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Nursing Research: Definitions, Concepts, and Key Terms, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive overview of key terms and concepts in nursing research. It defines essential terms such as research, evidence-based practice, and quality improvement, and explores different paradigms and methods used in nursing research. The document also outlines the major steps involved in evidence-based practice and discusses the importance of knowledge translation in improving clinical practice.

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NURS 328 Nursing Research- Athabasca

University Questions With Answers.

Research - ANSWER- systematic inquiry that uses structured methods to answer questions and solve problems

Nursing Research - ANSWER- systematic inquiry designed to develop trustworthy evidence about issues of importance to nurses and their clients

Clinical Nursing Research - ANSWER- Research designed to guide nursing practice. Typically begins with questions that are raised in day- to- day clinical practice- problems that you may have already encountered.

evidence-based practice - ANSWER- The use of the best evidence in making patient care decisions. Such evidence typically comes from research conducted by nurses and other health care professionals.

consumers of nursing research - ANSWER- nurses who read research report to keep up to date on findings that may effect their practice.

producers of nursing research - ANSWER- nurses who actively design and undertake studies

translational research - ANSWER- research on how findings from studies can best be translated into practice

clinical significance - ANSWER- The practical importance of research results in terms of whether they have genuine, palpable effects on the daily lives of patients or on health care decisions made on their behalf

benchmarking data - ANSWER- provides information on such issues as the rates of using various procedures or rates of clinical problems

quality improvement - ANSWER- systematic efforts to improve practices and processes within a specific organization or patient groups. ie. medication error reports. Can be used to assess practices and determine the need for practice changes.

Paradigm - ANSWER- a worldview, a general perspective to explain the world's complexities. A way of looking at natural phenomena that encompasses a set of philosophical assumptions and that guides one's approach to inquiry.

assumption - ANSWER- A principle that is believed to be true without solid proof

determinism - ANSWER- refers to the positives' belief that phenomena do not happen by chance but they are controlled and produced by antecedent causes

positivist paradigm - ANSWER- research activity often aimed at understanding the underlying causes of natural phenomena. Closely related to quantitative research.

probabilistic evidence - ANSWER- learning what the true state of a phenomenon probably is.

constructivist paradigm - ANSWER- An alternative paradigm (also called naturalistic paradigm) to the positivist paradigm that holds that there are multiple interpretations of reality, and that the goal of research is to understand how individuals construct reality within their context; associated with qualitative research.

Research Methods - ANSWER- The techniques researchers use to design a study and to gather and analyse relevant information

Scientific Method - ANSWER- Involves using a set of orderly procedures to acquire

Empirical evidence - ANSWER- evidence that is rooted in objective reality and gathered directly or indirectly through the senses rather than through personal beliefs or hunches

Generalizability - ANSWER- the degree to which the research methods justify the inference that the findings are true for a broader group than study participants; in particular, the inference that the findings can be generalized from the sample to the population.

constructivist traditions - ANSWER- emphasize the inherent complexity of humans, their ability to shape and "construct" their own experiences, and the idea that truth is a collection of realities.

reductionist - ANSWER- reduces human experience to only the few concepts that are defined in advance by researchers rather than naturally emerging from the experiences of those under study

fallibility - ANSWER- the tendency to make mistakes or be wrong

cause probing - ANSWER- studies designed to illuminate the underlying causes of phenomena

descriptive studies - ANSWER- researchers count, delineate and classify

descriptive research - ANSWER- research that typically has as its main objective the accurate portrayal of people's characteristics or circumstances and/ or the frequency with which certain phenomena occur.

Exploratory Research - ANSWER- Begins with a phenomena of interest; but rather than simply describing it, researchers examine the nature of the phenomenon, the manner in which it is manifested, and other factors to which it is related- including factors to which it is related.

explanatory research - ANSWER- seeks to understand the underlying causes or full nature of a phenomenon

evidence- based practice - ANSWER- the integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values

evidence- based practise - ANSWER- the ongoing process that incorporates evidence from research, clinical expertise, client preferences and other available resources to make nursing decisions about clients. Decision making in nursing practise is influenced by evidence and also by individual values, client choice, theories, clinical judgement, ethics, legislation, regulation, health- care resources and practice environments.

Key ingredient of evidence based practice - ANSWER- the effort to personalize "best evidence" to a specific patient's needs within a particular clinical context.

Basic feature of EBP - ANSWER- it de- emphasizes decisions based on custom, authority, or ritual

Emphasis of EBP - ANSWER- identifying the best available research evidence and integrating it with other factors in making clinical decisions

Research utilization - ANSWER- the use of findings from studies in a practical application that is unrelated to the original research

emphasis of research utilization - ANSWER- translating new knowledge into real world applications

A keystone of the EBP movement in health care fields was - ANSWER- cochrane collaboration founded in the UK

Cochrane Collaboration - ANSWER- its aim is to help providers make good health care decisions by preparing and disseminating systematic reviews of the effects of health care interventions

knowledge translation - ANSWER- A term that is often associated with efforts to enhance systematic change in clinical practice. It is a dynamic and iterative process that includes synthesis, dissemination, exchange and ethically- sound application of knowledge and strengthen the health care system.

randomized controlled trial - ANSWER- A full experimental test of an intervention, involving random assignment to treatment groups, is phase 3 of a full clinical trial

evidence hierarchies - ANSWER- rank evidence sources according to the strength of the evidence they provide

systematic reviews - ANSWER- a rigorous synthesis of research findings on a particular research question, using systematic sampling and data collection procedures and a formal protocol.

preprocessed - ANSWER- evidence that has been summarized and synthesized by other reviewers

meta-analysis - ANSWER- a technique for integrating quantitative research findings statistically. treats the findings from a study as one piece of information. The findings from multiple studies on the same topic are combined and then all of the information is analysed statistically in a manner similar to that in a usual study. Provides an objective method of integrating a body of findings and of observing patterns that might not have been detected. It is less about reducing information and more about interpreting it.

clinical practice guidelines - ANSWER- give specific recommendations for evidence- based decision making

care bundles - ANSWER- encompass a set of interventions to promote patient safety

major steps of EBP - ANSWER- 1. Ask questions that reflect uncertainties in clinical practice.

  1. Search for and assemble evidence.
  2. Appraise and synthesize evidence.
  3. Integrate evidence with other sources.
  4. Assess effectiveness of decision or advice.

PIO - ANSWER- population/ patients, intervention/ influence/ indicator, outcome

2 components of relevance in qualitative information - ANSWER- population and situation

PICO - ANSWER- Population Intervention Comparison Outcome

PICOT - ANSWER- Population Intervention Comparison Outcome Time

evidence quality - ANSWER- are the findings valid

magnitude of effects - ANSWER- to assess whether study findings are clinically important and meaningful

2 types of stimulus for an EBP endeavour - ANSWER- 1. Problem- focused triggers: the identification of a clinical practice problem in need of a solution

  1. knowledge focused triggers: new findings in the research literature

implementation potential - ANSWER- the extent to which an innovation is amendable to implementation in a new setting; an assessment of implementation potential is often made in an evidence- based practice project.

pilot test - ANSWER- a small scale study, or trial run, done in preparation for a major study, often to assess feasibility.

quality improvement - ANSWER- a systematic approach to making changes that improve clinical practice and health system performance, enhance professional and/ or organizational development, and improve patient and population health outcomes.

research - ANSWER- an undertaking which involves a systematic investigation to establish facts, principles, or generalizable knowledge.

efforts of quality improvement - ANSWER- the intervention or protocol can change as it is being evaluated

purpose of quality improvement - ANSWER- to effect immediate improvement in health care delivery

design of quality improvement - ANSWER- designed with the intent of sustaining an improvement

relationship of knowledge - ANSWER- research generates it, EBP translates it, QI incorporates it

key terms in quantitative research - ANSWER- subject, study participants, researcher, investigator, concept, construct, variables, data (numerical values), relationships (cause and effect), deductive reasoning

key terms in qualitative research - ANSWER- study participant, informant, key informant, researcher, investigator, concepts, phenomena, data (narrative description), patterns of association, inductive reasoning

phenomena - ANSWER- the abstract concept under study, often used by qualitative researchers in lieu of the term variable

Concepts - ANSWER- an abstraction based on observations of behaviours or characteristics

construct - ANSWER- a complex abstraction or concept that is invented by researchers based on inferences from human behaviour or human traits.

theory - ANSWER- - an abstract generalization that presents a systematic explanation about relationships among phenomena.

  • consists of two or more concepts and a set of logical connections, providing a tool for deducing hypotheses.

variable - ANSWER- an attribute that varies, that is, takes on different values (i.e. body, temperature, heart rate).

independent variable - ANSWER- presumed cause. the variable that is believed to cause or influence the dependent variable; in experimental research, the manipulated (treatment) variable, the dependent variable is both the "I" and "C" in the PICO framework.

Dependent (outcome) variable - ANSWER- presumed effect. the variable hypothesized to depend on or be caused by another variable (the independent variable); the outcome of interest.

conceptual definition - ANSWER- the theoretical meaning of a concept.

operational definition - ANSWER- indicates what the researchers specifically must do to measure the concept and collect needed information.

data - ANSWER- the pieces of information obtained in a study

quantitative data - ANSWER- numerical data

qualitative data - ANSWER- narrative descriptions

relationship - ANSWER- a connection between phenomena or variables

cause and effect relationship - ANSWER- a relationship between two variables wherein the presence or value of one variable determines the presence or value of the other.

experimental research - ANSWER- (quantitative research) researchers actively introduce an intervention or treatment; clinical trials

non- experimental research - ANSWER- researchers are bystanders or observers- they collect data without actively introducing treatments; observational research

grounded theory - ANSWER- seeks to describe and understand key social and psychological processes that occur in a social setting.

major component of grounded theory - ANSWER- the discovery of a core variable to explain what is going on in the social scene. Researchers strive to generate explanations of phenomena that are grounded in reality.

phenomenology - ANSWER- concerned with peoples lived experiences. An approach to thinking about what life experiences of people are like and what they mean

ethnography - ANSWER- the primary research tradition in anthropology, provides a framework for studying the patterns and lifeways of a defined cultural group in a holistic fashion. strive to learn from members of a cultural group, to understand their world view, and to describe their customs and norms.

naturalistic approach occurs in the - ANSWER- field

the source of knowledge that in most discipline is difficult to challenge - ANSWER- tradition

phase 1 of quantitative study - ANSWER- conceptual phase: creativity, deductive reasoning, and a grounded research evidence on the topic

Phase 2 of Quantitative Study - ANSWER- design and planning phase: researchers decide on the methods they will use to address the research questions

phase 3 of quantitative study - ANSWER- the empirical phase: collecting the research data

Phase 4 of Quantitative Study - ANSWER- analytic phase: data is subjected to analysis and interpretation

Phase 5 of Quantitative Study - ANSWER- dissemination phase: the questions posed at the outset are answered

hypothesis - ANSWER- state researchers expectations about specific relationships between study variables. Predictions of the relationships

research design - ANSWER- the overall plan for obtaining answers to the research questions. spells out the strategies that researchers adopt to answer their questions and test their hypotheses

sampling plan - ANSWER- specifies how the sample will be selected and how many subjects will be included

quantitative data collection approaches - ANSWER- self- reports, observations, biophysical measurements

emergent design - ANSWER- a design that unfolds in the course of a qualitative study as the researcher makes ongoing design decisions reflecting what has already been learned. evolves during data collection

Process of data collection - ANSWER- involves putting together related narrative information into a coherent picture

inductive research - ANSWER- researchers identify themes and categories, which are used t build a rich description or theory of the phenomenon.

saturation - ANSWER- occurs when the same themes and categories are reoccurring, such that no new information can be gleaned by further data collection.

qualitative research makes sampling decisions based on - ANSWER- saturation

quantitative research seek to collect high quality data by - ANSWER- measuring their data with standardized instruments that have been demonstrated to be accurate and valid

qualitative research instrument - ANSWER- researchers are the main data collection instrument and must take steps to demonstrate the trustworthiness of the data

journal articles - ANSWER- descriptions of studies published in professional journals

Format of research articles - ANSWER- IMRAD: intro/method/results and discussions, preceded by title, abstract and concludes with references

abstract - ANSWER- brief description of the study

introduction of a research article - ANSWER- describes 1. the central phenomena, issues, problems, concepts, variables. 2. study purpose/ research question/ hypothesis

  1. review of related literature 4. theoretical/ conceptual framework 5. significance and need for study

method section of research article - ANSWER- describes: 1. the research design 2. sampling plan 3. methods of measuring variables and collecting data 4. study procedures/ ethics 5. data analysis methods

results section of research article - ANSWER- presents the findings that were obtained by analyzing the study data

statistical tests - ANSWER- An analytic tool that estimates the probability that obtained results from a sample reflect true population values

value of calculated statistic - ANSWER- allows researchers to reach conclusions about their hypothesis

statistical significance - ANSWER- a term indicating that results from an analysis of sample data are unlikely to have been caused by chance, at a specific level of probability.

results section of qualitative study - ANSWER- presents the researchers emerging theory about the phenomenon under study.

discussion section of research article - ANSWER- researcher presents conclusions about the meaning and implications of the findings, what the results mean, why they turned out the way that they did. Discusses: 1. interpretation of results 2. clinical and research implications 3. study limitations and credibility of the results.

jargon - ANSWER- research terms that may be technical

critique - ANSWER- an objective assessment of a study's strengths and limitations. May include summary of the study's contribution, recommendations regarding the value of the evidence, and suggestions about improving the study or the report

inference - ANSWER- a conclusion drawn from the study evidence using logical reasoning and taking into account the methods used to generate that evidence.

scientific merit - ANSWER- criteria used to assess the quality of a study

Reliability - ANSWER- accuracy and consistency of information obtained in a study

validity - ANSWER- complex concept that broadly concerns the soundness of the study's evidence. An important criterion for evaluating methods to measure variables.

Trustworthiness - ANSWER- the degree of confidence QUALITATIVE researchers have in their data and analyses, assessed using the criteria of credibility, transferability, dependability, confirmability, and authenticity

credibility - ANSWER- the extent to which readers can be confident about the reported results being truthful and accurate.

Triangulation - ANSWER- the use of multiple sources or referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth.

bias - ANSWER- a distortion or influence that can lead to an error in inferences

systematic bias - ANSWER- results when the bias is consistent or uniform

research c - ANSWER- involves keeping the outcome variable constant so that the true relationship between the independent and outcome variables can be understood

cofounding variable - ANSWER- variables that are extraneous to the purpose of a specific study

randomness - ANSWER- having certain features of the study established by chance rather than by researcher preference

blinding - ANSWER- The process of preventing those involved in a study (participants, intervention agents, or data collectors) from having information that could lead to a bias, e.g., knowledge of which treatment group a participant is in; also called masking.

reflexivity - ANSWER- the process that involves critically and careful consideration about how personal values could affect data collection and interpretation

Generalizability - ANSWER- the criterion used in quantitative studies to assess the extent to which the findings can be applied to other groups and settings

Transferability - ANSWER- the extent to which qualitative findings can be transferred to other settings or groups; analogous to generalizability, as another aspect of trustworthiness

Belmont Report - ANSWER- ethical principles and guidelines for the protection of human subjects of research

three core principles for human research - ANSWER- respect for persons, concern for welfare and justice.

ethical dilemma - ANSWER- a situation in which there is a conflict between ethical considerations and the research methods needed to maximize the quality of the research methods needed to maximize the quality of study evidence.

Three ethical principles of the Belmont Report - ANSWER- beneficence, respect for human dignity, and justice

Beneficence - ANSWER- imposes a duty on researchers to minimize harm and maximize benefits.

Beneficence aspects - ANSWER- the right to freedom from harm and discomfort, the right to protection from exploitation.

Aspects of respect for human dignity - ANSWER- Right to self-determination (absence of coercion) Right to full disclosure (absence of deception or concealment)

full disclosure - ANSWER- the researcher has fully described the study, the person's right to refuse participation, and potential risks and benefits.

covert (concealment) data collection - ANSWER- collecting data without participants knowledge and thus without their consent.

deception - ANSWER- deliberately withholding information about the study or providing participants with false information.

Aspect of justice - ANSWER- includes participants right to fair treatment and their right to privacy.

the right to fair treatment - ANSWER- the equitable distribution of benefits and burdens of research. The selection of participants should be based on the research requirements and not on people's vulnerabilities.

risk/benefit assessment - ANSWER- An assessment designed to evaluate whether the benefits of participating in a study are in line with the costs.

informed - ANSWER- means the participants have adequate information about the study, comprehend the information, and have the power of free choice, enabling them to consent to or decline participation voluntarily.

consent form - ANSWER- a document signed by participants that includes information about the study purpose, specific expectations regarding participation, the voluntary nature of participation, and potential costs and benefits.

anon - ANSWER- the most secure means of protecting confidentiality, occurs when researchers can not link participants to their data.

confidentiality - ANSWER- a pledge that any information participants provide will not be publicly reported in a manner that identifies them and will not be made accessible to others.

debriefing - ANSWER- communication with study participants after participation is complete regarding aspects of the study.

vulnerable populations - ANSWER- special groups of people whose rights in studies need special protection because of their inability to provide meaningful informed consent or because their circumstances place them at higher than average risk of adverse effects.

types of vulnerable groups - ANSWER- children (under age of 7), mentally or emotionally disabled people, severely ill or physically disabled people, terminally ill, institutionalized people, pregnant women.

assent - ANSWER- child's affirmative agreement to participate

research ethics board - ANSWER- the institutional group that convenes to review proposed and ongoing studies with respect to ethical considerations.

research problem - ANSWER- arises from a condition, issue or subject area that is poorly understood

Research Statement - ANSWER- articulates the problem and an argument in a sentence that explains the need for the study

statement of purpose - ANSWER- The researcher's summary of the overall study goal. Establishes the general direction of the inquiry and captures the study's substance.

research question - ANSWER- the specific queries researchers want to answer. researchers indicate specific predictions about answers to research in hypotheses that are tested in the study.

research problem and paradigm in quantitative study - ANSWER- usually involve concepts that are well developed and methods of measurement that have been (or can be) developed.

research problem and paradigm in qualitative study - ANSWER- are undertaken because a researcher wants to develop a rich, context- bound understanding of a phenomenon

Components of a Problem Statement - ANSWER- problem identification, background, scope of the problem, consequences of the problem, knowledge gaps, proposed solution

research question in quantitative study - ANSWER- design their questions in terms of their variables

research question in qualitative study - ANSWER- stipulate the phenomenon and the population of interest. questions may change during the study. The question may be modified as new information makes it relevant to do so.

Hypothesis - ANSWER- a prediction, usually involving a predicted relationship between two or more variables. It offers direction and suggest explanations. They are never proved or disproved; rather, they are supported or rejected.

research hypothesis - ANSWER- usually state the expected relationship between the independent variable (the presumed cause or influence) and the dependent variable (the presumed outcome or effect) within a population

directional hypothesis - ANSWER- specifies the expected direction of the relationship between variables

non- directional hypothesis - ANSWER- does not specify the direction of the relationship

null hypothesis - ANSWER- state that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

statistical analysis - ANSWER- does not offer proof; it only supports inferences that a hypothesis is probably correct (or not).

primary purpose of literature review - ANSWER- to summarize evidence on a topic

primary source - ANSWER- original descriptions of studies written by the researchers who conducted them.

secondary source - ANSWER- research documents are descriptions of studies prepared by someone else.

thematic analysis - ANSWER- involves detecting patterns and regularities as well as inconsistencies

substantive themes - ANSWER- What is the pattern of evidence- How much evidence is there? How consistent is the evidence? How persuasive is the evidence? What are key gaps in the body of evidence?

methodologic themes - ANSWER- - What methods have been used to address the question?

  • What strategies have not been used?
  • What are the major deficiencies & strengths?

generalizability/ transferability themes - ANSWER- to what population does the evidence apply? do the findings vary for different types of people.

descriptive theory - ANSWER- explains and thoroughly describes a phenomenon. They are inductive, observation- based abstractions that describe or classify characteristics of individuals, groups, or situations by summarizing their commonalities

grand theories - ANSWER- claim to explain large segments of human experience

middle-range theories - ANSWER- attempt to explain such phenomena as stress, comfort, and health promotion

conceptual model - ANSWER- deals with abstractions (concepts) that are relevant to a common theme. Provide a conceptual perspective on interrelated phenomena, but they are more loosely structured than theories and do not link concepts in a logical deductive system

model - ANSWER- define a phenomenon with a minimal use of words, which can convey different meanings to different people

statistical models - ANSWER- are equations that mathematically express relationships among a set of variables and that are tested statistically.

schematic models (conceptual maps) - ANSWER- visually represent relationships among phenomena and are used in both qualitative and quantitative research.

framework - ANSWER- the conceptual foundation of a study

theoretical framework - ANSWER- study based on theory

conceptual framework - ANSWER- study based on a conceptual model

health promotion - ANSWER- entails activities directed towards developing resources that maintain or enhance a person's well- being

Transtheoretical Model - ANSWER- the core construct is stages of behavioural change, which conceptualizes a continuum of motivational readiness to change

Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory - ANSWER- focuses on the concept of uncertainty

  • the inability of a person to determine the meaning of illness-related events

Becker's Health Belief Model - ANSWER- framework for explaining people's health related behaviour, such as adherence with a medical regiment.

framework guided by phenmenologists - ANSWER- focuses their inquiry on certain aspects of a person's life world- that is, lived experiences

framework guided by ethnographers - ANSWER- bring cultural perspective to their studies, and their perspective shapes their fieldwork. cultural theories include ideational theories

ideational theories - ANSWER- suggest that cultural conditions are constructed by mental activity and ideas

materialistic theories - ANSWER- view material conditions as the source of cultural developments

theoretical underpinning of grounded theory - ANSWER- 1. humans act towards things based on the meaning that the things have for them. 2. the meaning of things is derived from the human interactions and 3. meanings are handled in, and modified through an interpretive process

grounded theory researchers - ANSWER- try to suspend prior substantive theory about phenomenon until they develop their own theory. the goal is to understand a phenomenon that is grounded on actual observations. Often develop conceptual maps to explain a process.

key design features of quantitative studies - ANSWER- intervention, comparisons, control over confounding variables, blinding, time frame, relative timing, location.

counterfactual - ANSWER- defined by what would happen to the same people if they were exposed and not exposed to a causative factor at the same time

criteria for establishing casual relationships - ANSWER- 1. temporal: a cause must precede an effect in time.

  1. relationship: there must be an association between the presumed cause and effect.
  2. confounders: the relationship can not be explained as being caused by a third variable.

biological plausibility - ANSWER- evidence from basic physiological studies that a casual pathway is possible.

best design to show casual relationships - ANSWER- randomized control trials

characteristics of true experiments or RCTs - ANSWER- 1. intervention- the experimenter does something to some participants by manipulating the independent variable

  1. control- the experimenter introduces a control group that does not receive the intervention
  2. randomization- the experimenter assigns participants to a control or experimental condition on a random basis

pretest-posttest design - ANSWER- involves observing the outcome before and after intervention

control group - ANSWER- refers to a group of participants whose performance on an outcome is used to evaluate the performance of the experimental group on the same outcome

randomization (random assignment) - ANSWER- every participant has an equal chance of being included in the group. there is no systemic bias with regard to their characteristics that may affect the outcome

posttest- only design - ANSWER- involves randomizing people to different groups and then measuring outcomes

often called baseline - ANSWER- involves collecting pretest data on the outcome before the intervention and posttest data after it.

cross over design - ANSWER- involves exposing people to one treatment first and then cross over to another treatment

placebo - ANSWER- pseudointervention presumed to have to therapeutic value

attention control condition - ANSWER- the control group gets attention but not the intervention's active ingredients

Advantages of RCTs - ANSWER- 1.Gold standard of study designs (Utilizes scientific method, Observable, measurable, repeatable, and tests a hypothesis) 2.Used to compare the efficacy of two different treatment regimens 3.Most likely to demonstrate cause and effect relationships

limitations of RCTs - ANSWER- 1. many variables are not suitable for intervention ie. human traits

  1. many variables could technically; but not ethically, be manipulated experimentally
  2. many etiology questions cannot e answered using an experimental design
  3. practical issues: secure administrative approval

quasiexperiments - ANSWER- the implementation of an intervention without randomization, the signature of a true experiment. sometimes lack a control group. people are not randomized to groups, which causes it to be a weaker design because it cannot be assumed that the experimental and comparison group are equivalent at offset.

nonequivalent control group design - ANSWER- pretest-posttest design, which involves comparing 2 or more groups of people before and after implementing an intervention

comparison group - ANSWER- refer to the group against which outcomes in the treatment group are evaluated.

time- series design - ANSWER- involves collecting data over an extended time period and introducing the treatment during that period.

strength of quasiexperiments - ANSWER- 1. practicality

  1. occurs in natural setting
  2. because they are not randomized, people are more willing to participate

limitation of quasiexperiment - ANSWER- 1. casual inferences can not be made

  1. alternative plausible explanations can be used to interpret results

non- experimental (observational studies) - ANSWER- researchers do not intervene by controlling the independent variable

when observational studies are used - ANSWER- situations in which the independent variable cannot be manipulated or should not be manipulate for ethical reasons.

correlation study - ANSWER- examines relationships between variables. investigators do not control the independent variable, which has already often occurred.

Correlation - ANSWER- An association or relationship between two (or more) variables, that is, a tendency for change in one variable to be related to change in another.

cohort design (prospective design) - ANSWER- observational studies start with a presumed cause and then go forward to the presumed effect

retrospective design - ANSWER- correlation study, an effect (outcome) observed in the present is linked to a potential cause occurring in the past

case- control design - ANSWER- cases with a certain condition are compared to controls without it. researchers try to identify controls as similar as possible to cases with regard to confounding variables (i.e. age, gender)

descriptive research - ANSWER- the purpose is to observe, describe and document aspects of a situation. prevalence of certain behaviours

descriptive correlation - ANSWER- researchers seek to describe relationships among variables, without inferring casual connections.

Advantages of Nonexperimental Research - ANSWER- efficient way to collect large amounts of data when intervention and/or randomization is not possible

disadvantages of nonexperimental studies - ANSWER- 1. do not provide persuasive evidence for casual inferences

  1. researchers cannot assume that the comparison groups were similar before the occurrence of the independent variable

cross- sectional designs - ANSWER- data is collected at one point in time. data on the independent and outcome variables are collected at the same time, but the independent variable usually concerns events or behaviours occurring in the past. Used to study time- related phenomena. Pose problems for inferring changes over time

longitudinal design - ANSWER- involve collecting data multiple times over an extended period. Useful for studying changes over time and for establishing the sequencing of phenomena, which is a criterion for inferring casuality. Are often the follow up study of a

clinical population, undertaken to assess subsequent status of people with a specified condition or who received an intervention

attrition - ANSWER- the loss of participants over the course of a longitudinal study

homogeneity - ANSWER- only people who are similar with respect to the confounding variables are included in the study

Four aspects of a study's validity - ANSWER- statistical conclusion validity, internal validity, external validity, construct validity

statistical validity - ANSWER- statistical tests are used to support inferences about whether such a relationship exists

statistical power - ANSWER- the capacity to detect true relationships, affects the validity of statistical conclusion

internal validity - ANSWER- the extent that the independent variable is assumed t cause the outcome

threat to validity - ANSWER- competing explanations for what is causing the outcome

threats to validity - ANSWER- 1. selection threat: brings about bias due to pre existing differences

  1. history threat: the occurrance of events concurrent with the independent variable
  2. maturation threat: arises from processes occurring as a result of time rather than the independent variable
  3. mortality/ attrition: the threat that arises from attrition in groups being compared.

attrition bias - ANSWER- is a selection bias that occurs after the study unfolds

external validity - ANSWER- concerns inferences about whether relationships found for study participants might hold true for different people and settings

important concept of external validity - ANSWER- replication due to how multi site studies are powerful because of generalizability of the results can be enhanced if its been replicated in several sites.

construct validity - ANSWER- involves making inferences from the particulars of the study to the higher order constructs they are intended to represent. One aspect concerns the degree to which an intervention is a good representation of the construct that have the potential to cause beneficial outcomes.

sampling plan - ANSWER- specifies in advance how participants will be selected and how many to include. (Quantitative research)

population - ANSWER- entire group of interest

eligibility criteria - ANSWER- researchers establish criteria to determine whether a person qualifies as a member of the population (inclusion criteria) or should be excluded (exclusion criteria)

accessible population - ANSWER- the portion of the target population that is accessible or available to the researcher

target population - ANSWER- the entire population of interest

sampling - ANSWER- involves selecting a portion of the population to represent the population

sample - ANSWER- a subset of population elements

the elements - ANSWER- (basic units) are usually humans

representative sample - ANSWER- on whose characteristics are closely matched with those of the population

sampling bias - ANSWER- systematic overrepresentation or underrepresentation of some segment of the population in terms of key characteristics

strata - ANSWER- mutually exclusive segments of a population based on a specific characteristic. Can be used in sample selection to enhance the sample's representatives

non-probability sampling - ANSWER- researchers select people into a study by non- random methods, and not everyone have the same chance to be included. samples are rarely representative of the population- some segment of the population is likely to be underrepresented.

convenience sampling - ANSWER- entails selecting the most conveniently available people as participants

quota sampling - ANSWER- researchers identify population strata and figure out how many people are needed from each stratum. by using information, researchers can ensure that diverse segments are represented in the sample

consecutive sampling - ANSWER- a non- probability sampling method that involves recruiting all people from an accessible population over a specific time interval or for a specified sample size

purposive sampling - ANSWER- involves using researchers knowledge about the population to handpick sample members. this method can lead to bias.

probability sampling - ANSWER- involves random selection of elements from a population. Each element in the population has an equal, independent chance of being selected. The only viable method of representative samples

simple random sampling - ANSWER- researchers establish a sampling frame- a list of population elements. unlikely to be biased. there is o guarantee of a representative sample, but random selection guarantees the differences between the sample and the population are purely function of chance.

stratified random sampling - ANSWER- the population is first divided into 2 or more strata, from which elements are randomly selected, purpose is to enhance representation

systematic sampling - ANSWER- the selection of every Kth case from a list, such as every 10th person

sampling error - ANSWER- the difference between population values and sample values

power analysis - ANSWER- researchers can estimate how large their samples should be for testing their research hypotheses. the estimate might be based on prior research (in quantitative studies).

sampling strategy in research reports should describe: - ANSWER- type of sampling approach, population and eligibility criteria, sample size, description of samples main characteristics

response rates - ANSWER- the number of people participating in a study relative to the number of people sampled

3 types of data to gather in developing data collection plans: - ANSWER- self- reports, observations, biophysical measures

self reports (patient reported outcome) - ANSWER- are participants responses to researchers questions such as in an interview. most common data collection approach

structured self- report data are collected with: - ANSWER- the instrument is an interview schedule when the questions are ones are asked orally face to face or by telephone, and a questionnaire when respondents complete the instrument themselves.

scale - ANSWER- a device that assigns a numeric score to people along a continuum

likert scale - ANSWER- consist of several declarative statements that express a viewpoint on a topic. respondents are asked to indicate how much they agree or disagree with the statement

summated rating scales/ composite scales - ANSWER- a person's total score is the sum of item scores

Visual Analog Scale (VAS) - ANSWER- a straight line and the end anchors are labelled as the extreme limits of the sensation being measured. people mark a point on the line corresponding to the amount of sensation experienced

response set bias - ANSWER- the measurement error resulting from the tendency of some individuals to respond to items in characteristic ways (e.g. always agreeing), independently of item content

social responsibility response set bias - ANSWER- a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits by giving answers that are consistent with normal social views

extreme response set bias - ANSWER- tendency to consistently express extreme attitudes or feelings, leading to distortions because extreme responses may be unrealted to the trait being measured

acquiescence response set bias - ANSWER- a tendency of some people to agree with statements regardless of their content

weakness of self report - ANSWER- validity and accuracy

observational methods - ANSWER- can be used to gather such information: patient conditions, verbal communication, non- verbal communication, activities, environmental conditions. It can be focused on defined events or on small, specific behaviours.

reactivity - ANSWER- behavioural distortion due to known presence of an observer. May cause people to behave atypical.

method of structured observation - ANSWER- a category system, check list, rating scale

category system - ANSWER- records events of interest that happened within a setting systematically.

Checklist - ANSWER- instrument observer uses to record observations. the checklist is formatted with a list of behaviours from the category system on the left and a space for tallying the frequency or duration on the right.

rating scale - ANSWER- An instrument that requires observers to rate phenomena along a descriptive continuum

time sampling - ANSWER- involves selecting time periods during which observations will occur.

observational sampling - ANSWER- means of obtaining representative examples of the behaviors being observed

event sampling - ANSWER- researchers select appropriate events to observe

advantages of observational methods - ANSWER- intrinsic appeal for directly capturing behaviours

disadvantages of observational methods - ANSWER- possible reactivity when the observer is conspicuous, and the vulnerability of observations to bias

types of Biophysical Measures - ANSWER- in vivo and in vitro measurement

in vivo measures - ANSWER- measurements are those performed directly within or on living organisms, such as blood pressure and body temperature measurement.

in vitro measures - ANSWER- data are gathered from participants by extracting biophysiologic material from them and subjecting it to analysis by laboratory technicians. includes chemical, microbiologic, and cytologic/ histologic measures

anthromorphic measures - ANSWER- body mass index and waist circumference

Biophysical Measures - ANSWER- are accurate and precise, are objective, cannot be distorted by patients. provide valid measures of targeted variables

measurement - ANSWER- involves assigning numbers to represent the amount of an attribute present in a person or object

psychmetrics - ANSWER- the branch of psychology concerned with the theory and methods of psychological measurements. when a new measure is developed, the developers undertake a psychometric assessment to evaluate its measurement properties

Reliability - ANSWER- is the extent to which scores are free from measurement error. Also, as the extent to which scores for people who have not changed are the same for repeated measurements. Reliability concern consistency- the absence of variation

test- retest reliabilty - ANSWER- replication takes the form of administering a measure to the same people on two occasions

stability or reproducibility - ANSWER- the extent to which similar scores can be reproduced on a repeated administration

interrater reliability assessment - ANSWER- involves having 2 or more observers independently applying the measure to the same people to see if the scores are consistent across raters

internal consistency - ANSWER- the degree to which the items on an instrument are interrelated and are measuring the same attribute or dimension, usually as evaluated using coefficient alpha; a measurement within the reliability domain

validity - ANSWER- the degree that an instrument is actually measuring the construct it supposes to measure.

4 aspects of measurement validity - ANSWER- face, content, criterion and construct validity

face validity - ANSWER- refers to whether the instrument looks like it is measuring the target construct

content validity - ANSWER- defined as the extent that an instrument's content adequately captures the construct-that is, whether a composite instrument has an appropriate sample of items to measure the construct.

criterion validity - ANSWER- the extent to which the scores on a measure are a replication of a gold standard- a criterion is considered an ideal measure of the construct

2 types of criterion validity - ANSWER- concurrent and predictive

concurrent validity - ANSWER- assessed when the measurements of the criterion and the focal instrument of interest occur at the same time

predictive validity - ANSWER- the focal measure is tested a criterion that is measured in the future

construct validity - ANSWER- the degree to which a measures score represent the construct. typically involves hypothesis testing

known- groups validity - ANSWER- tests hypotheses about a measures ability to discriminate between two or more groups known to differ with regard to the construct of interest.

emergent design - ANSWER- a design that unfolds in the course of a qualitative study as the researcher makes ongoing design decisions reflecting what has already been learned

characteristics of qualitative research design - ANSWER- - flexible, involves triangulation of various data collection strategies, holistic, researchers are more involved and reflexive, benefits from ongoing data analysis to guide subsequent strategies.

  • non- experimental
  • rarely uses blinding
  • do not conceptualize studies based on dependent and independent variables
  • do not make group comparisons
  • collects data in naturalistic settings

goal of qualitative research - ANSWER- to develop a rich understanding of a phenomenon as it exists and as it is constructed by individuals within their own context

time frame of qualitative research - ANSWER- cross- sectional, one data collection point, OR longitudinal with multiple data collection points

Ethnography - ANSWER- involves the description and interpretation of a culture and cultural behaviour

culture - ANSWER- refers to the way a group of people live- the patterns of human activity and the values and norms that give activity significance.

macroethnography - ANSWER- broadly defined cultures

focused ethnography - ANSWER- focused on more narrowly defined cultures, studies of small units in a group or culture

emic perspective - ANSWER- Refers to the way the members of the culture regard their world-the insiders' view

etic perspective - ANSWER- the perspective of the outside observer of the cultures experiences

3 broad types of information sought by ethnographers - ANSWER- cultural behaviour, cultural artefacts, cultural speech

ethnonursing research - ANSWER- the study and analysis of the local or indigenous people''s viewpoints, beliefs and practices about nursing care behaviour and processes of designated cultures

autoethnography or insider research - ANSWER- involves self scrutiny (including examining groups or cultures to which researchers themselves belong to). The drawback is that an "insider" may have biases about certain issues or may be so entrenched in the culture that valuable data may get overlooked

phenomenology - ANSWER- an approach to understanding peoples everyday life experiences. investigate subjective phenomena and they believe critical truths about reality are grounded in people's lived experiences

main data source of phenomenology - ANSWER- in- depth conversations, involve small number of participants (10 or fewer). inquiry includes gathering information form

informants as well as efforts to experience the phenomenon through participation, observation and reflection.

2 types of phenomenology - ANSWER- descriptive and interpretive

descriptive phenomenology - ANSWER- Describes human experience Based on philosophy of Husserl Steps: bracketing, intuiting, analyzing, describing Bracketing (identifying and holding in abeyance preconceived views) May involve maintaining a reflexive journal

bracketing - ANSWER- refers to the process of identifying and withholding preconceived beliefs and opinions about the phenomenon under study

Intuiting - ANSWER- researchers maintain an openness to the meanings attributed to the phenomenon by those who have experienced it

interpretive phenomenology - ANSWER- interpreting and understanding- not just describing- human experience

hermeneutics - ANSWER- refers to the art and philosophy of interpreting the meaning of an object, such as text or work of art. Goal is to enter another's world and to discover the understandings found there

grounded theory - ANSWER- tries to account for people's actions form the perspective of those involved. seek to identify a main concern or problem and then to understand the behaviour designed to resolve the issue- the core variable

grounded theory methods - ANSWER- Glaser and Strauss (1967)- instructions does not begin with a focused research problem. The problem and process used to resolve it emerge from the data and are discovered during the study.

constant comparison - ANSWER- used to develop and refine theoretically relevant concepts and categories. Categories elicited from the data are constantly compared with data obtained earlier so that commonalities and variations can be detected. involves a sample of 20- 30 people

conceptual description - ANSWER- aimed at describing the full range of behaviour of what is occuring in the substantive area

constructivist grounded theory - ANSWER- Charmaz's aproach, the data collected and analyzed are acknowledged to be constructed from shared experiences and relationships between the researcher and the participants. data and analyses are viewed as social constructions