooler knows that, according to Piaget, the expected stage of development for a preschooler is a. concrete operational. b. formal operational. c. preoperational. d. sensorimotor. ANS: C 3. The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and development would best describe growth as a. processes by which early cells specialize. b. psychosocial and cognitive changes. c. qualitative changes associated with aging. d. quantitative changes in size or weight. ANS: D 4. The most appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is that it a. can diagnose developmental disabilities. b. identifies a need for physical therapy. c. is a developmental screening tool. d. provides a framework for health teaching. ANS: C 5. To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as a. cerebral palsy. b. autism. c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). d. failure to thrive. ANS: D 6. To plan early intervention and care for a child with a developmental delay, the nurse would consider knowledge of the concepts most significantly impacted by development, including a. culture. b. environment. c. functional status. d. nutrition. ANS: C 7. A mother complains to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her 4-year-old child always talks to her toys and makes up stories. The mother wants her child to have a psychological evaluation. The nurse’s best initial response is to a. refer the child to a psychologist immediately. b. explain that playing make believe is normal at this age. c. complete a developmental screening using a validated tool. d. separate the child from the mother to get more information. ANS: B 8. A 17-year-old girl is hospitalized for appendicitis, and her mother asks the nurse why she is so needy and acting like a child. The best response of the nurse is that in the hospital, adolescents a. have separation anxiety. b. rebel against rules. c. regress because of stress. d. want to know everything. ANS: C Concept 45: Communication 1. A patient states, “I had a bad nightmare. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well.” Which response by the nurse would be an example of interpersonal therapeutic communication? c. This is the nurse on the surgical unit. I am calling about our patient in room 3. After assessing him, I am very concerned about his shortness of breath. d. Today, our patient has crackles audible throughout the posterior chest and his O2 saturation is 89%. His condition is very unstable. ANS: C, A, D, B Concept 06: Adherence 1. A patient has been newly diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse assesses the need to develop a collaborative plan of care that includes a goal of adhering to the prescribed regimen. When the nurse is planning teaching for the patient, which is the most important initial learning goal? a. The patient will select the type of learning materials they prefer. b. The patient will verbalize an understanding of the importance of following the regimen. c. The patient will demonstrate coping skills needed to manage hypertension. d. The patient will verbalize the side effects of treatment. ANS: A 2. After the nurse implements a teaching plan for a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension, the patient can explain the information but fails to take the medications as prescribed. What is the nurse’s next action? a. Reeducate the patient, because learning did not occur because the patient’s behavior did not change. b. Assess the patient’s perception and attitude towards the risks associated with not taking their anti- hypertensives. c. Take full responsibility for helping the patient make dietary changes. d. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication, because the patient does not want to take this medication. ANS: B 3. A diabetic patient presents to the diabetes clinic with A1c levels of 7.5%. The nurse has met this patient for the first time. When applying principles of Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB), which teaching strategy by the nurse is most likely to be effective? a. Provide information on the importance of blood glucose control in maintenance of long-term health and evaluate how the patient has been following the prescribed regime. b. Establish a rapport with the patient by complimenting them on what they did correctly, and ask what strategies they have tried thus far. c. Refer the patient to a certified diabetic educator, because the educator is an expert on management of diabetes complications. d. Have the patient explain what medications they are on and what diet they should be following. ANS: B 4. The nurse is assessing a newly diagnosed diabetic, and the patient’s readiness to learn about glucose monitoring. Before planning teaching activities, which approach would be most effective? a. Assist the patient with long-term goals and plan teaching according to these goals. b. Provide the patient with all the latest research from the Internet on glucose monitoring. c. Refer the patient to the diabetic specialist who can assist the patient with the glucometer. d. Assist the patient in developing realistic short- term goals. ANS: D 5. The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has low motivation and nonadherence with blood glucose monitoring. Which statement by the patient would indicate to the nurse that the patient is not motivated and will most likely not comply? a. “I do not like to test my sugar, but I do it because my wife nags me.” b. “I forget to check my sugar once in a while.” c. “I don’t see or feel any different when I do keep my blood sugars under control.” d. "I have no idea what the signs of low blood sugar are." ANS: C 6. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a patient who has peripheral vascular disease and has poor circulation to the feet. Which learning goal should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. The nurse will demonstrate the proper technique for trimming toenails. b. The patient will understand the rationale for proper foot care after instruction. c. The nurse will instruct the patient on appropriate foot care before discharge. d. The patient will post reminder stickers on the calendar to check feet every day and record scheduled appointments with podiatrist. ANS: D 7. A patient with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The patient’s teaching plan includes this goal: “The patient will select a 2-gram sodium diet from the hospital menu for the next 3 days.” Which intervention would be most effective at increasing the patient’s compliance with the diet? a. Check the sodium content of the patient’s menu choices over the next 3 days. b. Ask the patient to identify which foods on the hospital menus are high in sodium. c. Have the patient list favorite foods that are high in sodium and foods that could be substituted for these favorites. d. Compare the patient’s sodium intake over the next 3 days with the sodium intake before the teaching was implemented. ANS: C 8. The nurse is evaluating the need to refer a patient with osteoarthritis for a home care visit to be sure the patient can function in accomplishing daily activities independently. What is the nurse’s first priority? a. Determine if the patient has had home visits before and if the experience was positive. b. Check the patient’s ability to bathe without any assistance the next day. c. Have the patient demonstrate the learned skills at the end of the teaching session. d. Arrange a physical therapy visit before the patient is discharged from the hospital. ANS: A 9. When assessing a 22-year-old male patient, the nurse learns that he smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. The patient tells the nurse, “I enjoy smoking and have no plans to quit.” Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Health Seeking Behaviors related to cigarette use b. Ineffective Health Maintenance related to tobacco use c. Readiness for Enhanced Self-Health Management related to smoking d. Deficient Knowledge related to long-term effects of cigarette smoking ANS: B 10. A 73-year-old male patient is seen in the home setting for a routine physical. The nurse notes which behavior as the most reassuring sign that the patient has been following the treatment plan for the diagnoses of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia? a. The patient has a list of glucose readings for the past 10 days. b. The patient has a list of medications along with newly refilled meds. c. The patient has a list of all foods and beverages for a 3-day period. d. The patient verbalizes the side effects of all his medications. ANS: B Concept 40: Clinical Judgment 1. A student nurse is studying clinical judgment theories and is working with Tanner’s Model of Clinical Judgment. How can the student nurse best generalize this model? a. A reflective process where the nurse notices, interprets, responds, and reflects in action b. One conceptual mechanism for critiquing ideas and establishing goal-oriented care c. Researching best practice literature to create care pathways for certain populations d. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, and evaluating the nursing care plans ANS: A 2. The nurse is implementing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The plan includes educating the patient about diet choices. The patient states that they enjoy exercising and understand the need to diet; however, they can’t see living without chocolate on a daily basis. Using the principles of responding in the Model of Clinical Judgment, how would the nurse proceed with the teaching? a. The nurse explains to the patient that chocolate has a high glycemic index. The nurse 8. A nurse has committed a serious medication error and has reported the error to the hospital’s adverse medication error hotline as well as to the unit manager. The manager is a firm believer in developing critical thinking skills. From this standpoint, what action by the manager would best nurture this ability in the nurse who made the error? a. Have the nurse present an in-service related to the cause of the error. b. Instruct the nurse to write a paper on how to avoid this type of error. c. Let the nurse work with more experienced nurses when giving medications. d. Send the nurse to refresher courses on medication administration. ANS: A 1. A nurse is caring for a patient in a long-term care facility who has not been sleeping well. She notes that the patient is new to the facility, has been refusing therapy, and is also not eating well. The nurse interprets this to mean that the patient has been having trouble adjusting. The nurse decides to meet with the patient’s care team. The team decides to assess the patient’s willingness to participate in group recreational activities, The patient agrees to participate. After 1 week, the nurse reevaluates the plan of care and notes that the patient has been sleeping much better. Which of the following terms best describe processes used in the nurse’s plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Clinical judgment b. Evidence-based practice c. The nursing process d. Collaborative care planning e. Positive reward process ANS: A, C, D Concept 47: Safety 1. A sentinel event refers to which situation? a. An event that could have harmed a patient, but serious harm didn't occur because of chance. b. An event that harms a patient as a result of underlying disease or condition. c. An event that harms a patient by omission or commission, not an underlying disease or condition. An event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response.d. ANS: D 2. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to a bee sting who has an order for diphenhydramine (BenaDRYL). The only medication in the patient's medication bin is labeled BenaZEPRIL. The nurse contacts the pharmacy for the correct medication to avoid what type of error? a. Communication b. Diagnostic c. Preventive d. Treatment ANS: D 3. The strategy to avoid medication errors endorsed by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) to differentiate products with look-alike names is referred to as which term? a. Automatic alerts b. Bar coding c. Computer order entry d. Tallman lettering ANS: D 4. Prior to drug administration the nurse reviews the seven rights, which include right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right education, right documentation, and what other right? a. Room b. Route c. Physician d. Manufacturer ANS: B 5. Which is an essential element of a standard order set to verify a medication order? a. Volume only b. Number of tablets c. Metric dose/strength d. Hour of administration ANS: C 6. To promote safety, the nurse manager sensitive to point of care (sharp end) and systems level (blunt end) exemplars works closely with staff to address which point of care exemplar? a. Care coordination b. Documentation c. Electronic records d. Fall prevention ANS: D 7. Aspects of safety culture that contribute to a culture of safety in a health care organization include which component? a. Communication b. Fear of punishment c. Malpractice implications d. Team nursing ANS: A 8. A staff nurse reports a medication error due to failure to administer a medication at the scheduled time. What is the charge nurse’s best response? a. “We’ll conduct a root cause analysis.” b. “That means you’ll have to do continuing education.” ANS: A 1. The nurse is working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder related to childhood sexual abuse. The patient is crying and states, “I should be over this by now; this happened years ago.” Which response(s) by the nurse will facilitate communication? (Select all that apply.) a. “Why do you think you are so upset?” b. “I can see that this situation really bothers you.” c. “The abuse you endured is very painful for you.” d. “Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you’re experiencing.” e. “Let’s talk about something else, since this subject is upsetting you.” ANS: B, C, D 1. A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for congestive heart failure. Using the situation–background–assessment–recommendation (SBAR) format, put the following statements in the order in which the nurse should report changes to the health care team. a. Our patient was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure and has been receiving furosemide (Lasix) for diuresis, but his urine output has been low. b. I think that our patient needs to be evaluated immediately and may need intubation and mechanical ventilation. c. This is the nurse on the surgical unit. I am calling about our patient in room 3. After assessing him, I am very concerned about his shortness of breath. d. Today, our patient has crackles audible throughout the posterior chest and his O2 saturation is 89%. His condition is very unstable. ANS: C, A, D, B Concept 38: Interpersonal Violence 1. A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department who has been a victim of intimate partner violence. What is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. Medication to calm the perpetrator of the violence b. A list of community resources c. A referral for self-defense training d. A referral to the victim’s religious advisor ANS: B 2. The nurse working at a women’s health clinic is seeing a teenage female patient who has come in for a refill on her birth control medication and with a complaint of abdominal pain. When the nurse enters the room, the patient is sitting in the chair with her head down, rocking back and forth, does not make eye contact, and answers questions with no expression on her face. What assessment question would be important for the nurse to ask the patient? a. “What brings you to the clinic today?” b. “What can we do to help you today?” c. “Do you feel safe in your current relationship?” d. “Have you changed your diet lately?” ANS: C 3. The nurse is seeing a patient who has been in the clinic eight times in the past 6 months for injuries from an abusive partner. The patient states, “I don’t see any way to get away from my partner, and I can’t keep going on like this.” What assessment question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. “Do you have any family in the area that can help?” b. “Have you thought about hurting yourself or someone else?” c. “Have you thought about moving to a different city?” d. “Have you discussed this with anyone else?” ANS: B 4. The nurse is reviewing case files for children at risk for injury resulting in brain injury. Which child is at most risk for experiencing this type of violence? a. A Caucasian, 6-month-old infant living with a single mother b. An African-American, 24-month-old child living with her grandmother c. A Mexican, 3-year-old child living in an inner city apartment d. A Japanese, 8-year-old child living in a home with three generations of family ANS: A 5. Critical Thinking: A crisis intervention nurse is training emergency department staff on treatment needs of persons in abusive relationships. What is a common difficulty staff encounter when caring for this population? a. There is not a good legal pathway to help persons in abusive relationships. b. The abused person may return to the abusive home setting. c. Hospital policies do not identify the legal care needed for abused persons. d. Because length of care is short in the emergency department, there is little staff can do for patients who have been abused. ANS: B 6. The nurse is counseling women at a crisis shelter about risk factors for increased intimate partner violence. What event is most likely to trigger an increase in abusive behaviors? a. Moving to a new community b. Starting a new job c. Becoming pregnant d. The death of a grandfather ANS: C 1. The nurse is admitting a child with a history of abuse. The nurse understands that the child may exhibit what behaviors that are consequences of being in an abusive environment? (Select all that apply.) a. Reliving abuse incidents b. Sleep disturbance c. Overeating d. Acting out behaviors ANS: B 1. A drug-addicted nurse switches a patient's morphine injection with normal saline so that the nurse can use the morphine. The nurse is violating which principles of ethics? (Select all that apply.) a. Autonomy b. Utilitarianism c. Beneficence d. Dilemmas e. Veracity ANS: A, B, C, E Concept 57: Health Policy 1. A definition of health policy includes which of the following elements? a. Funding for public education b. Appropriation of funds for roadwork c. Selection of congressional members of committees d. Public policy made to support health-related goals ANS: D 2. Which branch of government is responsible for the execution of laws passed by legislatures? a. Legislative b. Judicial c. Executive d. Local ANS: C 3. Which level of government is responsible for the regulation of a nurse’s license? Release of patient information for purposes of insurance reimbursement.a. a. Federal government b. State government c. Local government d. International coalition ANS: B 4. Which of the following components are included in health policy at the state level? a. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 b. Scope of nursing practice c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 d. Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 ANS: B 5. Which of the following is the intent of HIPAA? b. Prevent health care providers from billing for procedures done for the insured person. c. Protect patients from reviewing their own medical records. d. Limit the ability of health care providers to sell patient information to outside sources. ANS: D 1. Nurses can be health advocates in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.) a. Supporting their professional nursing organization when discussing upcoming legislation b. Discussing the upcoming classes with a neighbor c. Rallying for coverage for childhood immunizations d. Arranging for a patient to meet with case management for home health care e. Discussing a patient they are concerned about with a fellow student in the public cafeteria ANS: A, C, D Concept 58: Health Care Law 1. The new nurse correctly defines a law when stating which information? a. “Law is a fundamental concept for health care professionals.” b. “Law’s rule is developed by the employee's organization.” c. “Law’s rule is enacted by a government agency that defines what must be done in a given circumstance.” d. “Law is a mandate from the Joint Commission or other accrediting agency.” ANS: C 2. Which of the following is true about health care legislation? a. The US Constitution addresses health care law specifically to give the federal government the ability to license professionals and institutions. b. The power of the US Constitution does not have a direct relationship to health care and reserves most of the power to the states. c. State laws are considered the highest source of health care law and trump the federal laws. d. The federal government asserts its power over health care legislation through the US Constitution. ANS: B 3. Which is an example of the regulatory power to make law? a. Joint Commission establishing a medication reconciliation standard. b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) developing recommendations for childhood immunizations. c. Institute of Medicine (IOM) defining the approximate number of medication errors ANS: A 2. A female patient is anxious after receiving the news that she needs a breast biopsy to rule out breast cancer. The nurse is assisting with a breast biopsy. Which relaxation technique will be best to use at this time? a. Massage b. Meditation c. Guided imagery d. Relaxation breathing ANS: D 3. The nurse is teaching a hospitalized patient to use mindfulness to reduce anxiety. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate? a. “How do you feel about what happened to you as a child?” b. “How do you feel about what is going on right now?” c. “Remember a time when you were calm.” d. “Tap your hands until the feeling goes away.” ANS: B 4. The nurse is assessing the social support of a patient who is recently divorced and has moved from their hometown to the city due to change in jobs. Which response related to social support would be most therapeutic? a. Encourage the patient to begin dating again, perhaps with members of her church. b. Discuss how divorce support groups could increase coping and social support. c. Note that being so particular about potential friends reduces social contact. d. Discuss using the Internet as a way to find supportive others with similar values. ANS: B 5. A patient reports that he is overwhelmed with anxiety. Which question would be most important to use in assessing the patient during your first meeting? a. “What kinds of things do you do to reduce or cope with your stress?” b. “Tell me about your family history—do any relatives have problems with stress?” c. “Tell me about exercise—how far do you typically run when you go jogging?” d. “Stress can interfere with sleep. How much did you sleep last night?” ANS: A 6. A patient is newly diagnosed with anxiety and placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). The nurse is developing the plan of care for this patient. How long will it take for this medication to become effective? a. The medication will become effective immediately. b. The medication may take up to 12 weeks to become effective. c. The medication may take up to 6 weeks to become effective. d. The medication may take up to 4 weeks to become effective. ANS: B 1. The nurse knows that which of the following medical conditions are most commonly associated with anxiety? (Select all that apply.) a. Cancer b. Pancreatitis c. Hypothyroidism d. Dysrhythmias e. Encephalitis f. Hyperthyroidism ANS: A, C, D, E, F 2. The nurse wishes to use guided imagery to help an anxious patient relax. Which comment would be appropriate to include in the guided imagery script? (Select all that apply.) a. “Imagine others treating you the way they should, the way you want to be treated…” b. “With each breath, you are feeling calmer, more relaxed, almost as if you are floating…” c. “You are alone on a beach; the sun is warm; and you hear only the sound of the surf…” d. “You have taken control; nothing can hurt you now; everything is going your way…” e. “You have grown calm; your mind is still; there is nothing to disturb your well-being…” f. “You will feel better as work calms down, as your boss becomes more understanding…” ANS: B, C, E Concept 31: Stress 1. An older patient presents to the outpatient clinic with a chief complaint of headache and insomnia. In gathering the history, the nurse notes which factors as contributing to this patient's chief complaint? a. The patient is responsible for caring for two school-age grandchildren. b. The patient’s daughter works to support the family. c. The patient is being treated for hypertension and is overweight. d. The patient has recently lost her spouse and needed to move in with her daughter. ANS: D 2. A patient who was recently diagnosed with diabetes is having trouble concentrating. This patient is usually very organized and laid back. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask the health care provider for a psychiatric referral. b. Administer the PRN sedative medication every 4 hours. c. Suggest the use of a home caregiver to the patient's family. d. Plan to reinforce and repeat teaching about diabetes management. ANS: D 3. A diabetic patient who is hospitalized tells the nurse, “I don’t understand why I can keep my blood sugar under control at home with diet alone, but when I get sick, my blood sugar goes up.” Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. “It is probably just coincidental that your blood sugar is high when you are ill.” b. “Stressors such as illness cause the release of hormones that increase blood sugar.” c. “Increased blood sugar occurs because the kidneys are not able to metabolize glucose as well during stressful times.” d. “Your diet is different here in the hospital than at home, and that is the most likely cause of the increased glucose level.” ANS: B 4. A patient has not been sleeping well because he is worried about losing his job and not being able to support his family. The nurse takes the patient's vital signs and notes a pulse rate of 112 beats/min, respirations are 26 breaths/min, and his blood pressure is 166/88 instead his usual 110-120/76-84 range. Which nursing intervention or recommendation should be used first? a. Go to sleep 30 to 60 minutes earlier each night to increase rest. b. Relax by spending more time playing with his pet dog. c. Slow and deepen breathing via use of a positive, repeated word. d. Consider that a new job might be better than his present one. ANS: C 5. The nurse is planning to teach a patient how to use relaxation techniques to prevent elevation of blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse is teaching the patient to control which physiological function? a. Switch from the sympathetic mode of the autonomic nervous system to the parasympathetic mode. b. Alter the internal state by modifying electronic signals related to physiologic processes. a. Identifying the cause of fear b. Accessing a community support group c. Identifying relaxation methods d. Reviewing an educational pamphlet ANS: A 2. The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with ineffective coping skills. Which intervention would be an example of a problem-focused coping strategy? a. Scheduling a regular exercise program b. Attending a seminar on treatment options c. Identifying a confidant to share feelings d. Attending a support group for families ANS: C 3. The school nurse is assessing coping skills of high school students who attend an alternative school for students at high risk to not graduate. What is the priority concern that the nurse has for this student population? a. Altered vital sign readings b. Inaccurate perceptions of stressors c. Increased risk for suicide d. Decreased access to alcoholic beverages ANS: C 4. A patient is the primary caregiver for a disabled family member at home, and has now been unexpectedly hospitalized for surgery. What action can the nurse take to enhance the coping ability of the patient? a. Ask if there is another family member who can help at home while the patient is in the hospital. b. Plan to transfer the patient to a rehabilitation unit after surgery to allow uninterrupted time to recover. c. Coordinate an ambulance transfer of the family member to an alternate family member's home. d. Ask social services to assess what the patient's needs will be after discharge to home. ANS: A 5. After a management decision to admit terminal care patients to a medical unit, the nursing manager notes that nursing staff on the unit appear tired and anxious. Staff absences from work are increasing. The nurse manager is concerned that staff may be experiencing stress and burnout at work. What action would be best for the manager to take that will help the staff? a. Ask administration to require staff to meditate daily for at least 30 minutes. b. Have a staff psychologist available on the unit once a week for required counseling. c. Have training sessions to help the staff understand their new responsibilities. d. Ask support staff from other disciplines to complete some nursing tasks to provide help. ANS: C 6. The nurse has been asked to administer a coping measurement instrument to a patient. What education would the nurse present to the patient related to this tool? a. “This tool will let us compare your stress to other patients in the hospital.” b. “This tool is short because it only measures the negative stressors you are experiencing.” c. “You will need to ask your parents about stressors you had as a child to complete this tool.” d. “This tool will help assess recent positive and negative events you are experiencing.” ANS: D 1. The nurse is assessing the coping patterns of a newly admitted patient. What will the nurse include in this assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. Current stressors as perceived by the patient b. Use of drugs or alcohol c. Recent weight changes d. Age and height e. Temperature ANS: A, B, C Concept 33: Mood and Affect 1. A patient has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant. After taking the new medication, the patient states, “This medication isn’t working. I don’t feel any different.” What is the best response by the nurse? a. “I will call your care provider. Perhaps you need a different medication.” b. “Don’t worry. You can try taking it at a different time of day to help it work better.” c. “It usually takes a few weeks for you to notice improvement from this medication.” d. “Your life is much better now. You will feel better soon.” ANS: C 2. A patient who has been diagnosed with depression is scheduled for cognitive therapy in addition to receiving prescribed antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the goal of cognitive therapy will be met when what is reported by the patient? a. “I will tell myself that I am a good person when things don’t go well at work.” b. “My medications will make my problems go away.” c. “My family will help take care of my children while I am in the hospital.” d. “This therapy will improve my response to neurotransmitter impulses.” ANS: A 3. A patient has been resistant to treatment with antidepressant therapy. The care provider prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) medication. What teaching is critical for the nurse to give the patient? a. Serum blood levels must be regularly monitored to assess for toxicity. b. To prevent side effects, the medication should be administered as an intramuscular injection. c. Eating foods such as blue cheese or red wine will cause side effects. d. This medication class may only be used safely for a few days at a time. ANS: C 4. A patient with a diagnosis of depression and suicidal ideation was started on an antidepressant 1 month ago. When the patient comes to the community health clinic for a follow-up appointment he is cheerful and talkative. What priority assessment must the nurse consider for this patient? a. The medication dose needs to be decreased. b. Treatment is successful, and medication can be stopped. c. The patient is ready to return to work. d. Specific assessment for suicide plan must be evaluated. ANS: D 5. A patient who is taking prescribed lithium carbonate is exhibiting signs of diarrhea, blurred vision, frequent urination, and an unsteady gait. Which serum lithium level would the nurse expect for this patient? a. 0 to 0.5 mEq/L b. 0.6 to 0.9 mEq/L c. 1.0 to 1.4 mEq/L d. 1.5 or higher mEq/L ANS: D 6. A patient newly diagnosed with depression states, “I have had other people in my family say that they have depression. Is this an inherited problem?” What is the nurse’s best response? a. “There are a lot of mood disorders that are caused by many different causes. Inheriting these disorders is not likely.” b. “Current research is focusing on fluid and electrolyte disorders as a cause for mood disorders.” c. “All of your family members raised in the same area have probably learned to respond to problems in the same way.” d. “Members of the same family may have the same biological predisposition to experiencing mood disorders.” ANS: D 7. As a nurse in the emergency department, you are caring for a patient who is exhibiting signs of depression. What is a priority nursing intervention you should perform for this patient? a. Assess for depression and ask directly about suicide thoughts. b. Ask the care provider to prescribe blood lab work to assess for depression. c. Focus on the presenting problems and refer the patient for a mental health evaluation. d. Interview the patient’s family to identify their concerns about the patient’s behaviors. ANS: A 8. An older adult has experienced severe depression for many years and is unable to tolerate most antidepressant medications due to adverse effects of the medications. He is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) as a treatment for his depression. What teaching should the nurse give the patient regarding this treatment? a. There are no special preparations needed before this treatment. b. Common side effects include headache and short-term memory loss. c. One treatment will be needed to cure the depression. d. This treatment will leave you unconscious for several hours. ANS: B c. Alcohol d. Penicillin e. Mouthwash ANS: A, C, E Concept 35: Cognition 1. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic recognizes that which child is most at risk for cognitive impairment? a. An infant who is being fed reconstituted powdered formula b. A toddler living in an older home that is being remodeled c. A preschooler who attends a play group 3 days a week d. A school-age child who rides a school bus 5 days a week ANS: B 2. The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for several patients in a long- term care facility. Which patient does the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk for having cognitive impairment related to prescribed medications? a. The patient prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. b. The patient prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer’s disease. c. The patient prescribed a beta-blocker for hypertension. d. The patient prescribed a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis. ANS: C 3. The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient newly admitted to a unit that cares for patients with cognitive impairment. What is an important component of care for the patients on this unit? a. Allow food selections from a menu with several choices. b. Schedule frequent field trips off the unit for cognitive stimulation. c. Plan for attendance at activities with several other patients on the unit. d. Plan for a structured daily routine of events and caregivers. ANS: D 4. A patient who is dehydrated has been experiencing confusion. The daughter is concerned about taking the patient home in a confused state. What statement by the nurse is correct? a. “Don’t worry; the patient should be fine once they are in a familiar environment.” b. “I can make a referral for a home health aide to assist with the patient.” c. “Once the dehydration is corrected, the patient’s confusion should improve.” d. “I can show you how to care for the patient once you return home.” ANS: C 5. An older adult who is cognitively impaired is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Which sign or symptom would the nurse expect to be exhibited by the patient? a. Severe headache b. Flank pain c. Increased confusion d. Decreased blood glucose ANS: C 6. The nurse is sitting with the family of a patient who has just received the diagnosis of dementia. The family asks for information on what treatment will be needed to cure the condition. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “Hormone therapy will reverse the condition.” b. “Vitamin C and zinc will reverse the condition.” c. “There is no treatment that reverses dementia.” d. “Dementia can be reversed with diet, exercise, and medications.” ANS: C 7. A cognitively impaired patient newly admitted to the hospital is experiencing signs of sundown syndrome. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement? a. Leave a night light on in the room at all times. b. Leave the television on at night with the volume up. c. Restrain the patient to maintain safety during the confusion. d. Administer a sleeping medication to help the patient sleep. ANS: A 8. An 82-year-old patient who is in the hospital awakens from sleep and is disoriented to where she is at the present time. The nurse reorients the patient to her surroundings and helps the patient return to sleep. What data does the nurse consider as a probable cause of the patient’s confusion? a. Pain medication received earlier in the night b. The death of the patient’s spouse 2 years ago c. The patient’s history of diabetes d. The age of the patient ANS: A 1. The nurse is teaching primary prevention of cognitive impairment at a community health fair. Which topics would be included in the presentation? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not use substances such as cannabis and alcohol. b. Wear helmets when riding bicycles and motorcycles. c. Complete a Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) yearly. d. Correct acid-base imbalances related to underlying disease processes. e. Wear a seat belt whenever riding in a motorized vehicle. f. Complete a Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) scale yearly. ANS: A, B, E Concept 36: Psychosis 1. A client previously diagnosed as psychotic expresses to the nurse that he is seeing spiders climbing up the walls in his room and he is concerned that they will get into his bed. What is the nurse’s best response? a. Ignore his remarks and remain silent when providing care. b. Express doubt that there are spiders on the wall. c. Ask the client if he also sees spiders in the day room. d. Tell the client there are no spiders and he should stop worrying about it. ANS: B 2. A client with schizophrenia has relapsed and has been identified as being in stage four of relapse. The nurse expects to observe which behavior that most consistent with this stage of relapse? a. Expressing feelings of anxiety b. Expressing feelings of being overwhelmed c. Bizarre behaviors and speech d. Presence of hallucinations ANS: D 3. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient taking clozapine. Which information is essential to include in the teaching plan? a. Caution about sunlight exposure b. Reminder to call the clinic if fever, sore throat, or malaise develops c. Instructions regarding dietary restrictions d. A chart to record patient weight ANS: B 4. Which side effect is highest priority for the nurse to assess for when diphenhydramine is administered to a patient also taking antipsychotic medication? a. Increased pychosis b. Cognitive impairment