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Nursing Research and Evidence-Based Practice, Exams of Nursing

An overview of the importance of nursing research and its role in advancing the nursing profession. It discusses the primary reasons nurses engage in research, such as supporting nursing interventions for holistic client care, collaborating with other healthcare professionals, and addressing the ability of nurses to provide high-quality, effective patient-centered care. The document also touches on the history of nursing during the civil war era, the contributions of african american nurses, and the advancements in nursing from world war i to the 1920s. Additionally, it highlights the challenges facing professional nurses in the 21st century, including the shift in nursing practice from community-based care to acute care settings and the nursing shortage. Insights into nursing theories, nursing diagnoses, and the two doctoral degrees in nursing, making it a valuable resource for nursing students and professionals.

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2024/2025

Available from 10/03/2024

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Download Nursing Research and Evidence-Based Practice and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR 256 Midterm and Final Exam New Latest Version Updated 2025 with All Questions from Actual Past Exam and Correct Answers Midterm Exam The nursing faculty incorporates which practice-based learning activity in order to meet the students' need to learn about the sociodemographics currently present among today's population? A) Inclusion of a geriatric experience as a clinical requirement of all nursing students B) Participation in a panel discussion on the political agendas of several national nursing organizations C) Creation of a poster that compares and contrasts Medicaid and private insurance health care coverage D) Preparing a care plan that addresses the needs of an immigrant client with limited English language skills ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A A social issue that is currently having a very negative impact on the learning environment in classrooms can be best minimized by initially: A) presenting information using a variety of methods so that all learning styles will be addressed. B) requiring that electronic devices be turned off when entering a classroom or other learning environment. C) presenting information on the proper use of social media by nursing students as it impacts client confidentiality. D) defining behaviors that will not be tolerated in the classroom since they do not demonstrate respect or civility. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- D The most important concept to remember when using both verbal and nonverbal communication is that: A) people are more likely to accept verbal messages than nonverbal ones. B) nonverbal messages are accepted as true more often than verbal ones. C) touch as a nonverbal form of communication should be avoided. D) avoiding eye contact is viewed as being untruthful by all cultures. ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- B The primary goals of good relationship building and client care are best achieved when all members of the interprofessional care team: A) have identified the team's leader. B) are experts in their field of care. C) have developed a trusting relationship. D) recognize their role in the client's care. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- C When a client expresses doubt whether a complicated procedure will actually help his condition, the nurse best avoids blocking the communication by responding: A) "I can understand your concern. We can talk more about it whenever you want." B) "Your physician has performed this procedure many times and with great success." C) "What makes you doubt that your condition will benefit from having the procedure done?" D) "Would you like me to arrange for someone who has had the procedure talk to you about it?" ---------- Correct Answer ----------- C What factor qualifies nursing to be defined as a profession? A) Existence of a substantial body of nursing knowledge B) Regular collaboration with members of the medical profession C) Implementation of the nursing process in the delivery of care D) Engagement in the management of unlicensed nursing care givers ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- A The question that is being focused on during the implementation of the scientific process is referred to as the: A) method. B) theory. C) result. D) hypothesis. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- D A theory meets the criteria of fruitfulness when it: A) includes all concepts related to the area of interest. B) generates new directions for future research. C) is easily understood and replicated. D) is reflective of its scientific basis. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B When a nurse places clean linen on the bed of a comatose client, which nursing theory is being implemented? A) Roy's Adaptation Model B) Nightingale's Theory of Practice C) Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings D) Peplau's Interpersonal Relations as a Nursing Process ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B The primary benefit nursing theories have provided the profession is to: A) add additional information to the body of nursing knowledge. B) guide the nursing process in the effective delivery of nursing care. B) trust and belief. C) honesty and loyalty. D) dependability and charity. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B The play Miss Evers' Boys was one of the first literary presentations that depicted nurses as: A) trained professionals. B) caring and charitable. C) client advocates. D) self-sacrificing. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- C Which of the current perceptions of nursing most likely accounts for the lagging numbers of males in the profession? A) Poor income potential B) Work is routine and boring C) Lack of professional autonomy D) Viewed as a female profession ---------- Correct Answer ----------- D The ability to maintain appropriate professional boundaries and preserve nurse-client confidences has been most severely impacted by: A) the misuse of social media forums by nurses. B) the hesitation of state boards of nursing to discipline offenders. C) the courts' reluctance to uphold legal decisions involving professional boundaries. D) the nursing profession's inability to adequately define unacceptable behaviors. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A A staff nurse routinely finds it difficult to receive clarification on prescriptions and orders written by a particular member of the medical staff. When numerous attempts to deal directly with the physician fail, the nurse most appropriately manages the problem by: A) making it known to the nurse manager that they will no longer accept the physician's clients as patients. B) documenting the problem in terms of client safety concerns and forwarding the information to both the nursing manager and chief of medical staff. C) informing the clients that any dissatisfaction with their care should be directed towards their physician for resolution. D) presenting the issues to the unit's entire nursing staff so that a unified plan can be developed to ensure the safety of the physician's clients. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B Which educational intervention demonstrates the most acceptable application of technology as a trend that is currently influencing nursing education as well as client safety? A) Scheduling an orientation session on computer-based documentation for each freshman nursing student B) Providing a list of acceptable Internet sites to use as resources for medication administration C) Requiring each student to have access to a personal laptop computer installed with all required software D) Allowing pre- and postclinical written assignments to be submitted electronically ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B Increasing professional and personal responsibility has been identified as an issue influencing the education of today's nursing professional. Which of the following has the greatest impact on client safety in the acute care setting? A) Requiring all nurse managers to possess at least a Bachelor's degree in nursing (BSN) B) Scheduling mandatory competency assessments on all shifts to facilitate compliance C) Offering monetary incentives to nursing staff who earn appropriate certifications D) Providing nursing staff with classes that focus on effective communication skills ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B A nurse manager recognizes which of the following as an example of a desirable practice-based competency outcome for a recently licensed registered nurse? The novice nurse: A) demonstrates excellent communication and interpersonal skills. B) meets orientation expectations 1 week ahead of schedule. C) has no absences during the required probationary employment period. D) asks for a work schedule that supports enrollment in an advanced nursing program. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B An example of a member of a marginalized population would include: A) a homeless lesbian. B) a diabetic Hispanic. C) a schizophrenic Native American. D) a blind African American. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A Which statement about racially or ethnically diverse populations is true? A) They are generally ill prepared to accept American values and beliefs. B) Language is a barrier that usually takes generations to overcome. C) They are often members of the lower socioeconomic class. D) Education is seldom a priority for these immigrants. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- C Acceptance of others regardless of their cultural background is referred to as: A) respect. B) tolerance. C) stereotyping. D) enculturation. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B A nursing school best demonstrates an understanding of strategies that support recruitment of minority nursing students when it: A) arranges for campus housing for all minority students. B) offers a number of scholarships reserved for minority students. C) offers remediation to those for whom English is a second language. D) provides same-culture mentors from among faculty and student populations. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- D Cultural humility is achieved through: A) embracing the cultures of others. B) regular self-evaluation of biases. C) tolerance of the cultural diverse. D) caring for the culturally diverse. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- B The most likely reason a 9-year-old child cries and refuses to cooperate with an injection is: A) the child's past experiences with injections. B) the environment the child finds himself in, such as a hospital emergency room. C) the precipitating event, such as a fall that resulted in the need for a local anesthetic. D) the nurse's verbal and nonverbal communication with the child about the injection. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A Nursing's primary concern related to the appropriate use of social media is to preserve: A) confidentiality. B) professionalism. C) cultural sensitivity. D) effective communication. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A cupping to remove colds and coughs ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A nurse is assessing a Chinese child and notices a 5-inch circular bruise on the body. The nurse realizes that this finding is indicative of: marginalized ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Barriers to mainstream health care include lack of transportation and disrespectful treatment for a group of economically deprived, undeserved individuals living in a remote area. A mobile clinic provides blood pressure screening, minor first aid, and blood glucose check. This group of individuals is best described as: susto ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A Mexican-American patient is attacked and beaten. This patient is at risk for fright disease which is also known as minorities ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Higher costs of health care coupled with lower wages for this group have prevents most of them from seeking health care. D. Provided by male nurses because females were forbidden to care for male soldiers The Renaissance and Reform Period - The Dark Ages of nursing ---------- Correct Answer -------- --- Religious orders became almost extinct as a result of dissension between Roman Catholic Christians and Protestant sects Nursing no longer appealed to women of high social status; hospital care was regulated to common women, prisoners, thieves, and drunks Nursing became an undesirable job with poor pay, long hours, and strenuous work that was considered menial Founder of professional nursing Demonstrated the value of aseptic techniques and infection control procedures Honored for her contributions to nursing research Demonstrated the value of political activism to affect health care reform Established the first nursing school in England Honored as the founder of professional nursing services, initiated social services, spent up to 20 hours each day providing nursing care Introduced principles of asepsis and infection control, a system for transcribing physician's orders, and a system to maintain patient records Kept careful statistics—documented a decrease in the death rate of soldiers from 42% to 2% as a result of health care reforms that emphasized sanitary conditions ---------- Correct Answer -------- --- What are the major accomplishments of Florence Nightingale? Mary Seacole ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Who was a Jamaican nurse who played a major role in the Crimean War and was denied the opportunity to join Nightingale's nursing brigade because she was black? She opened a lodging house with her own money to care for sick and wounded soldiers and contributed to control of the cholera epidemic through extensive knowledge in tropical medicine. Honored by the Jamaican government and the British Commonwealth with a medal for saving the lives of countless sick and wounded soldiers The Civil War or the War Between the States(1861-1865) No army nurses and no organized medical corps when the war began Dorothea Dix—appointed to organize military hospitals, provide trained nurses, and disperse supplies; she received no official status and no salary for this position 6 million people hospitalized during the war—500,000 surgical cases; 2000 nurses served in the war 181 African American nurses, both men and women, served from 1863 to 1864. Caucasian nurses made $12.00 per month; African American nurses made $10.00 Epidemics plagued the country: syphilis, gonorrhea, malaria, smallpox, and typhoid ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What was nursing like during the Civil War? Harriet Tubman cared for wounded soldiers and conducted an "underground railroad" to lead slaves to freedom Sojourner Truth, known for her abolitionist efforts, as well as her nursing efforts, was an advocate of clean and sanitary conditions so patients could heal Susie King Taylor, although hired in the laundry, worked full time as a nurse on the battlefront with no pay or pension; not considered an official Union Army nurse ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- Name the three African American nurses that contributed to nursing in the Civil War time? Clara Barton operated a war relief program; credited with founding the American Red Cross Louisa May Alcott authored detailed accounts of the experiences encountered by nurses during the war for a newspaper publication entitled Hospital Sketches ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - Name the two volunteer nurses that made great contributions during the civil war time? John D. Rockefeller 1890s—Establishment of African American hospitals and nursing schools gained momentum *Nurse training schools increased after Civil War* ---------- Correct Answer ----------- In 1896 who established the first school of nursing for African American women at the Atlanta Baptist Seminary, now known as Spelman College? By 1910, most states passed legislation requiring nurse registration before entering practice Required entry level for nursing students was upgraded to high school graduate Nurse training programs were improved to include a more comprehensive course of study Because of segregation and discrimination, African Americans had to establish their own health care institutions ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What were the advances in the nursing profession from 1900 to WW1? Lillian Wald ---------- Correct Answer ----------- She developed a viable practice for public health nursing (The Henry Street Settlement) located in the Lower East Side of New York City Purpose was to provide well baby care, health education, disease prevention, and treatment of minor illnesses. Nursing practice at the Henry Street Settlement formed the basis for public health nursing in the United States Developed the first nursing service for occupational health (Metropolitan Life Insurance Company) Prevention of disease in workers to promote productivity Sliding scale fee Improved hospital care and surgical techniques Discoveries in pharmacology—insulin and the precursor to penicillin Environmental conditions improved; serious epidemics of the previous century became nonexistent Nurses served honorably during WWI Nurse anesthetists made their first appearance as part of front-line surgical teams U.S. Public Health Service sought the assistance of a nurse to establish nursing services at military outposts Red Cross is found by Barton ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What were the advancements from WW1 to 1920 in nursing? Clara Barton (WW1 to 1920) ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Who founded the American Red Cross, became more active in urban settings and rural communities Mary Breckinridge (WW1 to 1920) ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Who established the Frontier Nursing Service (FNS) in 1925 in rural Kentucky to assist disadvantaged women and children; documented the impact of nursing services on improving the health of communities; well known for midwifery services "New Deal" ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What new law enacted to rescue the country and provide for medical care and other services for the large numbers of indigent people? Social Security ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ___ _______ Act of 1935 affected health care and provided avenues for public health nursing National old-age insurance system Federal grants to states for maternal and child welfare services Vocational rehabilitation services for the handicapped Medical care for crippled children and blind people to strengthen public health services A federal-state unemployment system ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What did the Social Security Act do? the State Board Test Pool Number of nursing baccalaureate programs grew Associate degree programs developed in community and junior colleges ---------- Correct Answer ----------- By 1950, all states had adopted what? What did this mean for nursing? Changing duties and responsibilities Severe nursing shortage Patient safety, accountability, and quality of care ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What are the Challenges facing professional nurses in the 21st century? Critical thinking Communication Interprofessional collaboration Assessment Leadership Technical Skills ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What are the Core competencies required by professional nurses? Health promotion/disease prevention Information technology Health systems Public policy ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What Knowledge is required by professional nurses? Access Quality heroines ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The 1940s depicted the nurse as the angel of mercy; White Angel about Nightingale and the Spirit of Nursing statue in the Arlington National Cemetery ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The 1930s depicted the nurse as Antiestablishment Era - Nurse Ratched in Cuckoo's Nest as militaristic, who craved power and punished patients, but this also provided the Nurse Training Act of 1964 by Johnson funded for 250M ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The 1960s depicted nurses as Sexual Revolution - Nurse on MASH, but Clara Maas who intentionally was stung by mosquitoes to keep treating patients of yellow fever in the Spanish-American war ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The 1970s depicted nurses as Miss Evers' Boys ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The play and television movie that tell the true story of a nurse who recruited African-American men into the Tuskegee experiment is and shows nurse patient advocacy USS Higabee ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ______was the U.S. Navy destroyer named in honor of a Navy nurse certified registered nurse anesthetists (CRNAs) ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Although men are underrepresented in nursing, 49% of _________ are men. 2010 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nursing was projected to be the fastest growing occupation until The International Council of Nurses ---------- Correct Answer ----------- _______________reserved the title of nurse for the registered nurse in 1985 Gallop Poll ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The survey reported that nursing is the most trusted profession Center for Nursing Advocacy ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Monitors portrayal of nurses in media Nurses of America ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tri-Council of Nursing Media campaign funded by the Pew Foundation Santa Philomena ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Longfellow's book about Florence Nightingale Richard Caroma ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A nurse who became U.S. Surgeon General Chery Ames ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Romantic nursing novel Sairy Gamp ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nurse portrayed negatively in a Dickens novel Spirit of Nursing ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Limestone statue honoring military nurses in Arlington National Cemetery Golden Lamp Award ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Awards for best and worst media portrayal of nursing 1986 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The Association of Black Nursing Faculty is founded by Dr. Sally Tucker in what year? 1896 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The Nurses's Associated Alumna of the US and Canada is established in what year? 1899 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The International Council of Nurses (ICN) was founded when? 1994 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- NCLEX is introduced 1861 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The outbreak of the Civil War causes African American women like Harriet Tubman, Sojourn Truth, and Susie King Taylor to volunteer in what year? 1911 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The American Nurses Association was established 1851 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Florence Nightengale attends Kaiserswerth to become a nurse 1965 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The Social Security Act includes Medicare and Medicaid 1950 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The Code of Professional Nurses is established by the ANA Bolton Nurse Training Act ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Shortened hospital based training program from 36 months to 30 months during WW2 Lavinia Lloyd Dock ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spent most of her career dedicated to the pursuit of equal rights for women and women's right to vote, believing that it was the only way to influence social reform and health care Lilian Walk ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Founded and became the first president of the National Organization of Public Health Nursing Annie W. Goodrich ---------- Correct Answer ----------- In 1910 she was appointed a state inspector of nursing schools. Also, established a nurse training program at Vassar College nursing cap ---------- Correct Answer ----------- signifies service to other Isabel Adams Hampton Robb ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Brought together leaders from key nursing schools to form the American Society of Superintendents of Training Schools for Nurses and served as chairman Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2010 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What recent act increased student loan amounts, provided $50M a year in nurse managed health centers, gerontology and provided up to $40,000 in educational loan repayment for faculty, strengthened Title VIII, clinical nurse training for Advanced Practiced Nurses 1. Liberal Education for Bacc. Generalist Nursing Practice - provides foundations, adds value and applications 2. Basic Organizational and Systems Leadership for Quality Care and Patient Safety - quality care and patient outcome 3. Scholarship for Evidence Based Practice - practice outcomes, use best practices 4. Information Management and Application of Patient Care Technology - deliver quality care programs 5. Health Care Policy, Finance, Regulatory Environments - regulations and limitations by state boards 6. Interpersonal Communication and Collaboration for Improving Patient Outcomes 7. Clinical Prevention and Population Health 8. Professionalism, Professional Values 9. Bacc. Generalist Nursing Practice - focuses on all 1-8 ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What are the 9 essentials for nurses from the American Association of Colleges of Nursing? competency outcomes ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The results, or end products, of planned study and experience that are focused on specfic abilities required for practice contemporary issues ---------- Correct Answer ----------- the problems, changes, and concerns that are current for the present time core competencies ---------- Correct Answer ----------- the essential cluster of abilities and skills required for competent nursing practice educational mobility ---------- Correct Answer ----------- the progressive movement from one type or level of education to another, often based on flexible, self directed or advanced placement options. Example is progression from a non-nursing degree to a BSN, MSN or doctoral degree b ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A nurse is preparing to talk at a community meeting about current trends that affect nursing and nursing education. Which of the following should be included in this discussion? A. Citizens are living longer, resulting in a shift in nursing practice from community-based care to the acute care setting. B. As our population is becoming more diverse in ethnicity, sexual preference, and how family is Inclusiveness Consistency Accuracy Relevance Fruitfulness Simplicity ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Criteria for theory acceptance involves 6 factors d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 2. For a theory to be reliable and acceptable for guiding nursing practice, another nurse should be able to duplicate the theory. Which criterion for theory acceptance deals with replication? A. Fruitfulness B. Relevance C. Accuracy D. Simplicity hypothesis, method, data collection, results, evaluation ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The five steps of the scientific process inclusiveness ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Does the theory include all concepts related to the area of interest? consistency ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Can the theory address new entities without having its founding assumptions changed? accuracy ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Does the theory explain retrospective occurrences? Does the theory maintain its capacity to predict future outcomes? relevance ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Does the theory relate to the scientific foundation from which it is derived? Is it reflective of the scientific base? fruitfulness ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Does the theory generate new directions for future research? simplicity ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Does the theory provide a road map for replication? Is it simple to follow? Does it make sense? theories ---------- Correct Answer ----------- _____ provide us with a frame of reference, the ability to choose concepts to study, or ideas that are within one's practice, they help guide research and research helps validate them health, stress, adaptation ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 3 examples of nursing concepts? concept, construct, conceptual model, philosophy, theory ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Language of nursing theory (5): Florence Nightingale ---------- Correct Answer ----------- An environmental adaptation theory called Canons of Nursing Documented for nurses and laypersons alike and served as the foundation for the promotion of health Theory of practice "canons of nursing"—foundation for health promotion and guidance for the practice of professional nursing Ventilation and warming Noise Variety Diet Light Chattering hopes and advice Cleanliness ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What was Florence Nightingale's theory? Orem ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Self-Care Deficit Model - The object is to restore the client's self-care capability to enable him or her to sustain structural reliability, performance, and growth through purposeful nursing intervention (1971)—Self-Care Deficit Model: Self-Care, Self-care Deficits, and Nursing Systems Facilitates client self-care by measuring the client's deficit relative to self-care needs Nurse implements appropriate measures to assist the client in meeting needs by matching with an appropriate supportive intervention ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What was Orem's theory? Watson ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Theory of Human Caring - Transpersonal caring as the fulcrum; philosophy and science as the core of nursing (1978)—Theory of Human Caring: Transpersonal Caring as the Fulcrum: Philosophy and Science as the Core Nursing Caring among nurse, environment, and client is essential to healing Holistic outlook addresses the effect and importance of altruism, sensitivity, trust, and interpersonal skills ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What was Watson's theory? Henderson ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Definition of nursing theory - Nursing assists patients with 14 essential functions toward independence Leininger ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Theory of Cultural Care Diversity and Universality - Transcultural nursing/nursing care; aimed toward caring & components of a cultural care theory - Diversity, universality, worldview, ethnohistory (i.e. care, caring, health, nursing) concept ---------- Correct Answer ----------- An example of a(n)___ is comfort, fatigue, pain, or depression. proposition ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Statements that propose the relationship between and among concepts are ___ theory ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A _________ is defined as a group of related concepts that explain existing phenomena and predict future events schematic models ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ____________depict concepts and show how these concepts are related, with the use of images such as arrows and dotted lines. hypothesis ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A _________ asks the question that is to be the main focus of the scientific inquiry or research study methods ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The researcher is detailing the _________ when he or she outlines the step-by-step procedure that will be used to collect data for a research study. self care deficit model by Orem ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nurse implements appropriate measures to assist the client in meeting self-care needs nursing research ---------- Correct Answer ----------- systematic inquiry or study conducted to generate new knowledge or to refine existing knowledge Results provide foundation for practice decisions and behaviors Results create strong scientific base for nursing 1. Formulating the research question or problem 2. Defining the purpose of the study 3. Reviewing related literature 4. Formulating a hypothesis and defining variable 5. Selecting the research design 6. Selecting the population, sample, and setting 7. Conducting a pilot study 8. Collecting the data 9. Analyzing the data 10. Communicating conclusions ---------- Correct Answer ----------- steps of research process study designs ---------- Correct Answer ----------- plans that tell a researcher how the data is to be collected, from whom it is collected, and ow the data will be analyzed to answer a specific question qualitative research ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a systemic, subjective approach used to describe life experiences and give them meaning quantitative research ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a formal, objective systematic process used to describe the test relationships and examine cause and effect interactions among variables quantitative ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. Usually produce knowledge about very precise topics, creating a need for multiple studies over multiple years before conclusive knowledge is yielded. d. Examples: i. Case study: provides an in-depth analysis of a single subject, group, institution, or social unit ii. Survey: used to collect large amounts of info with little expenditure of time and money empacho ---------- Correct Answer ----------- _____ is a cultural disease that is caused by food particles lodged in the disgestive tract. American Indians ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ____ are likely to be present oriented Southeast Asians ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Cupping, pinching, rubbing and burning are a common part of self-care for______ Madeleine Leininger ---------- Correct Answer ----------- _____ created the theory of Culture Care Diveristy and Universality Western ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Punctuality and watching the clock are par of which culture? American Indians ---------- Correct Answer ----------- May view direct eye contact as rude a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1. Barriers to mainstream health care include lack of transportation and disrespectful treatment for a group of economically deprived, underserved individuals living in a remote area accessible only by water transportation. A mobile clinic provides blood pressure screening, minor first aid, and blood glucose checks. This group of individuals is best described as: A. Marginalized B. Stereotyped C. Enculturated D. Assimilated evil eye ---------- Correct Answer ----------- malojo billis ---------- Correct Answer ----------- disease brought on by anger literacy ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Information _____ is the ability to determine when information is needed and how to locate, evaluate, and use information appropriately. MEDLINE ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Scholarly database that can be use to find scientific and research information storage ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Requires common access protocols, retention, schedules and univerrsal identification to maintain electronic health data telehealth ---------- Correct Answer ----------- use of technology to assess, diagnose, and in some case treat persons who live a long distance from the health care provider delivery support ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Provides automatic alerts about clinical information such as drug dosing and interactions poct ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acronym for technologies that allow decentralized tests to be performed on patients by nonlab staff cis ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acronym for a collection of software and hardware programs that support the entry, retrieval, update and analysis of patient care information and associated clinical information EHR ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acronym for system that electronically maintains data about an individuals health care status improved quality of patient care, improved patient safety, increase confidence, improved nursing productivity and efficiency ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A nurse's ability to access uptodate evidence based practice information will results in (4) computerized provider order entry, clinical decision support ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Two specific functionality recommended by the Institute of Medicine as essential to improving the quality and safety of health care are high risk ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hand-held computers may be considered ____ in terms of security issues related to HIPAA sponsoring ---------- Correct Answer ----------- When one is evaluating the objectivity of a website, it is important to know who is ____ the website. openness ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The nurse who is able to state her feelings honestly with no attempt made to hide or disguise the real object of a disagreement is practicing nonverbal ---------- Correct Answer ----------- When the verbal and nonverbal messages don't agree, the ____ message is more likely to be believed closed ---------- Correct Answer ----------- When a nurse asks a patient, "Do you know where you are", she is using ___ communication blocking ---------- Correct Answer ----------- when responding to a patients concerns with generalized answers like "don't worry", the nurse is using ___ communication accommodating ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The nurse who most often puts aside his/her own needs for the sake of resolving conflict is using the conflict resolution style of _____ Final Exam You're educating a group of nursing students about the pathophysiology of Celiac Disease. You ask the group to identify the specific protein that plays a role in the immune reaction experienced in Celiac Disease. Which answer is correct? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Gliadins A patient is suspected to be suffering from Celiac Disease. The physician orders an endoscopy. If the patient has Celiac Disease, what finding will be discovered with the endoscopy? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Flat intestinal villi Which of the following is not an anti-body blood test ordered by a physician to diagnose Celiac Disease? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Antinuclear antibody A patient, who was recently diagnosed with Celiac Disease, has blister type bumps on the elbow and knees. The patient reports it is extremely itchy. As the nurse, you know this is as known as: - ----------- Correct Answer ------------ Dermatitis Herpetiformis Your patient was admitted 3 days ago for treatment of severe malnourishment secondary to Celiac Disease. The patient is doing well and will be discharged tomorrow. When you arrive to the patient's room, the patient's friends and family are visiting and have brought dinner for the patient. Which food item below should the patient avoid consuming? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Pork barbeque sandwich Gliadin is a wheat prolamin, which is a plant storage protein that is high in the amino acids particularly ____________ and ___________. ------------ Correct Answer ------------ proline and glutamine Your patient, who is presenting with signs and symptoms of GERD, is scheduled to have a test that assesses the function of the esophagus' ability to squeeze food down into the stomach and the closer of the lower esophageal sphincter. The patient asks you, "What is the name of the test I'm having later today?" You tell the patient the name of the test is:* ------------ Correct Answer - ----------- Esophageal manometry After dinner time, during hourly rounding, a patient awakes to report they feel like "food is coming up" in the back of their throat and that there is a bitter taste in their mouth. What nursing intervention will you perform next? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Assist the patient into the Semi-Fowler's position After providing education to a patient with GERD. You ask the patient to list 4 things they can do to prevent or alleviate signs and symptoms of GERD. Which statement is INCORRECT? ----- ------- Correct Answer ------------ "I will try to lie down after eating a meal to help decrease pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter." You're collecting a patient's medication history that has GERD. Which medication below is NOT typically used to treat GERD? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Colesevelam "Welchol" A patient is taking Bethanechol "Urecholine" for treatment of GERD. This is known as what type of drug? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Prokinetic Which of the following does NOT play a role in the development of GERD? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ All the above play a role in GERD True or False: A patient with Crohn's Disease can experience inflammation in the large intestine ----- True Which statement about how sickle cell anemia is passed to offspring is CORRECT? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ This condition is an autosomal recessive disease. Which type of hemoglobin is present in a patient who has sickle cell anemia? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Hemoglobin SS Which type of hemoglobin is present in a patient who has sickle cell TRAIT? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Hemoglobin AS A 25 year-old pregnant female and her partner both have sickle cell trait. What is the percentage that their offspring will develop sickle cell anemia? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 25% You're assisting a physician with sickle cell anemia screening. As the nurse you know that which patient population listed below is at risk for sickle cell disease? ------------ Correct Answer ------- ----- African-Americans A patient is being tested for sickle cell disease. As the nurse, you know the ________ will assess for abnormal hemoglobin on the red blood cell, but will not differentiate between sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait. Therefore, the patient will need to have what other test to determine this? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ dithionite test; hemoglobin electrophoresis During an outpatient well visit with a patient who has sickle cell anemia, you make it PRIORITY to assess the patient's? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ vaccination history You're providing education to a patient with sickle cell anemia who is taking Hydroxyurea. You will make it priority to tell the patient to? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Avoid sick people and maintain strict hand hygiene A mother brings in her 8 month-old child to the ER. The mother reports the baby has recently started being extremely fussy, has a fever, and swelling in the hands and feet. The child is diagnosed with sickle cell disease. As the nurse you know that the swelling in the hands and feet in the infant is termed? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Dactylitis You're educating the parents of a 12 year-old, who was recently treated for sickle cell crisis, on ways to prevent further sickle cell crises in the further. Which statement by the parents demonstrates they understood your instructions? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ "We will avoid traveling to high altitude locations." what is the pancreas's involvement with glucose management ------------ Correct Answer --------- --- The pancreas. Specifically in the Islet of Langerhans cells Alpha cells release glucagon in response to low glucose levels Beta cells release insulin in response to high glucose levels Differentiate Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Type 1 Diabetes characterized by no production of insulin from the pancreas resulting in dependence of exogenous insulin Type 2 Diabetes characterized by increase insulin resistance or decrease production of insulin to control glucose levels What are some signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Glucose <60, blurred vision, decreased LOC, rapid shallow respirations, diaphoresis, anxiety, weakness What are some signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Glucose >130 fasting, Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, dry itchy skin, ketones can develop, With fruity breath and Kussmal breathing as acidosis starts Rationale for an A1C lab draw/monitoring ------------ Correct Answer ------------ a simple blood test that measures your average blood sugar levels over the past 3 months. Glucose sticks to hemoglobin for as long as the red blood cells are alive. Red blood cells live about three months. treatments for hypoglycemia ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Treat immediately by taking fast-acting oral carbs, e.g., glucose tablets, orange juice. dasiglucagon (Zegalogue), diazoxide (Proglycem - PO), and glucagon (GlucaGen and others - Ima and IV) Oral glucose tablets or gels (Glutose, Insta-Glucose, & BD Glucose) Pure glucose (Dextrose or glucose gel or tabs) Thyroid Agents MOA ------------ Correct Answer ------------ increase the metabolic rate of body tissues, increasing oxygen consumption, respiration, heart rate, growth and maturation, and the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins Thyroid Agents Uses ------------ Correct Answer ------------ replacement therapy in hypothyroid states, treatment of myxedema coma, suppression of TSH to prevent goiters, and management of thyroid cancer. Thyroid Agents common meds ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothroid, Unithroid, Tirosint) Desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid and others) liothyronine (Cytomel, Triostat) Thyroid Agents Education ------------ Correct Answer ------------ taken on an empty stomach continue during pregnancy drug enters human milk and could suppress the infant's thyroid production older adults because they often will require lower doses Thyroid Agents special considerations ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Assess allergy history, lactation, Addison disease, AMI w/o hypothyroidism, & thyrotoxicosis for contraindications or cautions. Evaluate skin lesions, orientation, affect, baseline vital signs, ECG, respiration, & thyroid function pre-treatment & during therapy for potential adverse effects. Thyroid Agents adverse effects ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Skin reactions & hair loss may occur initially. Adjusting the dose can lead to hyperthyroidism symptoms. Cardiac stimulation arrhythmias, hypertension, CNS effects anxiety, sleeplessness, headache, & difficulty swallowing may arise. Drink plenty of water w/ the med can alleviate esophageal issues. Antithyroid Agents MOA ------------ Correct Answer ------------ these groups of drugs are not chemically related, they both block the formation of thyroid hormones within the thyroid gland. Antithyroid Agents Uses ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Thioamides lower thyroid hormone levels by preventing the formation of thyroid hormone in the thyroid cells, which lowers the serum levels of thyroid hormone. Radioactive iodine is taken up into the thyroid cells, which are then destroyed by the beta- radiation given off by the radioactive iodine. Antithyroid Agents common meds ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Thioamides include propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (Tapazole) Iodine solutions include potassium iodide (Thyrosafe, Thyroshield), and sodium iodide (Hicon, generic) Antithyroid Agents education ------------ Correct Answer ------------ crosses the placenta and enters breast milk = hypothyroidism Methimazole is also associated with bone marrow suppression iodism (metallic taste and burning in the mouth, sore teeth and gums, diarrhea, cold symptoms, and stomach upset), staining of teeth, skin rash, and the development of goiter Antihypocalcemic Agents MOA ------------ Correct Answer ------------ compounds regulate the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the small intestine, mineral resorption in bone, and reabsorption of phosphate from the renal tubules working along with PTH and calcitonin to regulate calcium homeostasis, vitamin D functions as a hormone. Antihypocalcemic Agents uses ------------ Correct Answer ------------ management of hypocalcemia and hypoparathyroidism Antihypocalcemic Agents common meds ------------ Correct Answer ------------ human PTH analogs: Teriparatide (Bonsity, Forteo) and parathyroid hormone (Natpara) Parathyroid hormone (Natpara) and Abaloparatide (Tymlos) Calcitriol (Rocaltrol) Antihypocalcemic Agents education ------------ Correct Answer ------------ caution should be used with a history of renal stones or during lactation take supplemental calcium and vitamin D, increase weight-bearing exercise, and decrease risk factors such as smoking and alcohol consumption caution liver or renal dysfunction electrolyte monitoring Graves think Gains=High lodine excess Levothyroxine excess Hyperthyroidism symptoms ------------ Correct Answer ------------ High and hot Exodthalamos=Grape eyes Goiter High BP/HR HIgh GI=diarrhea Heart Palpitations Hyperthyroidism Diet ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Yes: High calories, protein, carbs Frequent meals NO: High fiber, caffeine or spicy food Hyperthyroidism treatment. ------------ Correct Answer ------------ PTU propylthavracl→ Puts the Underground Methimazole Вета Blocker SSKI→shrinks thyroid=Reduce excess levothyroxine!!! WATCH FOR THYROID STORM Hypothyroidism causes ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Low T3/T4, High TSH from the pituitary glad HASHIMOTOS Pituitary tumor Thyroidectomy hypothyroidism SYMPTOMS: ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Low and Slow Low RR=Place trach kit at bedside Low HR/BP Low Temp Low Energry low metabolism and GI=Constipation Hair Loss Low mood/sex drive Low LOC Dry skin Hypothyroidism Diet ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Low calories, saturated fat, cholesterol Frequent Rest hypothyroidism treatment ------------ Correct Answer ------------ levothyroxine=removes T3/T4 WATCH FOR MYEXDEMA GOMA Diabetic ketoacidosis ------------ Correct Answer ------------ DKA: in TYPE 1, NO InsulIn is made, so the body burns KETONES for energy= acid enters blood =acid/base imbal. HHS Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State ------------ Correct Answer ------------ In TYPE 2 little insuln, high blood sugar without Ketoacidosis Rapid Insulin ------------ Correct Answer ------------ "15 Racoons Laugh At Glue" onset 15 mins Lispro Aspart Glulisne Peak 30-90 hr 3-5 Hour Duration Short Insulin ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Short Short=Regular lin is Short humalin R/Novalin R onset 30-60 mins Peak 2-4 hr 2-5 Duration intermediate NPH ------------ Correct Answer ------------ NPH Nothing Popping Here Novolin N onset 60-120 min Peak 4-12 hr 24 hr Duration Long ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Tresida deteemir +burns all year Lantus=Lanterns Burn Long onset 60-120 min Peak no peak 24 hr Duration pulmonary embolism ------------ Correct Answer ------------ clot or other material lodges in vessels of the lung pulmonary embolism symptoms ------------ Correct Answer ------------ sudden chest pain, dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, also may have cough, tachycardia, fever, diaphoresis, anxiety, & possible syncope, hx of DVT pulmonary embolism diagnostics ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Chest x-ray -ECG -Peripheral vascular studies -ABGs -D-dimer -Ventilation-perfusion scan -CT pulmonary embolism management ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Maintain the airway, Support breathing, High-flow O2 or assist ventilations as indicated. Intubation may be indicated. Establish IV access, Monitor vital signs closely. Transport to appropriate facility. Secondary high blood pressure ------------ Correct Answer ------------ secondary to another disease such as kidney disease primary high blood pressure ------------ Correct Answer ------------ unidentified cause HTN modifiable risk factors ------------ Correct Answer ------------ high Na, low K, alcohol, smoking, DM, HLD, obesity, physical inactivity, unhealthy diet HTN non-modifiable risk factors ------------ Correct Answer ------------ psychosocial stress, pre- term birth, low birth wt., CKD, family history, age, poverty, male sex, obstructive sleep apnea HTN diagnosis ------------ Correct Answer ------------ BP >130/80 on 2 separate occasions within 6 months HTN education ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -The number one cause of stroke (cerebrovascular accident- CVA) is nonadherence to antihypertensive medications. HTN complications ------------ Correct Answer ------------ heart: LVH, AMI, atherosclerosis CNS: intracerebral hematoma from CHARCOT BOUCHARD aneurysms, BERRY ANEURYSM (SAH), small LACUNAR infarcts (from hyaline arteriosclerosis) renal: nephrosclerosis, hyaline ateriosclerosis, tubular atrophy, malignant htn (renal fail + cerebral edema) eyes: hypertensive retinopathy (copper/silver wiring), AV nicking, hemorrhage, exudates, papilledema ischemic stroke ------------ Correct Answer ------------ a type of stroke that occurs when the flow of blood to the brain is blocked hemmorragic stroke ------------ Correct Answer ------------ A type of stroke that occurs as a result of bleeding inside the brain. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors (-zolamide) ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Metabolic Acidosis -Hypokalemia respiratory acidosis s/s ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Drowsiness Disorientation Dizziness Headache Coma ↓BP V-Fib Hyperkalemia Rapid/Irregular HR Warm, flushed skin Seizures Hypoventilation Hypoxia Cyanosis Respiratory Alkalosis S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ lethargy lightheadedness confusion tachycardia dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia nausea vomiting epigastric pain numbness and tingling of the extremities hyperventilation (tachypnea) metabolic acidosis s/s ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Drowsiness Confusion Headache Coma ↓BP Dysrhythmias (R/T Hyperkalemia) Warm, flushed skin Nausea/Vomiting/Diarrhea/Abdominal pain Deep, rapid respirations metabolic alkalosis s/s ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Drowsiness Diziness Nervousness Confusion ↑HR Anorexia/Nausea/Vomiting Tremors Hypertonic muscles Muscle cramps/Tetany/Tingling in extremeties/Seizures Hypoventilation ABG normal values ------------ Correct Answer ------------ pH: 7.35-7.45 PaO2: 80-100 mmHg PaCO2: 35-45 mmHg HCO3: 22-26 mEq/L Sodium normal range ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 135-145 mEq/L Hyponatremia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Nausea Muscle cramps Confusion Muscular twitching, coma Seizures Headache Hypernatremia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ You are 'fried' or S.A.L.T. F - Fever (low grade), flushed skin R - Restless (irritable) I - Increased fluid retention and increased BP E - Edema (peripheral and pitting) D - Decreased urinary output, dry mouth S = Skin flushed A = Agitation L = Low-grade fever T = Thirst Potassium normal range ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 3.5-5.0 mEq/L Hyperkalemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ M.U.R.D.E.R. M - Muscle weakness U - Urine, oliguria, anuria R- Respiratory distress D - Decreased cardiac contractility E - ECG changes R - Reflexes, hyperreflexia, or areflexia (flaccid) Hypokalemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ A SIC WALT Alkalosis Shallow respiration Irritability Confusion and drowsiness Weakness and fatigue Arrhythmias- irregular heart rate, tachycardia Lethargy Thready pulse decrease intestinal mobility, nausea and vomiting Calcium normal range ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 8.5-10.5 mg/dL Hypocalcemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ C.A.T.S. C - Convulsions A- Arrhythmias T - Tetany (involuntary contraction of muscles) S - Spasms and stridor Hypercalcemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Muscle weakness, Constipation, Anorexia, N/V, Polyuria, Polydipsia, Neurosis, Dysrhythmias, Magnesium normal range ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 1.3-3 mEq/L Hypermagnesemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Flushing, Hypotension, Drowsiness, Lethargy, Hypoactive reflexes, Depressed respirations, Bradycardia Hypomagnesemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Anorexia, Distention, Neuromuscular irritability, Depression, Disorientation Phosphorus normal range ------------ Correct Answer ------------ 2.5-4.5 mg/dL Hypophosphatemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Paresthesias, Muscle weakness, Muscle pain, Mental changes, Cardiomyopathy, Respiratory failure Hyperphosphatemia S/S ------------ Correct Answer ------------ *Neuromuscular irritability* Muscle weakness Hyperactive reflexes Tetany Positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign Cardiac output equation ------------ Correct Answer ------------ heart rate x stroke volume stroke volume ------------ Correct Answer ------------ The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction. Afterload ------------ Correct Answer ------------ The force or resistance against which the heart pumps. preload ------------ Correct Answer ------------ stretch on the heart before it contracts Contractility ------------ Correct Answer ------------ force of contraction Ejection Fraction (EF) ------------ Correct Answer ------------ percentage of blood volume in the Edema/swelling, jugular vein distention, weight gain, atrial fibrillation, nocturne, increased abdominal girth, hepatomegaly Medications used to treat heart failure ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -ACE inhibitors (- pril): cough, hyperkalemia -ARBS (-sartan): hyperkalemia -Furosemide -Spironolactone: hyperkalemia -BetaBlockers (-lol) -Digoxin: hypokalemia, digibind, not for heart block Diagnostic tests and labs used for heart failure ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -B-type naturietic peptide: biomarker released by ventricles due to excess pressure, >100 pg/mL the higher the number the worse the heart failure -Echocardiogram -Ejection fraction: percentage of blood left ventricle pumps with each contraction, 60% normal, 50% is heart failure Interventions for clients with heart failure based on symptoms ------------ Correct Answer --------- --- -Shortness of breath: Oxygen -Edema: Lasix -Pallor: Iron Lifestyle and nutritional teaching should be provided for clients with heart failure ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Heart healthy diet, leafy greens, whole grains, berries, avocados, fatty fish, walnuts, beans, dark chocolate Electrical conduction of the heart ------------ Correct Answer ------------ SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers Components of an ECG ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -P (less than 0.11 seconds): Atrial depolarization -QRS (0.12 Seconds): Ventricular depolarization -T (0.10-0.25 seconds): Ventricular depolarization Normal Sinus Rhythm ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Sinus Bradycardia ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Sinus Tachycardia ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Atrial Fibrillation ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Ventricular Fibrillation ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Action of factor XA inhibitor ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Anticoagulant that selectively and reversibly blocks the activity of clotting factor Xa, preventing clot formation When giving beta blockers and calcium channel blockers to a client with atrial fibrillation, what is their expected goal and outcome? ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Reduce heart rate Digoxin toxicity ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Blurred vision, headache, confusion, weakness, depression, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Signs of decreased cardiac output related to shock ------------ Correct Answer ------------ - Tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, cold/clammy, skin, decreased urine output, confusion, respiratory alkalosis Types of Shock ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Hypovolemic: loss of fluids -Septic: infection -Neurogenic: brain injury -Cardiogenic: heart injury -Anaphylactic: inflammatory: swelling, edema, treat with epinephrine, antihistamine, and glucocorticoid Stages of Shock ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Initial: hypoxia, anaerobic cell respiration -Compensatory: employment of neural hormonal, biochemical mechanisms -Progressive: irreversible stage -Refractory: vital organs fail, can not be reversed, death Risk factors for shock ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Old age, heart failure, allergies, infection, damage to nervous system, major blood loss Signs of fluid overload ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Rapid weight gain, edema, swelling in abdomen, cramping, headache, shortness of breath, high blood pressure Manifestations of atrial fibrillation ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Fatigue, irregular heartbeat, fluttering in chest, dizziness, shortness of breath, weakness, confusion Pathophysiology of Diverticulitis ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Diverticulum becomes obstructed with stool, results in fecal stasis, mucosal trauma, schema caused by fiber deficiency, surgery, antibiotic Clinical manifestations of diverticulitis ------------ Correct Answer ------------ -Pain, naissez and vomiting, fever, abdominal tenderness, constipation Complications of diverticulitis ------------ Correct Answer ------------ peritonitis abscess & fistula formation bowel obstruction urethral obstruction lower GI bleed Diverticulitis Diet ------------ Correct Answer ------------ low fiber NO seeds, white rice, pasta, tender meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, canned or cooked fruits w/o skin, seeds or membranes small pouches are formed in the esophagus, stomach & small intestine but the most common is in the Lg. intestine Pre-renal AKI ------------ Correct Answer ------------ external to the kidneys that reduce systemic circulation blood flow/leading to decreased glomerular perfusion&filtration of kidneys. It doesnt initially involve kidney tissue damage Causes: Hypovolemia/heart failure/decrease in effective blood volume(liver cirrhosis or sepsis)&renal artery stenosis Intrinsic (Intra-renal) AKI ------------ Correct Answer ------------ involves direct damage to kidneys, including the glomeruli/kidney tubules/interstitium Causes of Acute tubular necrosis due to ischemia or nephrotoxins: antibiotics/heavy metals/contrast media/glomerulonephritis/acute interstitial nephritis/vascular diseases like thrombosis/intratubular obstruction Post-renal AKI ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Results from obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys, which leads to increased pressure in the renal nephrons and impairs kidney function. Cause: Urinary tract obstruction due to stones, tumors, benign prostatic hyperplasia, or clots. S/S of AKI ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Oliguria or anuria, fluid retention, edema, pulmonary congestion, fatigue, weakness, confusion, and nausea. AKI management ------------ Correct Answer ------------ Pre-renal: Treat underlying cause, fluid resuscitation. Intrinsic: Remove causative agents, manage complications, possibly dialysis. Post-renal: Relieve obstruction, surgical intervention may be required. Diet for AKI ------------ Correct Answer ------------ limiting potassium, phosphorus, and sodium intake to help manage electrolyte imbalances. Protein intake may be modified based on the severity of AKI and the patient's nutritional status. Fluid intake may also need to be adjusted based on the patient's fluid balance status. AKI-meds to avoid ------------ Correct Answer ------------ This includes non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), certain antibiotics (e.g., aminoglycosides), and contrast media when possible.