OSHA Hazardous Materials and Personal Protective Equipment, Exams of Nursing

Download OSHA Hazardous Materials and Personal Protective Equipment and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! HAZWOPER 8 HOUR REFRESHER TEST Questions and Answers Latest Version 2024 GRADE A+ Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank - Answer b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above - Answer e All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A True B False - Answer b The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the following hazardous substances? A Petroleum B Dioxin C Mercury D Pesticides E All of the above - Answer e The law that requires employers to provide a workplace that is "free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm" is known as: A OSH Act B RCRA C HSWA D SARA - Answer a True B False - Answer b The OSHA HAZWOPER Standard requires employers to develop and implement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. A True B False - Answer a The site safety and health plan must be kept on-site and must address the safety and health hazards of each phase of site operation. A True B False - Answer a Which of the following must be included in the safety and health plan? A Hazard analysis for all tasks on-site B Site control measures C Names of key personnel D Medical surveillance guidelines E All of the above - Answer e Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Answer a Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Answer a A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: A Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities B Enter the hot zone for the purpose of stopping the release C Implement the Incident Command System for the response D All of the above - Answer b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Answer d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Answer c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? - Answer not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? - Answer not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: - Answer not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? - Answer CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month D Your EMS administrator - Answer a If the monthly generation threshold is exceeded for classification, the classification status will only be changed for the duration of the exceeded threshold. A True B False - Answer b CESQGs are exempt from many of the requirements pertaining to the other generator classifications. A True B False - Answer a How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Yearly - Answer b Generators may accumulate up to ___ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. A 45 B 55 C 65 D 75 - Answer b You must label drums or other containers of hazardous waste: A Once the drum or container is full B Only if stored at a satellite location C Before placing any waste in them D If the accumulation start date is within the current calendar year - Answer c Stormwater pollution may be caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from outdoor equipment or storage areas. A True B False - Answer a Which of the following requires special management in order to avoid disposal as a hazardous waste? A Scrap metal B Scrap tires C Used batteries D Empty drums E Empty paint cans F All of the above - Answer f Industrial wastewater includes domestic sanitary wastes (e.g., from sinks or toilets). A True B False - Answer b When industrial wastewaters are discharged to surface waters (e.g., a creek, ditch, pond or lake), the EPA or state requires a: A National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit B Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) C Best Management Practice (BMP) - Answer a A facility that has no outdoor exposures may be exempt from stormwater permitting requirements. A True B False - Answer a Wastewater and stormwater permits will never require sampling, inspections or recordkeeping. A True B False - Answer b What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? A Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented B Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country C Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances D Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - Answer d The HazCom Standard covers construction and longshoring workers, as well as employees in other industries who may be exposed to chemical hazards. A True B False - Answer a Which are the four major areas covered by the standard? Hazard classification, written program, SDSs and labels, and: A Engineering controls B Monitoring C Training D PPE - Answer not b, not d The purpose of the GHS is to: A Establish the United States' standards worldwide B Improve reading comprehension among workers C Protect employers from worker lawsuits D Reduce confusion and worker injury and illness - Answer d The GHS standardizes an international approach to the HazCom Standard. A True B False - Answer a The hazard statement on Chemical A's label says it can cause skin irritation and respiratory problems. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Ambiguous hazard B Health hazard C Physical hazard D Retroactive hazard - Answer c Chemical B is pyrophoric. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Health hazard B Layered hazard C Physical hazard D Physical and health hazards - Answer c Who must provide labels when they ship chemicals? A Manufacturers B Importers C Distributors D All of the above - Answer d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False - Answer b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D Soft drinks - Answer c At a multi-employer worksite, employers must include details in their ________ about how they will share information with the other employers. A Routes of exposure C Size of container D Types of applications - Answer b Whose responsibility is it to ensure that you know exactly where the SDSs are kept in your workplace? A Yours B Your employer's C Your supervisor's D OSHA's - Answer a There is a specific ____-section format required for Safety Data Sheets. A 6 B 10 C 16 D 20 - Answer c Employees must be trained on the Hazard Communication program whenever: A A new hazard is introduced into their work area B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return - Answer a An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk - Answer b Risk is the likelihood that a ___ will cause a ____. A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss - Answer a A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of substances is called a: A Mechanical hazard B Physical hazard C Chemical hazard D Biological hazard - Answer c Toxicity can be measured by: A Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B Lethal Concentration (LC) C Lethal Dose (LD) D All of the above - Answer d Acids and alkaline caustic liquids are examples of: A Corrosives B Flammables and explosives C Oxidizers D Pyrophoric materials - Answer a Which physical property affects the ease with which a fuel can be ignited? A True B False - Answer a Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A True B False - Answer b DOT labels and placards are: A Color-coded B Word-coded C Symbol-coded D Number-coded E All of the above - Answer e A green DOT placard indicates a non-flammable hazard. A True B False - Answer a There are 11 different DOT hazard classes. A True B False - Answer b A low-pressure chemical carrier is usually: A An oval cylinder B Circular in diameter with reinforcing exterior stiffening rings C A round cylinder D Used for carrying cryogenic materials - Answer c Pressurized tank cars usually carry flammable and nonflammable gases and poisons. A True B False - Answer a A sign that a hazard may be present is: A Seeing a spill or release B Smelling an unusual odor C Hearing a release or process alarm D Witnessing a fire or explosion E Hearing a warning signal F All of the above - Answer f Which of the following elements of a risk assessment may be impossible to determine? A The source and size of the spill or release B The immediate effects of the spill or release C Characteristics of the scene D Preliminary identification of the material E Potential hazards - Answer not b, not c, not a Contact with a chemical, physical or biological agent is referred to as: A Exposure B Threshold Limit Value (TLV) C Injection E Inspiration - Answer e Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection - Answer b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only - Answer e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above - Answer f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - Answer a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False - Answer b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic - Answer c Exposure to cotton dust is most likely to affect which body part? A Reproductive system B Chest and lungs C Bones and joints D Stomach and intestines - Answer b Which of the following factors influence reactions to chemical exposure? A Solubility of toxic agent B Time of administration C Temperature and humidity D Nutritional status E It detects the presence of a potentially hazardous condition B It measures the concentration of hazardous substances C It replaces the need for personal protective equipment D It is done before exposure occurs and on an ongoing basis - Answer c The four types of monitoring systems commonly used are: A Personal, Environmental, Biological, Medical B Personal, Impersonal, Biological, Medical C Personal, Environmental, Remote, Compositional D Environmental, Biological, Medical, Examination - Answer a Biological monitoring is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workplace. A True B False - Answer b Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A True B False - Answer a How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above - Answer e Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D Oxygen deficiency or enrichment - Answer c Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False - Answer b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% - Answer c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 C psi D f/cc - Answer d The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STEL B All of the above F None of the above - Answer e HAZWOPER requires medical surveillance for which employees: A Employees who are or may be exposed to hazardous substances or health hazards at or above the established permissible exposure limit B Employees who wear a respirator for 30 days or more a year C Employees who develop signs or symptoms due to possible overexposure involving hazardous substances during a hazardous waste operation D Members of the HAZMAT team E All of the above - Answer e How frequently must medical examinations be given to covered employees? A At least once every 24 months B At least once every 12 months C At least once every 6 months D At least every other month - Answer b All medical evaluations must be made confidential and you must be given the opportunity to discuss the questionnaire and examination result with the physician. A True B False - Answer a Employees are not permitted to view the content of their medical examinations. A True B False - Answer b Employees are required by law to keep a record of their own medical examinations. A True B False - Answer b Engineering controls should be used to control atmospheric hazards as much as possible. If those controls don't eliminate harmful substances from the air, respirators are required. A True B False - Answer a Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the written respiratory protection program? A Engineering controls used B Respirator selection procedures C Respirator use and maintenance procedures D Respiratory hazards training - Answer a What are the two main types of respirators? A Supplied-air and self-contained B Air-purifying and atmosphere-supplying C Air-purifying and self-contained D Powered and unpowered - Answer not a not c Which of the following is NOT true of a supplied-air respirator? A Never use pure oxygen with this type of respirator B The required hose can become tangled or damaged, or can be a trip hazard C It provides a virtually unrestricted supply of air D It is the most frequently-used type of respirator during emergency response - Answer not c not a Air-purifying respirators function by either mechanical filtration or chemical sorption. A True B False - Answer a Identification of hazards B Routes of entry for hazards C Performance of the PPE D Cost of PPE materials E A, B, C only - Answer e If you cannot find PPE materials that will provide continuous protection from a particular hazardous substance, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the duration of your work. A True B False - Answer a The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. A True B False - Answer a Which agency designates levels of protection for PPE? A CDC B IDLH C EPA D DOT - Answer c Level A personal protective equipment requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes and the respiratory system. A True B False - Answer a Which level of protection is needed when you are working with a substance with a high degree of hazard to the skin? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer a Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer b At which level of protection can an air-purifying respirator be used? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer c Which level of protection offers no respiratory protection and only minimal skin protection? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer d To be considered a "confined space," a space must: A Be designed for continuous occupancy B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT - Answer b For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A True B False - Answer b If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symptoms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co-workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate - Answer d In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A True B False - Answer a If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmospheric hazards, then: A PPE must be worn B The confined space cannot be entered C Two attendants are required D Emergency personnel should be contacted - Answer a Ventilation is one of the most common examples of: A Work practice controls B Personal protective controls C Engineering controls D Administrative controls - Answer c Work practice controls reduce or eliminate hazards by making changes such as: A Assuming the local fire department will quickly rescue all entrants in confined space emergencies B Removing warning systems C Allowing more unauthorized people into a confined space D Rotating workers - Answer d It doesn't matter if emergency responders remain on-site or off-site, as long as they are able to meet your needs in the event of an emergency. A True B False - Answer a What is the correct order for atmospheric testing? A Oxygen, flammable gases, toxic gases B Flammable gases, oxygen, toxic gases C Toxic gases, oxygen, flammable gases D Flammable gases, toxic gases, nitrogen - Answer a Equipment for testing, ventilation, communications and rescue should be ________ during confined- space entry. A Hidden B Available C Sold D Deactivated - Answer b The ________ must know the conditions or work practices that may produce a hazard in a confined space and must be trained to enter a specific space. A Authorized entrant Selection of personal protective clothing for spill response should be based on the hazardous materials and/or conditions present and should be appropriate for the hazard encountered. A True B False - Answer a Which of the following sorbents is inappropriate for use on many hazardous materials? A Charcoal B Clay C Sawdust D Polyolefin type fibers - Answer c Absorbents do NOT retain the properties of the absorbed hazardous liquid. A True B False - Answer b This method of leak control is a temporary form of mitigation for radioactive, biological and some chemical substances such as magnesium. A Dilution B Overpacking C Vapor dispersion D Covering - Answer d Which of the following are physical methods to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment? A Dikes B Dams C Diversion D Retention E All of the above - Answer e The process of moving a liquid, gas or some form of solids from a leaking or damaged container or tank is called: A Overpacking B Plugging and patching C Transfer D Covering - Answer c When dealing with high vapor pressure liquids or liquefied compressed gases, ________ is one possible method of leak and spill control. A Adsorption B Neutralization C Overpacking D Flaring - Answer d Which leak and spill control method uses controlled combustion to render a container's escaping materials less hazardous? A Vent and burn B Solidification C Polymerization D Gelation - Answer a Prevention is the key to avoiding spills, leaks and other releases of hazardous materials. - Answer true If unlabeled drums and containers are found, you should assume that they contain ________ and handle them accordingly. - Answer c Hazardous substances Which of the following should be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks or ruptures may occur? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only - Answer f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above - Answer e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone - Answer b In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above - Answer a In which work zone(s) are emergency response activities such as first aid administration carried out? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D All of the above E A and B only - Answer not d, not c In which work zone(s) are administrative functions located? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D All of the above - Answer c Only authorized personnel are allowed to enter the Support Zone when site control is implemented. A True B False - Answer b Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of workers using the buddy system? A Remaining in close visual contact with partner B Forming close friendship with partner C Observing partner for signs of heat stress or other difficulties D Providing partner with assistance as needed or requested - Answer b Some means of communication independent of normal telephone service must be available during an emergency. Hazard zones - Answer a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact - Answer d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a contaminated surface C Showering after exposure to hazardous materials D Using a contaminated instrument or contaminated equipment - Answer c Decontamination consists of either physically removing the contaminants or changing them to harmless substances. A True B False - Answer a How can contamination be minimized? A Use remote handling techniques B Protect monitoring and sampling equipment C Use disposable outer garments D Encase the source of the contaminants E All of the above F A and B only - Answer e Which of the following is NOT required in the Decontamination Plan? A List of equipment needed for possible hazards B Safe disposal methods for clothing and equipment that are not completely decontaminated C Appropriate PPE D Worker vacation schedules - Answer d 7. The three main decontamination methods are pysical removal, inactivation and chemical removal. A True B False - Answer a Which of the following are examples of physical removal? A Water from either a pressurized or a gravity flow system being used to rinse off the contaminant B Evaporating or vaporizing a contaminant from fabric C Flame-treating contaminated clothing D All of the above E A and B only - Answer e Which of the following is NOT an example of inactivation? A Oxidation B Neutralization C Solidification D Washing with detergent - Answer d Chemical removal of contaminants may be accomplished with surfactants or solvents. Loading docks C Rail transportation D Warehouses - Answer c On-site emergencies typically ________. A Will be more likely to include public agencies B Will have a defined perimeter C Will occur in uncontrolled locations D Are caused by truck accidents on a highway - Answer b The Emergency Response Plan for on-site emergencies must include: A Site topography, layout and prevailing weather conditions B Each employee's job description C The cell phone number of the on-site supervisor D Detailed information on every chemical workers may be exposed to - Answer a Which of the following is an additional requirement specific to an off-site ERP? A Decontamination B Emergency recognition and prevention C Preplanning in conjunction with public agencies D Critique of response and follow-up - Answer c Who assumes total control of the incident response? A Incident Commander B Toxicologist C EPA D The first person on the scene - Answer a What is the level of training for the person who responds to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release? A Hazardous Materials Specialist B First Responder Awareness Level C Hazardous Materials Technician D First Responder Operations Level - Answer c What allows possible sources or methods of releases to be identified? A Site map B Facility survey C Critique of response and follow-up D Site control - Answer b Where are decontamination procedures described? A Site map B Fire department website C Off-site ERP D Site safety and security plan - Answer d The ERP must include a diagram of the facility showing routes of escape and assembly areas, along with a procedure to determine which route to use. A True B False - Answer a Critique of response and follow-up should include which of the following questions? A Who was there? B What went right? C What day did it happen? D How long did the incident last? - Answer b A continuously discharged portable fire extinguisher can run out of extinguishing agent in: A Seconds B Thirty minutes C Hours D Days - Answer a Which of the following is a question you should ask yourself when deciding to fight or flee a fire? A Am I getting paid to do this? B How much money is the fire damage going to cost? C Is there a safe evacuation route? D Will this go on my performance review? - Answer c You see a fire. It looks small, but smoke is filling the room rapidly. What should you do? A Find the source of the smoke B Fight the fire while wearing a respirator C Flee the area immediately D Wait for instructions from firefighters - Answer c There is a small fire in your work area that involves a puddle of liquid leaking from a large drum of a flammable chemical. Should you fight or flee? A Fight B Flee - Answer b You are fighting a fire. You look back toward your evacuation route and notice that flames are getting close to the door you planned to use. What should you do? A Evacuate immediately B Get another fire extinguisher C Lie on the floor, below the smoke D Stay and fight the fire - Answer a Fire extinguishers work by removing one or more of these elements of fire: ________, oxygen and fuel. A Argon B Electricity C Heat D Water - Answer c There is a fuse box on fire. You should use a fire extinguisher labeled: A ABC B D C E D K - Answer a Where should you look to find out how far to stand away from flames to effectively extinguish them? A Employee handbook B Extinguisher label C Fire safety poster D Internet search - Answer b The first step of the PASS method of using fire extinguishers is to: A Point the nozzle B Pull the pin C Puncture the can D Push the handle - Answer b You use a fire extinguisher to put out a small Class A fire. What should you do with the extinguisher afterward? A Inspect it for rust or damage B Re-mount it until it can be replaced C Replace it immediately D Take it home to reuse there - Answer c Radiation that has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms is called: A Infrared radiation B Ionizing radiation C Non-ionizing radiation D Ultraviolet radiation - Answer b Commonly encountered types of ionizing radiation are: A Microwaves B Beta particles C Omega particles D Infrared radiation - Answer b A unit of measurement used for measuring a dose of radiation in a person is called a: A Millirem B Milligram C Milliampere D Dosimeter - Answer not c A principal source of natural background radiation is ________, which is a gas from naturally- occurring uranium in the soil. A Radon B Cosmic radiation C Potassium-40 D Medical radiation - Answer a Exposure to radiation: A Always results in contamination of a worker B Always results in immediate injury when the dose is low to moderate C Has the same probability of causing health effects whether the exposure is acute or chronic D May include reddening of the skin, vomiting, hair loss or even death, if the exposure is acute - Answer not c D Internal bleeding - Answer b Eyewashes and emergency showers can be substitutes for: A Good work practices B Reading Safety Data Sheets C Safety precautions D None of the above - Answer d The longer chemicals stay on the skin or eyes, the deeper they can penetrate, and the: A Less likely you are to have permanent injury B Less likely you are to need medical assistance C More effective an eyewash or emergency shower is D More harm they can cause - Answer d Permanent scarring and other long-term effects can occur just seconds after chemical exposure. A True B False - Answer a When you have been exposed to a chemical, immediately flushing the exposed area typically: A Cures any damage B Increases damage C Prevents any damage D Reduces damage - Answer d Signs of neglected eyewashes and emergency showers include: A Adequate water pressure B Dust covers on nozzles C Low fluid levels in self-contained eyewashes D Operable activating valves - Answer c The area underneath an emergency shower should be: A Covered with a tarp or cloth B Filled with boxes C Free from obstructions D Impassable - Answer c The water flow through an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Blue B Clear C Cloudy D Slightly colored - Answer b Eyewash water pressure should be strong enough that the water streams: A Do not touch each other B Meet in the middle but do not overshoot the bowl C Shoot straight into the air D Shoot past each other and overshoot the bowl - Answer b For most exposures, the recommended flushing time is ________ or longer. A 15 seconds B 5 minutes C 15 minutes D 60 minutes - Answer c Ideally, the water coming out of an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Cold B Hot C Steamy D Tepid - Answer d How often should you drain and refill portable eyewash units with refillable reservoirs? A Daily B As frequently as the manufacturer recommends C Yearly D Never - Answer b The best time to learn where eyewashes and emergency showers are and how to use them is: A Before an emergency B During an emergency C After an emergency D Never - Answer a While you are using an eyewash, your eyes should be: A Closed B Crossed C Open D Shielded - Answer c What is the best way to find the flushing time for a given chemical? A Perform an Internet search for best practices B Look in your Human Resources policy manual C Read the Safety Data Sheet D There is no need to investigate, because the time is always 15 minutes - Answer c If your clothes have absorbed a chemical, you may need to: A Incinerate them B Stand still until the chemical dries C Remove them D Avoid using the emergency shower - Answer c Experience gives us an advantage because it: A May prepare us to react B Prevents all mistakes B Keep your wrists, elbows and knees bent C Use your hands to break the fall D Land on your back - Answer b Whom should you check with to determine if your shoes are suitable for the workplace? A No one as long as the label says they're slip-resistant B The salesclerk C The manufacturer D Your employer - Answer d You should always keep stairs and floors __________ to prevent slips, trips and falls. A Dry and cluttered B Wet and cluttered C Dry and uncluttered D Wet and uncluttered - Answer c What are some basic housekeeping tasks to prevent slips, trips and falls? A Secure or anchor floor mats B Clean up any liquid spills or puddles C Step over strung-out cords D Both A and B - Answer d What is one way the body tries to get rid of excess heat in a hot environment? A By slowing the heart rate B By circulating blood closer to the surface of the skin C By increasing blood flow to the brain D By reducing the thirst drive - Answer b Sweating does not cool the body unless the moisture is removed from the skin by ________. A Evaporation B Blood loss C Hot towels D Misting fans - Answer a Increased body temperature and physical discomfort promote irritability, anger and other emotional states, which may cause workers to: A Overlook safety procedures B Focus carefully on hazardous tasks C Work quickly and more efficiently D Remain mentally alert - Answer a Juan has been working in the hot sun all day. He begins acting delirious. His temperature is extremely hot and his skin is dry and red. What might he be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Answer d Jaime is working in a hot, humid environment. She complains about uncomfortable, itchy spots on her arm. What might she be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Answer a ________ exposure to heat helps the body become accustomed to higher environmental temperatures. A Extreme B Immediate C Minimal D Gradual - Answer d Heat disorders in general are LESS likely to occur among workers who are: A Required to work without time to adjust to the heat B Able to acclimate to the heat C Away from hot environments for a while D Accustomed to lower temperatures - Answer b Even when safety precautions are taken and policies are followed, heat stress and related illnesses can occur. Therefore: A Workers must watch out for each other, because a co-worker may need help without realizing it B Employees should work alone in isolated areas C A supervisor is the only person permitted to request aid for the symptoms of heat stress D Water should be reserved for people who perform the most strenuous work - Answer a During heat waves and when temperatures soar above 90 °F (32 °C), it is recommended that: A People work as quickly as possible B Shaded rest areas be replaced by water coolers C A supervisor remains on-site to observe employees or a "buddy system" is implemented to ensure no one works alone D Providing aid to workers is not considered until an emergency occurs - Answer not b Which of the following can help you maintain a high level of heat tolerance? A Consuming caffeine on hot days B Getting sufficient sleep C Working double shifts D Wearing dark-colored clothing - Answer b Which of the following is a good way to warm yourself when it is cold outside? A Drink alcoholic beverages to make your body temperature closer to the outside temperature B Keep an electric heater plugged in and on at all times C Stay as still as possible while in your house D Wear warm clothing, such as sweaters, to maintain body heat - Answer d If your skin and tissue is frozen, your body part may feel: