OPOTA Exam 2024 | Actual Exam Questions and Answers | 400 Questions | Latest Version, Exams of Law

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OPOTA Exam 202 4 | Actual Exam Questions

and Answers | 400 Questions | Latest Version

Explain the relationship between a SPO and a test question ----CORRECT ANSWER---- -----A test question must respond directly to an SPO and every SPO may be the basis of a test question Explain the ultimate reason for law enforcement training ----CORRECT ANSWER--------- To be able to protect the life and property of yourself and the public List a peace officer's main goals ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Enforce the laws, preserve the peace, provide services, prevent crime, protect civil right and liberties Explain items to consider when exercising discretion ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- use sound judgment to determine which laws are to be formally enforced

• determine if there is a more constructive remedy without arrest or citation Explain the factors necessary for the commission of crime ----CORRECT ANSWER------ ---Desire- the motivation behind criminal behavior Victim- potential target, unaware of surroundings Opportunity- crime prevention strategies State the core concepts of community policing ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- partnership between community and police
• crime prevention
• organizational change of agency
• problem solving approach to police role is proactive Considerations for off duty situations ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Behavior - social media, uphold ethics Situational Awareness- be alert, pre plan, off duty weapon policy, be a good witness State the purpose of Bill of Rights ----CORRECT ANSWER---------protect a individual's freedoms

• prevent government from interfering in protected rights Describe the major components of the criminal justice system ----CORRECT ANSWER- --------Law Enforcement Courts - hold fair & impartial trials, guilt or innocence, Impose sentences Corrections - supervise offender Goals of Sentencing ----CORRECT ANSWER----------protect society
• punish offender/rehabilitate
• restore the victim Recognize the tenets of the Below 100 ----CORRECT ANSWER----------wear your seatbelt
• wear your vest
• WIN what's important now
• watch your speed
• complacency kills Lawful ----CORRECT ANSWER---------defined by laws and standards Criminal Law ----CORRECT ANSWER---------identifies what actions are prohibited Rules of Agency ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Administrative rules, general orders Constitutional Law ----CORRECT ANSWER---------amendments Police Legitimacy ----CORRECT ANSWER---------exists when the public view the police as authorized to exercise power in order to maintain social order, manage conflicts, and solve problems in community Judgement 1/ public trust and confidence in police as being honest, trying to do jobs well, and protecting community ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Result individuals are more likely to become actively involved in police community partnerships Judgment #

public willingness to defer the law and police authority ----CORRECT ANSWER--------- Result Correlation between those who obey and those who view police as legitimate, cooperate by reporting crimes and providing information Judgement # public belief that police actions are morally justified and appropriate ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Result citizens are more likely to cooperate and defer in moments of crisis circumstances when filming police officers is permissible ----CORRECT ANSWER-------- --one party consents

• as long as it does not interfere with officers carrying out their duties Race ----CORRECT ANSWER---------modern concept used to classify people by similar, observable physical characteristics Genetically influenced traits ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Skin color, hair, eye shape, blood type, intelligence connection between in / out groups, and police legitimacy ----CORRECT ANSWER------- --some people interpret their encounters with police in terms of their group's societal position rather than immediate circumstances of the police contact Types of Racism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------individual, interpersonal, institutional, structural Individual Racism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------internalized, unexpressed biases and prejudices based on race Interpersonal Racism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------occurs between individuals, public expressions of racial prejudice and hate institutional racism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------discriminatory policies and treatment by institutions

Structural Racism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Collective way of history, culture, power inequality, unequal access to opportunities Components of bias ----CORRECT ANSWER---------stereotypes, prejudice, attitude Stereotypes ----CORRECT ANSWER---------generalizations about the perceived typical characteristics of a social category Prejudice ----CORRECT ANSWER---------a often negative prejudgment based on characteristics such as race, age Attitude ----CORRECT ANSWER---------positive or negative feelings associated with individuals or groups Bias-based profiling ----CORRECT ANSWER----------Racial/illegal profiling

• unequal treatment by officers by stopping, questioning, searching, detaining on basis of their ethnicity Criminal profiling ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Based on observed behaviors and characteristics Two types of Bias ----CORRECT ANSWER---------explicit and implicit Explicit Bias ----CORRECT ANSWER---------conscious preference for a social category Implicit bias ----CORRECT ANSWER---------preference for a social category based on stereotypes that we hold and tend to develop in early life Two modes of thinking ----CORRECT ANSWER---------automatic (system 1) deliberative (system 2) System 1 thinking ----CORRECT ANSWER---------automatic, effortless, unconscious, very fast

System 2 thinking ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Conscious, controlled, effortful, slower practical purpose ----CORRECT ANSWER---------simplifies tasks which most adults do without having to systematically think about each step protection mechanism ----CORRECT ANSWER---------we evaluate everything we see to determine if threatening or not strategies to counter implicit biases ----CORRECT ANSWER----------Guarding against influence in decision making

• awareness
• know when you're susceptible ( in complete info, cognitive load, fatigue)
• slow down thinking
• empathetic
• effort (intention, attention, time) Two-pronged Approach to Procedural Justice ----CORRECT ANSWER---------person based approach community based model person based approach ----CORRECT ANSWER---------emphasizes the importance of face to face interactions between officer and a citizen Community based model ----CORRECT ANSWER---------ultimate goal is to achieve police legitimacy through entire society community bank account concept as it relates to procedural justice ----CORRECT ANSWER---------every encounter is either a deposit or withdrawal (increase or decrease public perception of police) four core principles of procedural justice ----CORRECT ANSWER---------giving others a voice, neutrality in decision making, respectful treatment, trustworthiness explain the generally accepted ethical responsibilities of officers ----CORRECT ANSWER----------owed to your community, citizens, profession, agency, family, yourself
• treat everyone professionally

• never allow cynicism, excessive force, perjury and accept gratuities External Influences on behavior ----CORRECT ANSWER---------relationships with family and friends, citizens, media, regulations, politics, subculture Internal influences on behavior ----CORRECT ANSWER---------officer's own ethical and moral beliefs, anger, greed, lust Denial of victim ----CORRECT ANSWER---------argue that violated party deserves to be victimized Denial of responsibility ----CORRECT ANSWER---------acted improperly because no other options Denial of injury ----CORRECT ANSWER---------argue that action did not hurt anyone so no ethical misconduct Social Weighting ----CORRECT ANSWER---------makes comparisons to justify unethical misconduct moral justification ----CORRECT ANSWER---------argues that it's necessary to break rules for the greater good Continuum of Compromise ----CORRECT ANSWER----------being exposed on a regular basis to "special authority" and at the same time being exposed on a daily basis to that element of society that operates without values, combines to severely challenge an officer's core values system
• can lead to a sense of entitlement where officers believe they are owed professional courtesy and that the rules don't apply to them acts of omission ----CORRECT ANSWER---------officer rationalize and justify not doing things they are responsible Acts of commission ----CORRECT ANSWER---------administrative violations

acts of commission ----CORRECT ANSWER----------criminal

• theft Rationalization ----CORRECT ANSWER---------nobody is being hurt, except for bad guys who deserve it anyway Steps in Decsion Making Model ----CORRECT ANSWER---------#1- Define problem #2- Identify alternative solutions #3- Evaluate alternatives #4- make the decision #5- implement the decision #6- evaluate the decision PLUS filters ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Policies Legal Universal Self identify the uses of field notes ----CORRECT ANSWER---------preservation of knowledge in written form, evidence in court, documentation of officer's efforts, aids in further investigation, foundation of formal written report types of information to be recorded in field notes ----CORRECT ANSWER---------• complete information on victims witnesses and suspects involved
• date time of offense or incident being reported
• location of occurrence
• type of place where offense or incident took place
• details of offense or incident being reported
• disposition of evidence property and subjects
• corresponding report number guidelines to be followed when taking field notes ----CORRECT ANSWER----------Head notebook page with day and time of shift
• Do not place information from one incident on the same page with information from another incident
• Write or print neatly so you can read and understand your notes later
• Record all information in ink
• Let victims and witnesses talk through the event before you start recording notes
• Ask clarifying follow-up questions
• Be as complete as possible

• Consider the use of electronic data device or template
• Do not record personal information in your notebook essential questions answered in a report ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Who, what, where, when, how, why Requirements of a well written report ----CORRECT ANSWER---------complete, factual, objective, accurate explain crime ----CORRECT ANSWER---------An act that the law makes punishable Culpable mental states ----CORRECT ANSWER---------knowingly, purposely, recklessly, negligently Purposely ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Specific intention to cause a certain result; or when the offense is a prohibition against certain conduct of a certain nature, regardless of what the offender intends to accomplish, it is the offender's specific intention to engage in the conduct Knowingly ----CORRECT ANSWER---------aware that conduct is practically certain to cause a result, regardless of purpose recklessly ----CORRECT ANSWER---------With heedless indifference to the consequences, disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that conduct is likely to cause a certain result or is likely to be of a certain nature Negligently ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Because of substantial lapse from due care, fails to perceive or avoid a risk that his/her conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a certain nature Jurisdiction ----CORRECT ANSWER---------a government's general power to exercise authority over all persons and things within its territory Statutory law ----CORRECT ANSWER---------The body of law derived from statutes rather than from constitutions or judicial decisions.

Case Law ----CORRECT ANSWER---------The law found in the collection of reported cases that form all or part of the body of law within a given jurisdiction Force ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Any violence, compulsion, or constraint physically exerted by any means on or against a person or thing Deadly Force ----CORRECT ANSWER---------force which carries a substantial risk that it will result in thendeath of a person Physical Harm to Persons ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Any injury, illness or other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or duration Serious Physical Harm to Persons ----CORRECT ANSWER----------Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric treatment

• Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death
• Any physical harm that involves some permanent incapacity, whether partial or total, or that involves some temporary, substantial incapacity
• Any physical harm that involves some permanent disfigurement or that involves some temporary, serious disfigurement
• Any physical harm that involves acute (i.e., severe) pain of such duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves any degree of prolonged or intractable pain Physical Harm to Property ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- Any tangible or intangible damage to property that results in loss of value or interferes with enjoyment. Serious Physical Harm to Property ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- Substantial loss to the value of the property or requires substantial time, effort, or money to repair of replace.
• Temporarily prevents the use or enjoyment of the property or interferes with the use or enjoyment for extended periods of time. 2923.01 Conspiracy ----CORRECT ANSWER---------(A) No person, with purpose to commit or to promote or facilitate the commission of aggravated murder, murder, kidnapping, abduction, compelling prostitution, promoting prostitution, trafficking in persons, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated robbery, robbery, aggravated burglary, burglary, trespassing in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present, engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity, corrupting another with drugs, a felony drug

trafficking, manufacturing, processing, or possession offense, theft of drugs, or illegal processing of drugs

• With another person or persons, plan or aid in planning the commission of any of the offenses 2923.02 Attempt to commit an offense. ----CORRECT ANSWER---------(A) No person, purposely or knowingly, and when purpose or knowledge is sufficient culpability for the commission of an offense, shall engage in conduct that, if successful, would constitute or result in the offense. 2923.03 Complicity. ----CORRECT ANSWER---------No person, acting with the kind of culpability required for the commission of an offense, shall do any of the following:
• Solicit or procure another to commit the offense
• Aid or abet another in committing the offense
• Cause an innocent or irresponsible person to commit the offense. Describe the purpose of the fourth amendment to the United states constitution ---- CORRECT ANSWER---------is to guarantee rights relating to arrests, searches, and seizures of persons describe the relationship between the degrees of suspicion and the responses allowed by the constitution ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Highest Proof beyond reasonable doubt
• suspect may be convicted of crime punished Probable cause to believe suspect is guilty
• suspect may be arrested reasonable suspicion that suspect is involved in criminal activity
• suspect may be seized and detained for investigation hunch interactions must be consensual lowest determine when a person is considered to be seized ----CORRECT ANSWER----------a reasonable person would believe that the person was not free to leave
• examples even if they did not attempt to leave: threatening presence of officers, display of weapon, physical touching, restricting movement explain when a officer can use the rationale from Terry to detain a person ----CORRECT ANSWER---------a officer may detain a individual based upon the officer's reasonable,

articulable suspicion that criminal activity was being planned or in process of being executed describe under Terry, what is required of an officer to make a investigatory stop ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------have reasonable articulable suspicion to initiate a stop and that criminal activity was afoot

• consider totality of circumstances
• weight to their experience describe the considerations an officer should be mindful of when conducting a Terry stop ----CORRECT ANSWER----------use least intrusive means of detention
• conduct stop quickly as possible to not prolong the period of involuntary detention
• if additional facts are uncovered that supply officer with probable cause to arrest, individual may be arrested
• must be released if no grounds for arrest requirements which must be established before a Terry pat down/frisk ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Officers are required to articulate a reasonable belief that the suspect is armed AND the suspect poses a threat to them Plain Feel Doctrine ----CORRECT ANSWER----------weapons
• during frisk, if officer grab something and immediately recognize it, they can seize it
• not seize it if determining its identity requires further manipulation (pockets, squeezing)
• once determined not a weapon, search must stop unless there's a warrant identify the evidentiary standard on which to base an arrest ----CORRECT ANSWER---- -----a arrest must be based on probable cause describe when the elements of probable cause to arrest are satisfied ----CORRECT ANSWER---------the officer is aware of articulable facts and circumstances sufficient to warrant a reasonable person to believe that a crime has been committed and the person about to be arrested committed the unlawful act identify sources of information that can be used to establish probable cause to make a warrantless arrest ----CORRECT ANSWER---------personal observations, informant's tip, reports from officer or agencies, physical evidence, past criminal record, statements made by suspect, leads furnished by victim or witness

in the absence of consent or exigent circumstances before entering, a officer must do before entering a private residence to make a arrest ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- secure appropriate warrant

• reasonably believe that the person to be arrested is present at the correct address
• knock and announce their presence to justify a warrantless, nonconsensual entry into a private residence in order to make a arrest.. ----CORRECT ANSWER---------exigent circumstances must exist which demand a immediate response Hot/Fresh Pursuit ----CORRECT ANSWER---------The pursuit, without unreasonable interruption, of a person who is trying to avoid arrest the basis to legally seize evidence ----CORRECT ANSWER----------based on probable cause
• probable cause to seize exists if a prudent person would conclude that the object in question is associated with criminal activity types of searches ----CORRECT ANSWER---------full, limited weapons, inventory Full Search - ---CORRECT ANSWER---------conducted to gather criminal evidence
• probable cause
• require a search warrant Limited Weapons Search (frisk/protective) ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- search conducted to disarm a suspect to protect officers
• authority based on reasonable suspicion that person lawfully detained is armed and dangerous inventory search ----CORRECT ANSWER----------not under 4th amendment
• catalog property that police have taken into custody
• adhere to department policy, secure property, protect agency from lost, stolen or damaged claims Describe the nature of the facts required to support probable cause to conduct a search ----CORRECT ANSWER---------facts sufficient to justify a person of reasonable caution to believe that a crime has been or is being committed and that specific objects associated with the crime exist and they will be found in the place to be searched

describe the criteria needed to establish the plain view exception to the search warrant requirement ----CORRECT ANSWER----------officers must be legally on the premises from where the observation is made

• incirminating nature of the item must be immediately apparent
• officer must have a lawful right of access to object Curtilage ----CORRECT ANSWER---------the area immediately surrounding the home (garage, yard)
• same 4th amendment protection as home Open Field ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Any other land from home
• no 4th amendment protection identify the keys in determining whether a consent search is valid ----CORRECT ANSWER----------Consent is voluntarily given
• The person giving consent has authority to do so and no other person with authority, that is present, has refused
• The search is limited to only those places and things that the person expressly or impliedly authorized to be searched
• The search is not unduly intrusive
• While officers may be thorough in their search, they are not permitted to be destructive
• In addition, the length of the search must be consistent with the type and complexity of the search for which permission was granted Three Broad Categories of exigent circumstances ----CORRECT ANSWER----------lives or property are in imminent danger or a serious crime in progress
• evidence will be destroyed or moved if officers postpone taking action
• officers are in hot pursuit of a felon who flees and takes refuge inside identify the area an officer may be search incident to a lawful arrest ----CORRECT ANSWER---------is the area within the person's immediate control at the arrest location identify the factors that will determine the reasonableness of the length of time involved in a motor vehicle detention ----CORRECT ANSWER----------purpose of stop
• time reasonably needed to effectuate those purposes
• officers pursued means of investigation that was likely to confirm their suspicions quickly

identify when an officer may conduct a protective search of a motor vehicle for weapons ----CORRECT ANSWER----------officer has lawfully stopped the vehicle

• reasonable suspicion based on specific and articulable facts to believe driver is dangerous and can gain control of a weapon identify when an officer may search a motor vehicle with containers in it ----CORRECT ANSWER----------for any contraband or evidence of a crime once probable cause has been established
• officers can search all containers (locked/unlocked) explain the factors considered in determining if an inventory of a motor vehicle is reasonable ----CORRECT ANSWER---------car was lawfully impounded, inventory conducted after impounded, owner not present to make other arrangements, valuables in plain view and was pursuant to police procedure, not a pretext to conceal a investigatory search describe the relevant factors used in determining if force was reasonable ----CORRECT ANSWER----------severity of crime
• whether suspect is a immediate threat to the safety of officers or others
• actively resisting
• suspect was attempting to evade arrest by flight Active Resistance ----CORRECT ANSWER---------when a person exhibits resistive movement to avoid physical control or presents a credible threat to a officer (not showing hands) passive resistance ----CORRECT ANSWER---------when a person exhibits no resistive movement in response to verbal commands and other direction, poses no safety threat (failing to exit vehicle) describe when handcuffing may be considered unreasonable force ----CORRECT ANSWER----------unduly tight or forceful handcuffing in course of seizure
• severe obvious medical injury and handcuff in manner that is likely to cause serious harm
• plaintiff complained and officer ignored complaints
• some physical injury resulting the handcuffing

describe when use of a chemical weapon may be considered unreasonable force ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------using chemical weapons on arrestee who already been subdued and poses no threat describe the difference between reasonable and unreasonable force when using electrical weapons ----CORRECT ANSWER----------unreasonable on a passively resisting suspect

• reasonable when suspect was using force or actively resisting explain civil liability considerations associated with using force against those with diminished capacity/mental illness ----CORRECT ANSWER----------federal courts have ruled that the diminished capacity of unarmed suspect must be taken into court into account when assessing the reasonableness of the amount of force exerted
• use different tactics
• actual mental state is irrelevant to any determination of reasonableness in use of deadly force list circumstances when a officer may use deadly force to achieve a seizure ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------to protect themselves or others from immediate threats of serious physical injury
• to prevent escape of a fleeing dangerous person explain the variables an officer should use to assess the presence of an imminent threat ----CORRECT ANSWER----------likelihood of weapon
• capability of weapon
• proximity of the parties at risk
• exposure of officers or others
• subject's actions Explain officer liability when responding to emergency calls ----CORRECT ANSWER----- -----An officer who is responding to an emergency call is governed by the sovereign immunity standard emergency call ----CORRECT ANSWER----------a call to duty, including, but not limited to, communications from citizens, police dispatchers, and personal observations by peace officers of inherently dangerous situations that demand an immediate response on the part of a peace officer

explain the necessary steps in preparing for court ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- ensure all evidence required for the case is accounted for, safely secured, and can be obtained prior to court

• Call and meet with the prosecutor to determine if additional assistance or information is needed
• Review notes and/or reports pertinent to the case List the general rules for effective courtroom testimony ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- Be early
• Be professional
• Wear your uniform or business attire
• Speak loudly, clearly, and with confidence
• Give concise, clear, and complete answers
• Avoid talking with potential or actual jurors Tactic- asking if the officer has spoken with other parties involved with the case
• used to make officers think they have done something wrong ----CORRECT ANSWER- --------counter tactic- answer truthfully Tactic: rapid fire questioning ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter Tactic- slow the pace by pausing before answering
• remain calm
• prohibit the attorney from building momentum
• ask question to be repeated Tactic: repeated questioning
• used in attempt to obtain conflicting responses ----CORRECT ANSWER---------counter tactic- tell the truth
• know facts of case Tactic: verbal badgering and staring ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter Tactic- remain calm
• look at person who is asking question Tactic: asking two questions at the same time
• used to confuse officer ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter tactic- remain calm
• ask attorney which question should be answered first Tactic: friendly counsel

• used to place officer in false level of comfort ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter tactic- stay alert
• be aware the purpose of friendly demeanor Tactic: misquoting the officer's testimony ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter tactic- listen carefully to questions asked
• correct the error Tactic: the "CSI effect" ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Counter tactic- remain calm
• look towards jury and explain good police work can be achieved with simple techniques, TV can be unrealistic Traditional Media ----CORRECT ANSWER---------newspapers, television news shows, and magazines
• accuracy, objective focused, professional journalism Non-traditional Media ----CORRECT ANSWER---------websites, social Media, potential to go viral
• sensationalism, advocacy focused, no professional standard Similarities between traditional and nontraditional media ----CORRECT ANSWER---------
• 1st amendment protection
• entitled to same physical access to scene
• both want access to information - entitled to same access to information identify the reasons for establishing effective communications with the media ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------both have job to do and can benefit from each other
• accurate new stories
• influences public perception
• distribution of information list guidelines an officer should follow when interacting with the media ----CORRECT ANSWER----------be familiar with agency policies
• consistent information
• never speak off record
• secure scene
• key messages
• eye contact, mannerisms, normal tone
• do not say no comment

• direct, concise and brief Identify all elements of the offense of Domestic Violence per R.C. 2919.25 ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------Knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to a family or household member
• Recklessly cause serious physical harm to a family or household member
• By threat of force, knowingly cause a family or household member to believe that the offender will cause imminent physical harm to the family or household member Identify the categories of persons who fall within the meaning of family or household member ----CORRECT ANSWER----------spouse, living as spouse, former
• parent, foster parent, child of offender or spouse, by blood or marriage, natural parent consanguinity ----CORRECT ANSWER---------blood relationship affinity ----CORRECT ANSWER---------marriage recognize the four elements that should be used to determine the primary physical aggressor in a domestic violence incident ----CORRECT ANSWER----------any history of DV or violent acts
• whether violence was caused by person acting in self defense
• each person's fear of physical harm
• comparative severity of any injuries Temporary Protection Order ----CORRECT ANSWER----------order from court that is available after household or family member is charged with violent or sexually oriented offense
• removes suspect from residence
• Can be received by the victim, peace officer, court, family member
• effective for length of case Criminal Protection Order (CRPO) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------issued by the court after a non-family/non-household member is charged with a violent, menacing, or sexually oriented criminal offense
• CRPO is like a TPO for non-family or non-household members

Civil Protection Order (CPO) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------order obtained through the domestic relations or common pleas court even though criminal charges are not going to be filed

• effective up to 5 years (child support and custody) two levels to CPO ----CORRECT ANSWER---------ex parte and final Stalking Protection Orders - Stalking or Sexually Oriented Offense Protection Order (SSOOPO) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------protects victim of stalking and sexually oriented offenses from a non family or household member
• common pleas court describe three characteristics of a crisis state ----CORRECT ANSWER---------• The person's behavior is at an intense emotional and irrational level and brought on in response to a critical incident
• The critical incident occurred within 24 to 48 hours of the change in behavior
• The person perceives the situation as overwhelming and a threat to his/her psychological and/or physical well-being identify the causes of damage or stress to a person's brain that result in a person's mental capacity being compromised ----CORRECT ANSWER----------brain chemistry
• developmental disabilities
• deterioration of brain
• damage through blunt force or severe stress
• substance abuse describe the factors that coupled with mental illness produce the greatest increase in the potential for violence ----CORRECT ANSWER----------male
• 40 years old or younger with untreated psychosis paranoid, delusions, narcissism describe the difference between traditional encounters and special populations encounters ----CORRECT ANSWER----------is the need to be non confrontational
• de escalation Describe active listening ----CORRECT ANSWER----------attempting to hear and understand what a person is saying
• mirroring, paraphrasing, emotional labeling, summarizing
• demonstrates attentiveness

Use LEAPS and its five basic communication tools that assist in generating compliance. ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Listen- actively listen and look interested Emphathize- try to understand Ask- general, open ended questions Paraphrase- repeat the person's message Summarize- condense what has been said and indicate outcome Distinguish the EAR Model's three phases of a crisis encounter ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Engage Assess Resolve Engage ----CORRECT ANSWER----------make a connection with the person so you can calm them

• remove distractions
• introduce yourself
• state why you're there
• model calmness
• speak softly Assess ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Gather information about the patient's condition and the situation
• be patient
• check to see if a crime committed
• tactfully mindful resolve ----CORRECT ANSWER---------bring the encounter to a safe resolution and obtain needs
• limit instructions identify the tactics and behaviors to avoid while engaging in de escalation ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------moving suddenly, rapid orders
• forcing a discussion
• eye contact
• touching without letting them know
• crowding
• expressing anger or impatience
• lying or misleading info sarcasm or inflammatory language

The loss model to recognize a person the nature of a person in crisis ----CORRECT ANSWER---------loss of reality loss of hope loss of control loss of perspective Loss of reality ----CORRECT ANSWER----------person may be frightened, confused and having difficulty concentrating

• delusions or hallucinations Loss of Hope ----CORRECT ANSWER----------person may be emotional, withdrawn, crying,talking suicidal
• hopeless, helpless and may have experienced a recent loss loss of control ----CORRECT ANSWER---------person may be angry, hostile
• manipulative, destructive or argumentative Loss of perspective ----CORRECT ANSWER---------person is anxious, worried, or nervous
• trembling, mood swings describe the lethality assessment to determine a person's suicidal intent (LAST) ---- CORRECT ANSWER---------Lethality of chosen method Availability of chosen method Specificity of the plan Timing (proximity of help) typical dispositions for resolving a crisis intervention incident ----CORRECT ANSWER--- ------- Arrest
• De-escalate and refer
• Voluntary transport
• Involuntary transport Arrest appropriate: (crisis intervention) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------there is a arrestable offense and you must make arrest
• no resources available for treatment

De escalate and refer appropriate: (crisis intervention) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------no Laws have been broken

• no emergency medical needs
• person in control of their emotions and poses no harm
• referral to services Voluntary transport to hospital appropriate: (crisis intervention) ----CORRECT ANSWER----------no law have been broke and follows with your discretion
• community resources
• have person's consent and they would benefit from treatment involuntary transport to hospital appropriate: (crisis intervention ----CORRECT ANSWER---------mentally ill
• represents a substantial risk of physical harm to self and others
• benefit from treatment, unlikely to survive safely in community
• 5122 pink slip identify the practical considerations when taking a person into emergency custody ---- CORRECT ANSWER---------every reasonable and appropriate effort must be made to take persons into custody in the least conspicuous manner
• provide the person with your name, agency, that they're not under arrest, taken for examination, written statement. emergency admission pink slip why Vicitims often fear their sexual assault report will not be believed ----CORRECT ANSWER---------they knew suspect, related, intimated by their position or power, engaged in drug/alcohol abuse, illegal activity at the time of offense, arrest record, prior victim Discuss preliminary victim interview considerations and techniques ----CORRECT ANSWER----------location that frees from distraction and victim feels safe
• offer victim resources
• open ended questions Physical abuse of a child ----CORRECT ANSWER---------an act of commission toward a child by the parent or caregiver that results in harm to the child neglect ----CORRECT ANSWER----------an act of omission that can be a single event or pattern of safe or inadequate care

• the failure to provide for a child's basic needs Sexual abuse of a child ----CORRECT ANSWER---------Using a child to engage in sexual activities who cannot give consent and don't understand Emotional abuse (child) ----CORRECT ANSWER---------damaging interactions between a parent or caregiver and the child feeling unwanted, unloved and worthless identify the conditions under the ORC that allow a peace officer to remove a child from his/her caregiver ----CORRECT ANSWER----------if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the child is suffering from illness or injury and is not recieving proper care, and the child's removal is necessary to prevent immediate or threatened physical harm (2151.03)
• conduct, conditions, or surroundings of the child are endangering the health, welfare or safety of child describe information a officer should document and provide when making s referral to a children's services agency for physical abuse : ----CORRECT ANSWER----------serious or multiple inflicted injuries
• injury requiring medical attention
• widespread bruising
• injuries in healing describe information a officer should document and provide when making s referral to a children's services agency for Emotional abuse: ----CORRECT ANSWER---------- threatened with sinister punishment or weapon
• encourages child to participate in criminal behavior
• activities that cause emotional stress describe information a officer should document and provide when making s referral to a children's services agency for sexual abuse: ----CORRECT ANSWER----------engaged in sexual activity regardless of force
• caregiver touches genitalia for purposes other than hygiene
• masturbates, shows porn, tricks or forces into sexual play describe information a officer should document and provide when making s referral to a children's services agency for drug abuse ----CORRECT ANSWER----------child has access
• caregiver allows exposure

• uses child as part of drug distribution
• uses illegal substances describe information a officer should document and provide when making s referral to a children's services agency for neglect ----CORRECT ANSWER----------child left with no caregiver
• cannot provide for basic needs
• safety or health hazard
• restrains child
• does not provide educational needs identify the considerations to be made when investigating a missing child or adult and when recovering a victim of human trafficking ----CORRECT ANSWER---------the missing child or adult you are investigating may be a victim of human trafficking; the victim of human trafficking that you are recovering may have been reported missing identify the responsibilities of a law enforcement agency in a missing child case ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------response to the missing child report should be immediate
• understand there is no waiting period before a child can be reported missing
• immediately enter the information into NCIC
• Notify neighboring agencies
• notify FBI
• remove entry from NCIC if child is found describe the actions that upon arrival at the scene the officer assigned to the report of a missing child shall take ----CORRECT ANSWER----------conduct preliminary interview of person making report
• verify child is missing
• secure a recent photo for upload into NCIC explain what the officer should do if the missing child investigation is complete and the child is not found ----CORRECT ANSWER---------reach out to additional resources, Child Abduction Response Team (CART) describe the information an officer should gather during a preliminary interview in a family abduction missing child case ----CORRECT ANSWER----------determine who has custody rights
• confirm the suspected family member as actual abductor
• ask questions to establish the intent
• criminal history

explain why it is an officer's responsibility to investigate all aspects of the runaway's life ----CORRECT ANSWER----------viewed as a social problem

• at risk and need to be located
• life on run extremely dangerous
• longer on street, greater chances of falling victim, human trafficking
• running from something at home (abuse) explain why the closure stage provides an important opportunity for law enforcement ---- CORRECT ANSWER---------to learn not only about how the runaway survived, but to investigate if other crimes were being committed at the home that may have caused the child to run describe the interviewing process including the types of questions to be asked of a returned runaway child ----CORRECT ANSWER----------begin building rapport (comfortable location, tone)
• open ended questions to determine if crime at home or out on streets
• how did they survive determine when the criteria are met for activating a AMBER alert ----CORRECT ANSWER----------child is under 18 years old
• believe abduction poses s credible threat of immediate danger or harm to child
• sufficient descriptive information, alert will help locate
• child is not a runaway and not a family abduction determine when the criteria are met for activating a endangered missing child alert ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------child under 18
• missing child is lost
• whereabouts are unknown
• disappearance of child poses a credible threat of danger or death to child state the period within which a law enforcement agency must enter into NCIC information regarding a missing person 21 years of age or older, if foul play suspected -- --CORRECT ANSWER----------all information contained in the report must be entered into NCIC within 7 days determine when the criteria are met for activating an endangered missing adult alert ---- CORRECT ANSWER----------person confirmed missing
• 65 years of age or older or has a mental impairment