ORTHODONTICS AND PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY, Exams of Orthodontics

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ORTHODONTICS AND PEDIATRIC

DENTISTRY

1. The age at which tooth displacement occurs most frequently is influenced by: A. The degree of calcification of the cementum B. The degree of calcification of the dentin C. The stage of development of the root D. The stage of development of the crown E. None of the above. - C. The stage of development of the root
2. Increase in lower intercanine width is due to: A. labial positioning of permanent anterior teeth as they erupt B. divergence of alveolar process C. dental tipping of canine into the primate spaces during eruption of permanent incisors D. expanding "V" principle E. None of the above. - C. dental tipping of canine into the primate spaces during eruption of permanent incisors
3. The crown of lower 6 erupt, tipped somewhat lingually and do not upright until the eruption of lower
4. As the lower 6 uprights, it: A. increases the arch perimeter C. increases the arch width B. decreases the arch perimeter D. decreases the arch width - C. increases the arch width
5. Lower arch perimeter from mixed to permanent dentition: A. increases slightly

B. decreases C. remains the same D. increases slightly but has an equal chance to increase or decrease. - B. decreases

5. These are present at birth, having appeared as normal part of prenatal maturation of the neuromusculature: A. conditioned reflexes C. voluntary activities B. unconditioned reflexes D. both B & C E. both A & C - B. unconditioned reflexes
6. Transition from infantile to mature swallow takes place over several months depending on timing of maturation but most children achieve mature swallow by ___ yrs. A. 1 1⁄2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. none of these - A. 1 1⁄
7. The most accepted and widely used classification system is: A. Simon's B. Angle's C. Dewey-Anderson D. Ackermann & Profitt - B. Angle's
8. Dewey-Anderson modifications for Class II malocclusion: A. types 1-3 B. types 1-5 C. types 0-5 D. none of these - D. none of these
9. A system of classification in which five characteristics and interrelationships are described by: A. Simon's B. Angle's C. Dewey-Anderson D. Ackermann & Profitt -

D. Ackermann & Profitt

10. Normal relationship in the primary dentition is: A. procumbent C. slightly retrusive B. same as in adults D. almost vertical - D. almost vertical
11. Overbite from 3 to 5 years old, A. remains relatively the same B. decreases C. increases - B. decreases
12. Precise bite/jaw relationship is not yet seen or established at birth because of: A. immaturity of neuromuscular control C. absence of teeth B. ill-defined eminentia articularis D. both A & B E. all of these - E. all of these
13. Spacing of incisors at age 7-9 (ugly duckling) stage : A. should be treated at once B. is an abnormal stage of dentitional development C. should be left undisturbed let nature take its course D. refer the case to a specialist this is a difficult case - C. should be left undisturbed let nature take its course
14. Which one is an incorrect description of Nolla's stages of calcification? A. Stage 4, 2/3 of the crown completed B. Stage 6, crown almost completed C. Stage 7, 1/3 of the root completed

D. Stage 9, root almost completed, open apex - B. Stage 6, crown almost completed

15. Which of the following sequence of eruption is not favorable for maintaining arch length? A. 6-1-2-4-5-3-7 upper C. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7 lower B. 1-6-2-4-5-3-7 upper D. 1-6-2-3-4-5-7 lower E. 6-1-2-7-4-5-3 upper - E. 6-1-2-7-4-5-3 upper
16. Mesiodistal measurement of CDE- mesiodistal widths of erupting 345 yields: A. lack of space B. excess space C. no additional space in the posterior segment - B. excess space
17. Space differential in an anterior segment (BA/AB) - 21/12 gives : A. excess space B. no space differential C. negative space - C. negative space
18. This phenomenon occurs in patients with spaced primary dentition and a straight terminal relationship of primary molars. The permanent mandibular first molars emerge at age 6, move the primary molars mesially, close the space distal to the primary canines and correct the straight terminal plane relationship to a mesial step relationship. A. early mesial shift B. homeostatic occlusion C. late mesial shift. -

A. early mesial shift

19. Type of malocclusion that is prone to fracture of the anterior teeth: A. Class II Division 2 C. Class I Type 3 B. Class II Division 1 D. Class I Type 1 E. none of these - B. Class II Division 1
20. Maximum number of catridges that can be used if a child weighs 54 pounds. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 - C. 3
21. The following types of fluoride can be applied every 6 months , except A. acidulated phosphate fluoride C. sodium fluoride B. stannous fluoride D. two of the above - C. sodium fluoride
22. An adjunctive diagnostic tool for treatment planning orthodontics that gives information on possible growth pattern and can give an accurate bone age picture of the patient A. hand & wrist C. panoramic B. cephalometrics D. tomogram E. periapical radiograph - A. hand & wrist j23. Which of the following is the order of tooth extraction in a serial extraction procedure? I. Primary canines II. Selected premolars III. Primary first molars A. I, II, III B. I, III, II C. II, I, III D. II, III, I E. III, I, II - B. I, III, II
23. The distal step in the primary dentition will result in:

A. end to end molar relationship C. Class I molar relationship B. Class III molar relationship D. Class II molar relationship - D. Class II molar relationship

25. This is a process of reshaping and resizing as a consequence of progressive continuous relocation: A. drift C. remodeling B. displacement D. translation E. none of these. - C. remodeling
26. The tooth movement most readily accomplished with a removable appliance is: A. tipping C. root movement B. torquing D. bodily movement E. none of these - A. tipping
27. A 12 year old boy exhibits a deep anterior vertical overlap, maxillary centrals are inclined lingually, and maxillary lateral incisors protrude. Maxillary molars are in an anterior relationship with mandibular molars. The Angle classification is: A. Class I C. Class II, Division 1, Subdivision B. Class II, Division 1 D. Class II, Division 2 E. Class III - D. Class II, Division 2
28. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction because of:

A. density of the cortical bone B. persistence of tongue and finger habits C. persistence of free gingival and transseptal fibers D. persistence of oblique fibers of the periodontal ligaments - C. persistence of free gingival and transseptal fibers

29. The best alternative diagnostic aid in the absence of cephalometric head plate: A. study cast C. facial photograph B. radiograph D. both A & C E. none of these - C. facial photograph
30. An elongating force will move the tooth: A. towards the socket C. on its axis E. none of these B. away from the occlusal plane D. towards the occlusal plane - D. towards the occlusal plane
31. Appliance indicated for bruxism: A. oral screen B. buccal shield C. night guard D. lip bumper - C. night guard
32. Open bite is term applied when: A. torsiversion is present B. there is an abnormal buccolingual relationship of the teeth C. there is an excessive vertical overlap of the incisors D. there is localized absence of occlusion, while the remaining teeth are in occlusion E. none of the above. -

D. there is localized absence of occlusion, while the remaining teeth are in occlusion

33. A 5-year old boy who lives in an area where fluoride content of the drinking water averages 0.75ppm should be supplemented with how much fluoride per day? A. 0 mg. B. 0.25 mg C. 0.50 mg. D. 1.00mg. - A. 0 mg.
34. Generally speaking, intruded primary teeth should be: A. observed C. extracted B. repositioned by hand D. treated pulpally E. none of these - A. observed
35. An intruded primary tooth which is found in a lingual or encroaching relationship to the developing permanent tooth as confirmed with a lateral radiograph of the anterior segment: A. observed C. extracted B. repositioned by hand D. treated pulpally E. none of these. - C. extracted
36. The development of dentition is delayed, there is complete primary dentition at age 15, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, and presence of supernumerary teeth. This is most likely to be: A. 21-Trisomy syndrome C. hypothyroidism B. cleidocranial dysostosis D. hypopituitarism E. achondroplastic dwarfism - B. cleidocranial dysostosis
37. Which of the following conditions is usually present in a Class II, Division 2 malocclussion?

A. Open bite B. Steep mandibular plane C. Mesiocclusion of permanent first molars D. Lingual inclination of maxillary central incisors - D. Lingual inclination of maxillary central incisors

38. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may:
39. cause hyalinization
40. cause undermining resorption
41. crush the periodontal ligament A. 1 & 2B. 2 & 3C. 1 & 3 D. 1, 2 & 3 E. 3 only - D. 1, 2 & 3
42. A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when: A. large horizontal overlap with biteral crossbite exits B. the maxillary dentition is forward with respect to basal bone C. both dental arches are forward with respect to basal bone D. none of the choices. - C. both dental arches are forward with respect to basal bone
43. A narrow maxillary arch with respect to midsagittal plane is said to be in: A. Protraction C. contraction B. retraction D. distraction E. both C & D - C. contraction

41. A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary: A. incisor is avulsed B. first molar is prematurely lost C. second molar is lost after eruption of a permanent first molar D. second molar is lost before eruption of a permanent first molar - D. second molar is lost before eruption of a permanent first molar
42. Cranial base grows primarily by: A. intramembranous B. endochondral C. combination of intramembranous and endochondral growth at the synchondrosis - B. endochondral
43. At age 0 - 5, which has grown the most at 85%? A. Neurocranium B. maxilla C. mandible - A. Neurocranium
44. The increase in length of the maxilla is due to: A. apposition on the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity B. progressive movement of the entire zygomatic process in posterior direction C. growth in the median suture D. Both A & B E. none of these. - D. Both A & B
45. Nasomaxillary morphology and growth can be altered. The sutural system adapts to:

A. posterior forces C. transverse forces B. anterior traction D. all of the choices. - D. all of the choices.

46. The principal force that produce the downward and forward displacement of the mandible: A. condylar cartilage C. ramal growth B. corpus D. soft tissue development E. none of these - D. soft tissue development
47. Addition of alveolar bone, as the teeth erupt and slight additions on the body of the mandible and coronoid notch increase ___ of the mandible A. length B. height C. width - B. height
48. When is the best time to influence, retard and redirect growth? A. after puberty C. just before and during puberty B. before puberty D. time element is not important - C. just before and during puberty
49. Apposition on the posterior border of ramus with remodeling resorption on the anterior border of mandible increases its: A. antero-posterior dimension B. height C. width - A. antero-posterior dimension

50. In the mouth of a neonate, the lower gum pad is ____ the upper gum pad: A. ahead B. behind C. in line with - B. behind
51. Terminal plane is found? A. distal of D B. mesial of D C. distal of E D. mesial of E - C. distal of E
52. Primate space is found: A. mesial of the lower cuspid and distal of upper cuspid B. distal of lower cuspid and distal of upper cuspid C. mesial of lower cuspid and mesial of upper cuspid D. mesial of upper cuspid and distal of lower cuspid - D. mesial of upper cuspid and distal of lower cuspid
53. Primary molars with multisurface caries ( 3 or more) are best restored using: A. GIC C. stainless steel crown B. Posterior composite D. amalgam restoration E. none - C. stainless steel crown
54. Enamel thickness of primary teeth is ___ than the permanent teeth: A. thinner B. of the same thickness C. thicker - A. thinner
55. Primary teeth have pulpal inflammation when the bacterial infested dentin is __ mm from the pulp:

A. 0.6 B. 0.8 C. 1.6 D. 1.8 E. none - D. 1.

56. Formocresol pulpotomy at the site of amputation produces: A. dentin bridge C. calcified barrier B. zone of fixation D. calcific globule E. none of these - B. zone of fixation
57. Ellis classification with crown fracture and exposure of the dental pulp: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV - C. Class III
58. In inferior nerve block for a child patient, the injection must be made ___ than for an adult patient. A. slightly higher B. in level C. slightly lower and more posteriorly - C. slightly lower and more posteriorly
59. The maximum number of catridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine for a 40 pound child patient is A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 10 - A. 3
60. In inferior alveolar nerve block, the barrel of the syringe should be placed on the other side of the arch: A. between C & D C. between E & 6 B. between D & E D. on top of D E. none -

B. between D & E

61. Controlled alteration of voice volume, tone or pace in order to influence and direct the patient's behavior: A. TSD B. positive reinforcement C. distraction D. voice control - D. voice control
62. Parent should be allowed inside the treatment room when treating the following: A. infant to 41 months C. 7 -8 years old B. handicapped patients D. both A & B E. all of these. - D. both A & B
63. In nitrous oxide oxygen sedation, once the patient takes on a distant gaze with sagging eyelids, local anesthesia is given and the concentration of nitrous oxide oxygen is reduced to: A. 40-60 B. 30-70 C. 20-80 D. 10-90 E. none of these. - B. 30-
64. A tiny spicule of nonviable bone overlying the crown of an erupting permanent molar. A. eruption sequestrum C. natal teeth B. eruption hematoma D. neonatal teeth D. dental lamina cyst - A. eruption sequestrum
65. White lesion found at the crest of dental ridges: A. eruption sequestrum C. Bohn's nodule

B. dental lamina cyst E. Epstein pearlE. none of these - B. dental lamina cyst

66. Reason why matrix band is difficult to adapt on a primary molar. A. large interproximal contacts C. exaggerated cervical bulge B. direction of enamel rods D. none of these - C. exaggerated cervical bulge
67. Bluish purple elevated area of tissue, which develops a few weeks before eruption: A. eruption sequentrum C. eruption hematoma B. ectopic eruption D. none of these - C. eruption hematoma
68. Formocresol has mutagenic and carcinogenic potential so the best replacement as medicament for pulpotomy is: A. electrosurgery C. enriched collagen solution B. gluteraldehyde D. still formocresol as of late - D. still formocresol as of late
69. Treatment for young permanent teeth with exposed vital but infected coronal pulp with immature root development. A. apexification B. apexogenesis C. DPC D. IPC - B. apexogenesis
70. Obturation of primary tooth canals is done using:

A. gutta percah B. silver point C. ZOE D. none of the choices - C. ZOE

71. Injury to the teeth of children is often accompanied by open wounds of the oral tissues, abrasion of the facial tissues or even puncture wounds. The dentist must recognize the possibility of the development of: A. replacement resorption C. hepatitis B. tetanus D. pulpal death E. none of these. - B. tetanus
72. This is partial or complete obliteration of the pulp chamber and canal, which is a frequently observed reaction to trauma : A. pulpal hyperemia C. external resorption B. internal resorption D. calcific metamorphosis - D. calcific metamorphosis
73. The most commonly avulsed tooth in both primary and permanent dentitions: A. mandibular central incisor C. mandibular lateral incisor B. maxillary central incisor D. maxillary lateral incisor - B. maxillary central incisor
74. Splinting of avulsed tooth should allow some degree of mobility. Rigid stabilization seems to stimulate: A. internal resorption C. replacement resorption

B. external resorption D. calcific metamorphosis - C. replacement resorption

75. Stabilization of replanted avulsed teeth without complications: A. 2-3 days C. 7-14 weeks B. 7-14 days D. 2-3 weeks - B. 7-14 days
76. When operative or surgical procedure are undertaken for the mandibular primary molars: A. inferior alveolar nerve must be blocked B. nasopalatine nerve block is indicated C. infiltration technique is sufficient D. none of the choices - A. inferior alveolar nerve must be blocked
77. Bilateral inferior alveolar nerve block, especially in younger children is: A. routinely done C. discouraged unless absolutely necessary B. made with caution D. none of these - C. discouraged unless absolutely necessary
78. Children who receive an inferior alveolar injection may bite the lip, tongue and inner surface of the cheek. The resulting ulceration is known as: A. ulcerative, necrotizing zone C. ulcer B. traumatic ulcer D. none of these. -

B. traumatic ulcer

79. Method of early examination where dentist and parent are seated face to face with their knees touching. The upper legs form the examination table. A. knee position C. knee to arm position B. bent position D. knee to knee position - D. knee to knee position
80. Delayed development in the milestones of social behavior, solitary play and withdrawal from other people, absence of eye contact, rote and compulsive behavior which if interrupted may provide temper tantrums are characteristics of: A. Schizophrenia C. ADHD B. Autism D. ADD E. mental retardation - B. Autism
81. Its purpose is to gain the attention of a highly oppositional child. A. Retraining C. hypnodontics B. Aversive conditioning D. behavior shaping E. none of these - B. Aversive conditioning
82. Extensive fracture of the crown involving considerable dentin but not the dental pulp. Ellis and Davey classification is: A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. none of these. - B. II

83. The use of calcium hydroxide as a pulp capping agent and as a primary pulpotomy medication is contraindicated because of the development of: A. calcific metamorphosis C. internal root resorption B. abscess D. necrotic pulp E. none of these. - C. internal root resorption
84. Communicative management technique: i. distraction III. Positive reinforcement ii. voice control IV. Physical restraint A. I & II B. I & IIIC. I & IV D. I, II & III E. II, III & IV - D. I, II & III
85. Euphemism or word substitute for rubber dam: A. rack B. button C. raincoat D. cloth E. none of these. - C. raincoat
86. A callused or unusually clean digit suggests: A. cheek biting B. finger sucking C. finger biting D. toe biting - B. finger sucking
87. Clubbing of the fingers or a bluish color in the nail beds suggests: A. Rheumatic heart disease C. leukemia B. Congenital heart disease D. Anemia E. none of these - B. Congenital heart disease

88. Interested in the dental procedures, laughing and enjoying: A. Definitely negative C. Positive B. Negative D. Definitely positive - D. Definitely positive
89. Sudden firm commands used to get the child's attention: A. HOME C. modulated voice B. Voice control D. flexibility - B. Voice control
90. The blood filled cyst is most frequently seen during eruption of primary second molar: A. Eruption hematoma C. Eruption sequestrum B Ectopic eruption D. all of the above - A. Eruption hematoma
91. Injury to the teeth of children is often accompanied by open wounds, abrasion of facial tissues and puncture wounds. The dentist must check the child's immunization status regarding: A. MMR B. tetanus C. Hib D. polio - B. tetanus
92. Treatment of choice when the patient is seen within an hour or two after the injury of tooth #21, vital exposure is small and sufficient crown remains: A. DPC B. pulpotomy C. apexogenesis D. apexification E.pulpectomy - A. DPC

93. Treatment for non-vital tooth with open apex: A. IPC C. Pulpotomy B. DPC D. Pulpectomy E. Apexification - E. Apexification
94. The amount of pulp tissue to be removed in formocresol pulpotomy procedure A. half of the coronal pulp B. coronal pulp tissue down to the cervical constriction of each root canal C. infected portion of coronal pulp tissue D. total removal of pulp tissue including radicular pulp - B. coronal pulp tissue down to the cervical constriction of each root canal
95. Primary second molars usually erupt during ages: C. 8-14 months C. 30-36 months D. 14-20 months D. 36-48 months E. 20-30 months - E. 20-30 months
96. A 4-year old child has a traumatized central incisor with a Class III (Ellis) fracture. The injury occurred about one month ago, and examination indicates that the pulp is necrotic. There are no other pathologic findings. Treatment of choice is: A. watchful observation B. extraction and use of a space maintainer C. pulpectomy and root canal filling using gutta-percha points and cement

D. endodontic treatment and root canal filling with a resorbable paste. - D. endodontic treatment and root canal filling with a resorbable paste.

97. Definitely negative behavior. A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4 - A. Frankl 1
98. The growth movement of the mandible is complimented by the growth of the maxilla, which is: A. down and forward C. downward and backward B. forward only, D. upward and backward - D. upward and backward
99. This is a contraindication of HOM C. spoiled child D. defiant child C. very young patient D. uncooperative behavior but capable of understanding - C. very young patient
100. In infant oral care, clean mouth with gauze after feedings and at bed time done during: A. 0-6 mons B. 6-12 mos C. 12-24 mos. D. 24-36 mos - A. 0-6 mons