OSCE Dental Hygiene Questions and Answers, Exams of Dental Anatomy

Download OSCE Dental Hygiene Questions and Answers and more Exams Dental Anatomy in PDF only on Docsity! OSCE Dental Hygiene Questions Dental Hygiene Process of Care - correct answer 1.Asses 2.Diagnose 3.Plan 4.Implement 5.Evaluate 6.Document Scope of Practice - correct answer A dental hygienist is legally bound to provide care within the dental hygiene scope of practice Standard of care - correct answer A professional uses the ordinary and reasonable skill that is commonly used by other reputable dental hygienists when caring for patients; involves prudent judgement and use of all available resources. Informed Consent - correct answer Voluntary affirmation by a patient to allow examination or treatment by authorized dental hygienist or other member of the dental team. Chief Complaints - correct answer the patients main concern during the health history What data to collect - correct answer Health history dental history Intra/oral exam dental charting Perio assessment Radiographs Risk factors for Periodontal disease - correct answer Age oral hygiene tobacco use any systemic conditions medications Perio disease as a risk factor for systemic conditions - correct answer Heart conditions Diabetes Pregnancy complications low birth weight Risk factors for dental caries - correct answer Poor oral hygiene prolonged nursing eating disorders drug or alcohol abuse irregular dental care Risk factors for oral cancer - correct answer Tobacco Sun exposure Documentation - correct answer -complete/accurate -Neat - IN INK -right date -abbreviations standardized -not contaminated Diagnosis - correct answer A statement about an actual or potential problem Diagnostic decision making - correct answer A process involving the ability to collect, analyze, and synthesize data DH diagnosis - correct answer -Formal statement of the DH's decision regarding the actual or potential problems of a patient that can be responsive to treatment through the DH scope of practice. Fluoride is recommended for patients who: - correct answer -Have xerostomia -High caries risk -Undergoing cancer therapy -Orthodontics Fluoride Gel or Foam (office application) - correct answer -Applied onto tray and placed in patient's mouth usually for 4 minutes (Read manufactures label). -Do not eat, drink, or smoke for 30 minutes. -Most popular types are 1.23% APF and 2% Neutral sodium fluoride. Stannous Fluoride - correct answer -0.4% available for non-prescription use. -1% neutral sodium fluoride gels available for prescription use. -Can cause extrinsic staining (especially in patient's with inadequate plaque control). Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) - correct answer -Do NOT use of composites, porcelain, or sealant materials as it causing pitting and roughening. -Also avoid on root surfaces. Neutral Sodium Fluoride - correct answer Agent of choice on root caries, implants, cosmetic restorations, and reduced salivary flow. When should a child's first dental appointment occur? - correct answer -Within 6 months of the eruption of the first tooth or before 1-year of age. When should you first start brushing a child's teeth? - correct answer -When the first tooth appears. Signs and Symptoms of erosion - correct answer -dental caries from vomiting -Perimolysis: erosion from vomiting mostly on the maxillary lingual surfaces. Raised appearance of restoration margins. Abrasion - correct answer -V-shaped notch in the gingival portion of the facial aspect of the tooth. -Results from forces of friction between the teeth or external objects. -Can happen from improper brushing technique or the use of a toothpick or pipe. Attrition - correct answer -Results from forces between the teeth. -Wear on the incised and occlusal surfaces from grinding. Abfraction - correct answer -Biomechanical destruction related to fatigue, flexure, and deformation of tooth structure. -Can appear as a wedge-shaped lesion at the cervical third of the tooth. What is the most effective public health measure to prevent tooth decay? - correct answer Community Water Fluoridation New recommended level of fluoride is? - correct answer 0.7 ppm ASA 1 - correct answer Normal, Healthy ASA 2 - correct answer Pt. with mild systemic diseases. -Allergies -Controlled hypertension -Asthma -Mild obesity -Pregnancy -Cigarette smoking without COPD -Diabetes without systemic effects ASA 3 - correct answer Pt. with severe systemic disease and some functional limitation. -Controlled disease of more than one body system -Controlled CHF -Poorly controlled hypertension -Morbid obesity -Respiratory Problems (COPD) -Stable angina ASA 4 - correct answer Pt with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. -Possible risk of death -Unstable angina -Symptomatic COPD and CHF ASA 5 - correct answer Moribund patient not expected to survive for more than 24 hours without surgery. ASA 6 - correct answer Brain dead pt. Radiolucency - correct answer Dark areas on the film. Produced by less dense structures that allows the passage of x-rays. (i.e. cysts) Radiopaque - correct answer Light areas on the film. Produced by denser structures. (i.e. Lamina Dura) Overlap - correct answer inappropriate horizontal angulation Foreshortening - correct answer too much vertical angulation Elongation - correct answer not enough vertical angulation Mark across film - correct answer bent film Circular white boarder on film - correct answer Cone cut -Small radiolucent oval between roots of maxillary central incisors. median palatine suture - correct answer vertical radiolucent thin line in the middle of the palate. Nasal septum - correct answer -Thin wall that divides the nasal cavity into two. -Radiopaque vertical strip. Nasal Spine - correct answer -Projection of bone anteriorly. -Radiopaque triangle shape at medical palatal suture where nasal septum and fosse meet. Nasal cavity (Nasal fossae) - correct answer -Large air-filled space above and behind the nose in the middle of the face. -Radiolucent oval shapes superior to central incisors. Maxillary sinus - correct answer -Hollow spaces in bone superior to molar and premolar. Inverted Y - correct answer -Junction where the nasal fossa and the maxillary sinus. -Most commonly superior to the maxillary canine apex. Maxillary Tuberosity - correct answer -Distal portion of the alveolar process. -Rounded, radiopaque elevation distal to third molar regions. Hamulus - correct answer -Extension of medial pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone. Radiopaque hook-like protrusion posterior to maxillary tuberosity. Zygomatic process - correct answer -Slender profusion of the temporal bone that serves to strengthen the zygomatic arch. -U-shaped radiopaque band superior to molar apices. Coronoid Process - correct answer -Anterior portion of ramus. -Radiopaque triangular projection usually superimposed over maxillary tuberosity. Genial tubercles - correct answer -Four bony spines used for muscle attachment of the genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles. -Circular rap opacities inferior to central incisor apices. Lingual foramen - correct answer -Exit for incisive vessel branches. -Radiolucent circle inside the radiopaque genial tubercles on the mandibular anteriors. Mental Foramen - correct answer -Opening for mental nerve and vessels inferior to mandibular premolar apices. -Round radiolucent area sometimes mistaken for periodical disease. Mental ridge - correct answer -Ridge of bone located on the anterior surface of the mandible. -Bilateral radiopaque lines, starting inferior to premolar apices and extending anteriorly to the midline. External oblique ridge - correct answer -Linear area of bone on external surface of mandible. -Radiopaque line running anterior from the ramus across the molars. Internal oblique ridge (mylohyoid) - correct answer -Elevated long area on the internal surface of mandible. -Radiopaque line running along the premolar and molar apices. -Usually positioned below the external oblique ridge on radiographs. Nutrient canals - correct answer -Veritcal thin radiolucent lines near the teeth, may be mistaken for bone fractures. Mandibular canal - correct answer -Radiolucent horizontal band outlined with a thin line of cortical bone. -Inferior alveolar nerve and arteries pass inside the canal. Stretches from the mandibular foramen to the mental foramen. Panoramic exposure - correct answer -Useful for evaluating impacted teeth, eruption patterns, TMJ problems, etc. -Usually not clear and detailed enough to assess caries and periodontal disease. Periapical (PA) - correct answer -Captures the crown, CEJ, root, and surrounding areas. -Used mainly for diagnosis of periodontal disease, pathology, endodontic therapy, and implants. Bitewing (BW) - correct answer -Captures crowns, contacts, and height of alveolar bone. -Used mainly for the diagnosis of dental caries (interproximally) -Vertical bitewings can detect early periodontal disease because the bone level is visible. Occlusal - correct answer -Captures bone surrounding the teeth, floor of the mouth, sialolith (stone), supernumerary teeth, etc. Full-mouth series (FMX) - correct answer -Represent the entire dentition using a combination of PAs and BWs. Incipient caries - correct answer Lesion that extends less than halfway through the enamel. Moderate carious lesion - correct answer Lesion that extends more than halfway through the enamel but does not involve the DEJ. Advanced carious lesion - correct answer Lesion that extends to or through the DEJ but does not extend more than half the distance to the pulp. Severe carious lesion - correct answer Lesion that extends through enamel, through dentin, and more than half the distance to the pulp. Recurrent caries - correct answer Appear under restorations Hard palate - correct answer firmer, whiter, anterior part of the palate. Soft palate - correct answer yellower, smaller, and softer posterior part of the palate. Palatine raphe - correct answer prominent line from the uvula to the incisive papilla. Pterygomandibular fold - correct answer fold of tissue from the junction of the hard and soft palate on each side down to the mandible, just posterior to the most distal mandibular molar. Maxillary tuberosity - correct answer elevation behind the most posterior maxillary molar. Retromolar pad - correct answer dense pad behind the most posterior mandibular. Vestibule - correct answer horseshoe-shaped space between the cheek, lips, and teeth. Submandibular gland - correct answer -Duct: Wharton -Salivary Secretion: 65% Sublingual gland - correct answer -Duct: Bartholin -Salivary secretion: 10% Parotid gland - correct answer -Duct: Stenson -Salivary secretion: 25% -Largest encapsulated major salivary gland. Plaque-induced gingivitis exacerbated by systemic conditions: - correct answer -Hyperglycemia -Leukemia -Smoking -Malnutrition (Vit. C) Class I tooth mobility - correct answer -Up to 1 mm horizontal displacement in a facial lingual direction. Class II tooth mobility - correct answer -1-2 mm horizontal displacement in a facial lingual direction. Class III tooth mobility - correct answer -Greater than 2 mm horizontal displacement and/or presence of vertical depression. Fremitus - correct answer Palpable or visible movement of a tooth when in function. Can be assessed by gently placing a gloved index finger against the facial aspect of the tooth as the patient taps the teeth together. Furcation - correct answer Loss of interradicular bone on multiorooted teeth. Nabers probe is used to assess the presence and extent of furcation. Mandibular molars are? - correct answer Bifurcated (mesial and distal roots) Maxillary molars are? - correct answer Trifurcated (mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and palatal roots) Class 1 furcation - correct answer Furcation can be detected with probe but it cannot enter the space. Class 2 furcation - correct answer Probe penetrates into the furcation, but does not completely pass through to the other side. Class 3 furcation - correct answer Probe passes completely through the furcation. Class 4 furcation - correct answer Entrance to the furca is clinically visible because of gingival recession and probe passes through the furcation Normal level of the alveolar crest - correct answer located approximately 1-2 mm apical to (below) the CEJ. What radiographs are used to assess bone level and other problems in the periodontium? - correct answer -PA and Vertical BW What does CAL stand for? - correct answer Clinical Attachment Level or Loss CAL is a more accurate indicator of the periodontal support around a tooth than probing depth. (T/F) - correct answer True Periapical Abscess - correct answer radiolucency around the apex of the tooth. Functional shank - correct answer portion between the working end and the handle. Allows the working end to be adapted to the tooth surface. Terminal (lower) shank - correct answer Portion of the functional shank closest to the working end, between the working end and the first bend. Normally parallel to the tooth surface. Simple shank - correct answer -Has only one bend. With the working end tip facing the clinician, the shank is straight. -Used on anterior teeth and on easily accessible areas. Complex shank - correct answer -Has multiple bends. With the working end facing the clinician, the shank has a zigzag shape. -Commonly used on posterior teeth, but may be adapted for anteriors. Working end - correct answer -Working end refers to the part of the instrument that does the function, such as the explorer tip, a mirror, and also blades. Contraindications to Ultrasonic scalers - correct answer -Respiratory disease (COPD) -Communicable diseases (tuberculosis) Leukoplakia - correct answer -White plaque-like (flat) lesion of the oral mucosa that cannot be diagnosed as a specific disease microscopically. Shingles - correct answer Herpes zoster Angina - correct answer -Chest pain caused by excessive work of the heart. -Prepare nitroglycerin Myocardial infarction (MI, Heart attack) - correct answer -Death in parts of the heart muscle. -Wait 6 months from last attack before dental treatment Hypertension - correct answer -Increased pressure on the arteries related to the buildup of plaque in the arteries. -Check BP before and after appointment. -Orthostatic hypotension is possible due to medications (sit patient up slowly) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) - correct answer -Inability of the heart to provide enough oxygen, blood, and nutrients to the body, and results in the backing up of blood in various parts. -Avoid cavitron and air polishing if patient has difficulty breathing Arrhythmia - correct answer -Abnormal electrical conduction to the heart muscles. -Epi can worsen the condition -Patient have pacemaker so check to see if it is new (shielded) or old (not shielded) to determine is cavitron is safe for use. Artifical (prosthetic) valve - correct answer -Patient requires antibiotic premedication before invasive dental procedures. -Patient may be on blood thinners ADHD - correct answer -Characterized by inattentiveness, hyperactivity, impulsiveness, and possible learning disability. -Use "tell show do" method Alzheimer's disease - correct answer -Progressive disease that destroys memory and other mental functions. -Caregiver educations is important. Parkinson's disease - correct answer -Disorder related to lack or impairment of dopamine. -Characterized by rigid moments, tremor, drooling, lack of facial expression etc. -Caregiver education is important -Stabilize instruments Stroke - correct answer -Lack of blood supply to the brain. -Characterized by unilateral lack of movements. -Do not treat for 6 months after attack. -Dexterity may be limited Seizure - correct answer -Abnormal electrical discharges in the brain. -Dilantin can cause gingival hyperplasia. -Avoid bright lights in patient's eye Alcohol and drug dependency - correct answer -Risk for oral cancer is higher. -Avoid mouth rinses with alcohol. -Nitrous oxide is contraindicated A1C Normal - correct answer Less than 5.7% A1C of prediabetes - correct answer 5.7-6.4% A1C of diabetes - correct answer 6.5% or higher Hypothyroidism - correct answer -Patient may not be able to tolerate cold Hyperthyroidism - correct answer -Patient may not be able to tolerate heat Spina Bifida - correct answer -Latex allergy occurs frequently Asthma - correct answer -Late morning or late afternoon appointments are preferred. -Avoid cavitron and air polisher Tuberculosis - correct answer -Do not treat patient with active TB. Radiation therapy - correct answer -Treat all dental issues before the start of cancer therapy Normal respiration - correct answer Adult: 12-20 breaths/min Child 18-22 breaths/min Bradypnea - correct answer Slow respiration Tachypnea - correct answer Rapid respiration Normal pulse - correct answer Adult: 60-100 bpm Child 80-120 bpm Infant 100-160 bpm Bradycardia - correct answer Slow heart rate Tachycardia - correct answer Fast heart rate Normal BP - correct answer less than 120/80