NYS EMT Exam Practice Test #1 90+ Questions with Answers 2023-2024, Exams of Health sciences

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NYS EMT Exam Practice Test #1 90+ Questions with

Answers 2023-

The role of the EMS Provider is to do all of the following except: a) perform primary assessment b) provide initial resuscitation c) provide definite diagnosis d) package patients for transportation - Correct answer c) provide definitive diagnosis In what position should an unconscious overdose patient be transported to a hospital? a) on their side, with feet elevated b) on their side c) seated, with head tilted back and legs elevated d) face down, with head elevated - Correct answer b) on their side Which of the following pieces of equipment is especially designed and useful for removing patients from heights or for carrying them over rough terrain or rubble? a) splint fram stretcher b) full spine board c) stokes basket d) D-ring stretcher - Correct answer c) stokes basket The prehospital care report (PCR) is considered to be: a) a part of the patient's hospital chart b) a matter of public record c) inadmissible in a court of law d) a research document only - Correct answer a) a part of the patient's hospital chart EMS providers must be certified to perform legally at their level of training. the NYS law that establishes this level is the: a) good samaritan law b) general municipal law c) medical license law d) public health law - Correct answer d) public health law If consent is refused by a conscious and mentally competent adult, that person CANNOT be treated without:

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a) consent from the immediate family b) a court of order c) consent from the police d) orders from medical control - Correct answer d) orders from medical control You are called to a rural home by the mother of a 4 year old girl. Upon arrival, you begin to treat a dog- bite wound on the girl's arm when the girl's father comes into the house and tells you to leave her alone. The mother asks you to continue your care of the child. Faced with the situation above, you should: a) separate both parents from the child and sort our the consent issues b) continue care of the girl in her mother's presence and notify police c) call the children services division of the state for permission to continue care d) immediately cease care of the child according to her father's wishes - Correct answer b) continue care of the girl in her mother's presence and notify police Providing care within the scope practice would be considered to be an accordance with: a) the sovereign immunity doctrine b) state law c) professional conduct d) institutional standards - Correct answer B) state law An accident victim who is a minor has blood spurting from the brachial artery. The parents are not present. Which one of the following actions should the EMS provider take? a) contact the receiving hospital by radio for permission to proceed with treatment b) get permission from the police to process with treatment c) take the child to the hospital but provide no treatment d) presume that parental consent is implied and proceed with treatment - Correct answer d) presume that parental consent is implied and proceed with treatment You are called to the residence of a 74-year-old female who has fallen and has a large area of ecchymosis on her left hip. You are met by a neighbor, who was caring for the patient while her daughter was out of town. The neighbor explains that the patient has a history of Alzheimer's and presents a NYS Department of Health Non-Hospital Order Not to Resuscitate (DNR) form. This patient is unable to communicate, so you should: a) contact medical control to have the DNR overridden b) treat the patient for a potential hip fracture c) explain to the neighbor that the patient cannot be treated since there is no one present to give informed consent

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d) explain to the neighbor that a DNR prevents the patient from being treated and suggest that the neighbor contact the issuing physician to have the order canceled - Correct answer b) treat the patient for a potential hip fracture approximately how many liters of blood does an adult male weighing 150 lbs have in his body? a) 3 liters b) 4 liters c) 6 liters d) 7 liters - Correct answer c) 6 liters An EMS provider responds to a call and finds an 80-year-old female with no pulse or respirations. The patient has a history of terminal brain cancer. The family states that the last time she was seen alive was just 5 minutes prior calling EMS. They also state that the patient has a DNR order. In New York State, EMS personnel may accept which of the following DNR instruments as valid? a) Verbal request from the family b) Written nonhospital DNR c) Written healthcare proxy d) Written living will - Correct answer b) written nonhospital DNR the opposite of distal is: a) superior b) medial c) lateral d) proximal - Correct answer d) proximal The alveoli of the lungs are in close contact with the: a)Diaphragm b) Main-stem bronchus c) Pulmonary capillaries d) Pulmonary arteries - Correct answer c) pulmonary capillaries The tubelike anatomical structure that carries air from the throat to the lungs is the: a) Pharynx b) Larynx c) Trachea d) Esophagus - Correct answer c) trachea

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The smooth glistening membranous sac in the body that surrounds each lung is called the: a) Pleura b) Diaphragm c) Mesentery d) Peritoneum - Correct answer a) pleura The oropharyngeal airway is MOST APPROPRIATELY used in a/an: a) Conscious patient who is breathing spontaneously b) Unconscious patient with and upper airway obstruction c) Unconscious patient being ventilated by a bag-valve-mask d) Patient with trauma to the mouth - Correct answer c) unconscious patient being ventilated by a bag- value-mask You are suctioning a trauma patient who has large blood clots present in the mouth. You should: a) Use alcohol to clear blood clots from the suction tip b) Insert the suction tip with the vacuum on c) Sweep the clots out of the mouth before suctioning d) Ensure that your suction unit does not exceed 200 mm Hg of negative pressure - Correct answer c) Sweep the clots out of the mouth before suctioning Which liter flow is INAPPROPRIATE for oxygen administration via a nasal cannula? a) 1-2 liters/minute b) 3-1 liters/minute c) 5-6 liters/minute d) 7-8 liters/minute - Correct answer d) 7-8 liters/minute Food and liquids are prevented from entering the trachea by the: a) Epiglottis b) Diaphragm c) Pharynx d) Larynx - Correct answer a) epiglottis In caring for a non-breathing patient with a stoma or tracheotomy tube, the EMS Provider must: a) Use a nasopharyngeal airway b) Use extra force with each ventilation c) Cover the neck opening d) Ventilate through the neck opening - Correct answer d) Ventilate through the neck opening

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When you arrive at a scene of a motor vehicle accident, your FIRST concern must be: a) Protect the scene from oncoming traffic b) Ensure your own safety c) Gain access to victims d) Secure and stabilize the vehicle or vehicles involved - Correct answer b) Ensure your own safety While assessing the mechanism of injury at the motor vehicle crash, an EMS Provider notice that the airbag has been deployed. The EMS Provider should: a) Decontaminate the patient b) Remove airbag c) Disconnect the battery d) Lift the airbag and check underneath for damage - Correct answer d) Lift the airbag and check underneath for damage In people whose skin is darkly pigmented, cyanosis is BEST seen by observing: a) Mucosal membranes b) Earlobes c) Scalp d) Face - Correct answer a) Mucosal membranes A 65-year-old male was involved in a two-car motor vehicle crash. Upon examination, he complains of chest pain when breathing and tenderness of the sternum. Your INITIAL care should include: a) Stabilizing the sternum b) Positioning the patient on his side c) Administering high-concentration oxygen d) Administering the patients prescribed nitroglycerin - Correct answer c) Administering high- concentration oxygen In assessing a pediatric trauma patients capillary refill time, an abnormal finding would be a refill time, an abnormal finding would be a refill time of: a) Greater than 5 seconds b) Less than 2 seconds c) Greater than 2 seconds d) Greater than 4 seconds - Correct answer c) Greater than 2 seconds A patient with acute respiratory distress requiring oxygen therapy is LEAST likely to exhibit: a) A slow pulse rate

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b) Anxiety c) Nasal flaring d) Intercostal muscle retractions - Correct answer a) A slow pulse rate In an unstable patient, the primary assessment should be repeated at least every: a) 2 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 15 minutes - Correct answer b) 5 minutes When you take a pulse of a patient, you are really: a) Counting the pressure waves of blood that the heart sends through an artery b) Feeling the swelling of the vein as each wave of blood passes back to the heart c) Noting the heartbeats in the column of blood in a large vein d) Feeling the vibration of the heart as they push the blood through the blood vessels - Correct answer a) Counting the pressure waves of blood that the heart sends through an artery A patient is found lying supine along a roadside. There are no witnesses to describe what happened. Which of the following steps should be done FIRST? a) Search for an emergency medical identification card or tag b) Asset for unresponsiveness c) Provide oxygen and ventilate d) Open the airway with a head tilt/chin lift maneuver - Correct answer b) Asset for unresponsiveness For a trauma victim with a respiratory rate of 40/min, shallow and irregular, who is pale and has a history of emphysema, the MOST APPROPRIATE treatment would be to: a) Use a bag-valve-mask with supplemental oxygen b) Administer low-concentration oxygen because of the emphysema history c) Administer supplemental oxygen with a high-concentration mask d) Transport the patient sitting up to ease the patients dyspnea - Correct answer a) Use a bag-valve- mask with supplemental oxygen The most reliable early indicator used to assess a patients overall condition is the patients a) Ability to sense your touch b) Pupillary reaction c) Mental status d) Ability to move - Correct answer c) Mental status

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In assessing a trauma patient, an EMS Provider should consider the patients past: a) Genetic history b) Social history c) Medical history d) Family history - Correct answer c) Medical history All of the following are considered signs EXCEPT: a) Rapid pulse b) Vomiting c) Nausea d) Cyanosis - Correct answer c) nausea The diastolic blood pressure is the level of pressure present during: a) Cardiac tamponade b) The inspiratory phase of respiration c) Relaxation of the heart d) Contraction of the heart - Correct answer c) Relaxation of the heart Systolic blood pressure indicates the pressure when the: a) Atria are contracting b) Atria are relaxing c) Ventricles are contracting d) Ventricles are relaxing - Correct answer c) Ventricles are contracting If life-threatening conditions are identified during the Secondary Assessment, the EMS provider should IMMEDIATELY: a) Repeat the Primary Assessment b) Take a set of vital signs c) Begin transportation efforts d) Provide life-saving interventions - Correct answer d) Provide life-saving interventions If the EMS Provider conducting a patient assessment discovers eye pupils of unequal size, he/she should suspect: a) Head injury b) Cardiac arrest c) Drug addiction

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d) Neurogenic shock - Correct answer a) Head injury In performing a reassessment on a 10-year-old pedestrian struck by a motor vehicle, the EMS Providers first step is to: a) Recheck the patients vital signs b) Repeat the Primary Assessment c) Check the interventions d) Repeat a rapid assessment - Correct answer b) Repeat the Primary Assessment The central nervous system consists of the: a) Brain and peripheral nerves b) Brain and spinal cord c) Spinal cord and autonomic functions d) Spinal cord and peripheral nerves - Correct answer b) Brain and spinal cord Which of the following usually follows a convulsion? a) Hypotension b) Hyperexcitability c) Return to normality d) Drowsiness - Correct answer d) drowsiness The signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Hives b) Difficulty breathing c) Low blood pressure d) High blood pressure - Correct answer d) High blood pressure Which one of the following symptoms is NOT an early signal of anaphylaxis? a) Itching b) Swelling of the eyelids c) Seizures d) Tightening in the chest - Correct answer c) seizures Autoinjectors for anaphylactic patients contain: a) Albuterol b) Nitroglycerin c) Epinephrine

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d) Furosemide (Lasix) - Correct answer c) epinepeherine A sudden-onset altered mental status with a history of diabetes will exhibit which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a) Slow pulse and warm and dry skin b) Rapid pulse and warm dry skin c) Rapid pulse and cool and clammy skin d) Slow pulse and cool clammy skin - Correct answer c) Rapid pulse and cool and clammy skin A 28-year-old patient presents supine on the floor, unconscious, unresponsive, and with snoring respirations at a rate of 6 per minute. Bystanders report that the patient is diabetic, takes no medications, and may have ingested heroin half an hour prior to the EMS Providers arrival. After opening the patients airway, the EMS provider should: a) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 liters/minute and administer syrup of ipecac b) Administer oral glucose and administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 liters/minute c) Only administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 liters/minute d) Insert an airway adjunct and ventilate with 100% oxygen using a bag-valve-mask - Correct answer d) Insert an airway adjunct and ventilate with 100% oxygen using a bag-valve-mask A patient with a history of diabetes has an altered mental status due to diabetic emergency. The EMS provider should: a) Administer a sugar concentrate, if there is no danger that the patient will aspirate b) Encourage the patient to take insulin solution orally, if there is no danger that the patient will aspirate c) Administer a sugar concentrate by mouth to and unconscious patient only d) Defer all treatment and transport the patient to the hospital - Correct answer a) Administer a sugar concentrate, if there is no danger that the patient will aspirate A diabetic emergency with a rapid onset is due to: a) Too much insulin b) Too little insulin c) Excessive food intake d) Excessive fluid intake - Correct answer a) Too much insulin Which of the following result(s) from hypoglycemia? a) Tremors caused by excessive glucose in the urine b) Drowsiness and confusion caused by lack of glucose to the brain c) Dry skin caused by polyuria

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d) Fruity odor to breath caused by severe acidosis - Correct answer b) Drowsiness and confusion caused by lack of glucose to the brain A sign or symptom of decreased oxygen to the heart muscle is: a) Warm red skin b) Unconsciousness c) Chest pain d) Extremity paralysis - Correct answer c) chest pain Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic finding in a patient who is having a heart attack? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Weakness c) Unequal pupils d) Sweating - Correct answer c) Unequal pupils An EMS provider is called to the home of a 75-year-old man who complains of crushing substernal chest pain which began 1 hour ago while eating lunch. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets with no relief. The EMS Provider should suspect: a) Angina pectoris b) Cardiogenic shock c) Congestive heart failure d) Myocardial infarction - Correct answer d) Myocardial infarction A female patient with chest pain tells you that she regularly takes nitroglycerin and "water pills," and that she has to sleep propped up on three pillows. Your treatment should include: a) Administering a nitroglycerin tablet b) Taking a set of vital signs and transporting to hospital c) Administering oxygen via non-rebreather d) Placing patient in position of comfort and transport - Correct answer c) Administering oxygen via non- rebreather The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs is the: a) Left ventricle b) Right atrium c) Right ventricle d) Left ventricle - Correct answer c) Right ventricle

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The chamber of the heart that is the most muscular is the: a) Right atrium b) Left ventricle c) Right ventricle d) Left atrium - Correct answer b) Left ventricle The blood vessel that transports blood from the capillaries of the lungs to the heart is referred to as the: a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta c) Superior vena cava d) Pulmonary vein - Correct answer d) Pulmonary vein A 52-year-old male is complaining of breathing difficulty and left arm pain radiating to the right jaw. Vital signs are BP < 90/60 P = 120, R = 24. The patient should be administered a) Low concentration oxygen and should be placed lying down b) High concentration oxygen and should be positioned with legs raised c) High concentration oxygen and should be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing d) Low concentration oxygen and should be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing - Correct answer c) High concentration oxygen and should be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing The walls of which of the following blood vessels permit oxygen to be exchanged for carbon dioxide and other waste materials? a) Capillaries b) Venules c) Veins d) Arteries - Correct answer a) Capillaries What is the name for the vessels that carry blood away from the heart to the rest of the body? a) Venules b) Veins c) Arteries d) Capillaries - Correct answer c) arteries What acute disorder of the cardiovascular system is caused by a sudden blockage of the coronary arteries? a) Angina pectoris b) Myocardial infarction

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c) Chronic heart failure d) Stroke - Correct answer b) Myocardial infarction A child drank some unknown fluid. You arrive at the scene and note the following signs: the child's mouth and lips are a reddish color, and the child is coughing and gagging. You assess and manage the ABC's and begin transport. What should you do next? a) Administer syrup of ipecac and activated charcoal b) Administer syrup of ipecac c) Administer activated charcoal d) Contact medical control for direction - Correct answer d) Contact medical control for direction What do bluish mucous membranes in a patient suggest? a) Hepatitis b) Compensated shock c) Hypoxia d) Frostbite - Correct answer c) hypoxia To help a person who is breathing difficulty, the EMS provider should: a) Administer nitroglycerin b) Make the patient lie down c) Administer oxygen d) Administer epinephrine - Correct answer c) Administer oxygen Proper care for a conscious victim of a respiratory emergency is: a) Placing the patient in a prone position b) Assisting the patient with his/her inhaler c) Assisting the patient with his/her nitroglycerin d) Suctioning of lung fluids to relieve edema - Correct answer b) Assisting the patient with his/her inhaler Which of the following blood components combats infection? a) Red blood cell b) Plasma c) White blood cell d) Platelet - Correct answer c) White blood cell The function of the red blood cells is to: a) Produce coagulation factors

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b) Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide c) Ingest bacteria d) Reproduce white blood cells - Correct answer b) Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide When performing CPR of an infant, the MINIMUM rate if chest compressions is at least: a) 80 per minute b) 100 per minute c) 130 per minute d) 150 per minute - Correct answer b) 100 per minute To perform external cardiac chest compressions on a 4-year-old child, you should use the: a) Tips of the fingers b) Thumbs of both hands c) Heel of one hand d) Palm of one hand - Correct answer c) heel of one hand If gastric distention occurs in a victim as a result of positive-pressure ventilation, the FIRST action the rescuer should take is to: a) Keep the victims head and shoulders lower than the chest b) Keep the victims head and shoulders higher than the chest c) Give five abdominal thrusts to expel the air d) Ensure proper tidal volume for visible chest rise - Correct answer d) Ensure proper tidal volume for visible chest rise Keeping the heel of the hand lightly in contact with the chest during the relaxation phase of chest compression is important because: a) Stomach distention can be prevented b) Correct hand position can be maintained c) Full expansion of the chest can be avoided d) The pressure enhances cardiac contraction - Correct answer b) Correct hand position can be maintained Shock I said to exist whenever there is: a) An acute infection b) An allergic reaction c) A heart problem d) Inadequate tissue perfusion - Correct answer d) Inadequate tissue perfusion

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Which one of the following statements concerning the performance of CPR is CORRECT? a) Compression and chest recoil/relaxation times should be approximately equal b) Quick jabs are effective in providing pulses of blood to their brain c) Seventy percent of the cycle should be compression and thirty percent of the cycle should be relaxation d) Quick jabs produce jets of blood flow out of the heart and enhance stroke volume - Correct answer a) Compression and chest recoil/relaxation times should be approximately equal The landmark for external cardiac compression on an infant should be: a) At the sternal notch b) Just above the nipple line c) Just below the nipple line d) The upper half of the sternum - Correct answer c) Just below the nipple line While performing CPR on an average adult in cardiac arrest, the proper depth of compression is: a) As deep as the EMS Provider is able to push b) At least 3 inches c) At least 2 inches d) Irrelevant as depth does not matter - Correct answer c) at least 2 inches What is the PRIMARY sign indicating the need for CPR? a) Absence of movement b) Constriction of the pupils c) Absence of a pulse d) Loss of consciousness - Correct answer c) absence of a pulse When should the ventilator deliver the breath during two-rescuer adult CPR with an unprotected airway? a) During the fifteen compression b) After the fifteen compression c) During the thirtieth compression d) After the thirtieth compression - Correct answer d) After the thirtieth compression Which of the following burns would be categorized as critical in an adult? a) Superficial burns involving the total surface area of the back b) Full-thickness burns involving the total surface area of both hands c) Partial-thickness burns involving the total surface area of the anterior aspect of the thigh

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d) Partial-thickness burns involving both upper arms - Correct answer b) Full-thickness burns involving the total surface area of both hands Two life-threatening complications which may be encountered in a patient with a cervical spinal cord injury are: a) Paralysis if the facial muscles and of the diaphragm b)Paralysis of the neck muscles and a ruptured diaphragm c) Neurogenic shock and a ruptured diaphragm d) Inadequate breathing effort and neurogenic shock - Correct answer d) Inadequate breathing effort and neurogenic shock A patient is lying unconscious, face down in a swimming pool, with a possible neck injury. After scene size-up, the EMS provider should: a) Turn the patient b) Stabilize the neck with his/her arms while rolling the patient over and securing a patent airway c) Backboard the patient in the position found and remove the patient from the water d) Turn the patient over immediately, extend the neck to clear the airway, and prepare to float a backboard under the patient - Correct answer b) Stabilize the neck with his/her arms while rolling the patient over and securing a patent airway To extricate from an automobile a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury, which of the following mechanical aids should be employed FIRST? a) Soft cervical collar b) Long backboard c) Rigid cervical collar d) Short backboard - Correct answer c) Rigid cervical collar In a condition in which spinal fluid leaks from a patients ear, proper treatment requires: a) An occlusive dressing b) A moist sterile dressing c) A lightly applied dressing d) Stopped the flow of fluid - Correct answer c) A lightly applied dressing Elevated systolic blood pressure, a slow and bounding pulse, and abdominal respirations in unconscious patient may indicate: a) Cardiac tamponade b) Tension pneumothorax

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c) Increased intracranial pressure d) A C3 or C4 fracture - Correct answer c) Increased intracranial pressure You receive a call for a "man down." The patient is unresponsive, pale, and cold to the touch, and has a very weak pulse. You should: a) move the patient's extremities to increase circulation b) Avoid rough handling and maintain body heat c) Rapidly rewarm the patient d) Delay transport until rewarming is complete - Correct answer b) Avoid rough handling and maintain body heat Regulation of normal temperature is PRIMARILY controlled by which organ? a) Pancreas b) Heart c) Thyroid d) Skin - Correct answer d) skin A 25-year-old woman is in active labor. The umbilical cord is presenting through the vagina. You would: a) Gently pull on the cord to facilitate normal birth, and administer oxygen b) Massage the uterus and time the contractions c) Try to replace the cord in the vagina, keep the mother flat, and transport d) Place the mother in a supine position with the hips elevated, administer oxygen, and transport - Correct answer d) Place the mother in a supine position with the hips elevated, administer oxygen, and transport during the normal delivery of a baby, the EMS Provider should support the baby's head with one hand to prevent an EXPLOSIVE delivery, and the other hand should be: a) On the sterile drape on one leg to prevent the mother from closing her legs during delivery b) On the mothers abdomen, pushing on her uterus to aid delivery and reduce bleeding c) Just below the vaginal opening with the fingers adjacent to the perineum but not touching it d) Holding a bulb syringe ready to section the baby's airway - Correct answer c) Just below the vaginal opening with the fingers adjacent to the perineum but not touching it Which of the following statements regarding the basic anatomy of the developing fetus is correct? a) The umbilical cord connects the fetus directly to the uterus b) The afterbirth is another name for the amniotic sac c) The fetus develops inside the placenta

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d) The fetus receives oxygen and nutrients from the placenta - Correct answer d) The fetus receives oxygen and nutrients from the placenta In which position should the mother be placed for delivery? a) Lying on a firm surface, with her knees drawn up and spread apart b) Sitting upright, with her legs fully extended and spread apart c) Sitting on a firm surface, with a pillow under her buttocks d) Lying on a firm surface, with her legs extended and raised above the level of the heart - Correct answer a) Lying on a firm surface, with her knees drawn up and spread apart If an infant is not responsive upon delivery, the EMS provider should: a) Perform a vigorous sternal rub on the infant b) Place the infant on the mothers abdomen c) Wrap the infants head, but not the face, with dry towels d) Flick the soles of the infants feet and rub the infants back - Correct answer d) Flick the soles of the infants feet and rub the infants back Immediately following delivery, in which order should you care for a newborn who is NOT breathing? a) Stimulate by slapping feet; suction; mouth-to-mask ventilation b) Suction; stimulate by slapping feet; mouth-to-mask ventilation c) Suction; mouth-to-mask ventilation; cut cord; stimulate by slapping feet d) Mouth-to-mask ventilation; stimulate by slapping feet; CPR - Correct answer a) Stimulate by slapping feet; suction; mouth-to-mask ventilation The MOST COMMON cause of seizures in children is: a) Fever b) Airway obstruction c) Epilepsy d) Hand injury - Correct answer a) fever You are the first EMS Provider to arrive on the scene of a head-on automobile accident where you find the following: Patient #1 appears to be intoxicated has pain in his right shoulder, and is belligerent toward the rescuers Patient #2 also appears to be intoxicated and is very slow in responding to questions. He has burns on his lower legs and feet from the car heater and complains 0f a pain in his back

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Patient #3 has an open wound to the brain, which is not bleeding, He has no pulse or respiration, and his chest pinned between the steering wheel and the seat Patient #4 has a laceration across the abdomen that is bleeding profusely, and a portion of the colon is protruding Which patient should be treated and transported FIRST? a) Patient # 1 b) Patient # c) Patient # d) Patient #4 - Correct answer d) Patient # According to the New York State Vehicle and Traffic Law, both emergency lights siren MUST be used whenever an ambulance: a) Carries a patient in cardiac arrest b) Passes a stopped school bus c) Proceeds through a railroad crossing d) Proceeds through a red light with due caution - Correct answer d) Proceeds through a red light with due caution While performing the scene size-up of a motor vehicle crash, an EMS Provider determined that there are more patients than the responding unit can effectively handle. The best plan is to: a) Initiate a mass casualty plan b) Begin extrication c) Start treating the first patient reached d) Begin treatment - Correct answer a) Initiate a mass casualty plan A car hit a utility pole and an electrical wire fell on top of the car. Upon arrival, the EMS Provider see three apparently uninjured people in the car. The EMS providers first action should be to: a) Tell the car's occupants to stay in the car b) Remove the drowned wire c) Set flares around the area d) Notify the utility company - Correct answer a) Tell the car's occupants to stay in the car

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When you arrive at the site of a tank-truck accident that has resulted in a chemical spill with a gaseous cloud, where should you position the emergency vehicle? a) In front of the spill b) To the side of the spill c) On the downwind side of the spill d) On the upwind side of the spill - Correct answer d) On the upwind side of the spill