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Paramedic Final Review: Structured for Success in Every Examination, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive review of key concepts in paramedicine, covering topics such as anatomy, physiology, and emergency medical procedures. It features multiple-choice questions with detailed answer rationales, offering a valuable resource for students preparing for paramedic examinations. The document's structure and content are designed to enhance understanding and retention of essential knowledge.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 11/16/2024

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Paramedic final review Structured for Success in

Every Examination Certified for High Academic

Standards With Detailed Answer Rationale

Complete Solutions for Each Question

Motor is_____, Sensory is _____ in the spinal cord? A Posterior, Anterior B Anterior, Posterior C Midline, Midspine D Not present - - correct ans- - Answer B The VII cranial nerve controls A Tongue B Brain & eyes C hearing D facial expressions and taste - - correct ans- - answer D How many nerves are in the spine? A 33 B 13 C 23 D 103 - - correct ans- - answer A Which would indicate spinal cord injury? A hypertension, tachycardia, and deep respirations B hypotension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations

C hypertension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations D hypotension, tachicardia and deep respirations - - correct ans- - answer B The blood pressure in a patient with suspected head injury should not be below A 90mmhg B 110 mmhg C 100 mmhg D 120 mmhg - - correct ans- - answer A The tears are manufactured in the __________and then spread across the eye laterally to medially, where they drain through the lacrimal ducts into the nose. A. Excretory ducts B. Lacrimal sac C. Lacrimal gland D. Lacrimal papillae - - correct ans- - Answer:C An infection or inflammation that is very contagious. Causes red, itching and production of more tears than usual. Often called "pink eye"

A. Chalazion B. Conjunctivitis C. Glaucoma D. Cataract - - correct ans- - Answer: B What is the second most common cause of blindness in the United States? It is characterized by an increase pressure within the eye, that damages the optic nerve. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Syphilis D. Pterygium - - correct ans- - Answer: A An infection of the submandibular space under the tongue, primarily resulting from infection of the second or third molar; may cause blockage of the airway. A. Oral candidiasis

B. Tonsillitis C. Ludwigs angina D. dental abscess - - correct ans- - Answer: C A common form of bone disease, caused by thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density. Occurs when the body fails to produce enough new bone to replace bone that is being resorbed or used. A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome D. Myalgias - - correct ans- - Answer: B A discoloration of of the skin that is usually blue or black. This is a foul-smelling discharge and loss of sensation in the affected area. Results as death of the tissue.

A. Gangrene B. Neuropathic arthropathy C. Inflammation D. Diabetic foot - - correct ans- - Answer: A A form of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine. Resulting in the spine becomes stiff and inflexible were the spine if fused together. A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Gout D. Ankylosing Spondylitis - - correct ans- - Answer: D What is a disease of the inner ear that affects balance and hearing and occurs when the labyrinths within the inner ear become swollen.

A. Labyrinthitis B. Vertigo C. Meniere's disease D. Mastoiditis - - correct ans- - Answer: C

  1. What ribs are the most commonly fractured? A. 4- 8 B. 7- 3 C. 5- 9 D. 6- 9 - - correct ans- - Answer A
  2. Which of the following is NOT a sign of Beck's triad? A. Distant heart tones B. JVD C. Pulses paradoxus

D. Hypotension - - correct ans- - Answer C

  1. What pathophysiology is associated with a pulmonary contusion? A. Increased pressure in the head, neck, and chest cavity B. Direct bruising to the lung tissue C. The presence of air in the soft tissue D. Three or more fractured ribs, causing a moving segment of chest wall - - correct ans- - Answer A
  2. Which of the following best describes cyanosis to the face and neck that occur in traumatic asphyxia? A. Decreased blood flow to the head and neck B. Backflow of blood from the right heart into the neck C. Increased oxygenated blood flow D. Decreased pressure in the chest cavity - - correct ans- - Answer B
  3. Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is complaining of left-sided chest pain after being

tackled in a football game. Examination reveals pain and crepitus around the 10th and 11th ribs on the left side. Which of the following may be present as an underlying injury? A. Diaphragmatic rupture B. Injury to the liver C. Mesenteric injury Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8, D. Injury to the spleen - - correct ans- - Answer D

  1. At what percentage of maternal blood loss in the pregnant mother are changes in BP or heart rate evident? a. 10- 15 b. 20- 25 c. 30- 35

d. 40- 45 - - correct ans- - AnswerD

  1. A 44-year-old male was hit by a motor vehicle while jogging. You begin to assess the patient. You notice that he is cyanotic and has agonal respirations. He has obvious flail chest, multiple contusions, clear heart tones, and air movement through his airway. Upon auscultation, you notice that the patient has a deviated trachea and he has decreased breath sounds on the right. Based on this scenario, which of the following is the most likely to be fatal if not treated? A. Contusion B. Cardiac tamponade C. Flail chest D. Tension pneumothorax - - correct ans- - Answer D
  2. A patient was run over by a car. There are tire marks on the chest wall. The patient has cyanosis

to the face and neck. Heart tones are muffled and lung sounds are shallow with agonal respirations. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring in this patient based on the assessment? A. Flail chest B. Subcutaneous emphysema C. Traumatic asphyxia D. Tension pneumothorax - - correct ans- - Answer C

  1. Signs or symptoms commonly associated with hemothorax include: A. Shock Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8, B. Bradycardia C. Hyperresonance

D. Tracheal deviation to the affected side - - correct ans- - Answer A

  1. Which of the following agencies became involved with setting ambulance standards due to awareness of infectious diseases? A. DOT B. NHTSA C. CAAS D. OSHA - - correct ans- - Answer: D
  2. When setting up a helicopter landing zone, what is the minimum size it should be? A. 50'x50' B. 75'x75' C. 100'x100' D. 150'x150' - - correct ans- - Answer: C
  3. The most dangerous direction to approach an aircraft while the engines are on is?

A. The rear B. The front C. The downhill side D. The pilot's side - - correct ans- - Answer: A

  1. Most state EMS agencies establish what kind of standard regarding ambulance operation? A. Gold B. Optimal C. Minimum D. Maximum - - correct ans- - Answer: C
  2. Which of the following is a good distance to use when positioning the ambulance at a crash scene? A. 50 feet from the crash scene

B. 100 feet from the crash scene C. 200 feet from the crash scene D. As close as possible - - correct ans- - Answer: B

  1. What's the most common type of crash involving an ambulance identified by data from New York State? A. Lateral impact at an uncontrolled intersection with low visibility B. Rollover due to high speed on a wet road C. Rear-end collision at a low speed with no weather issues D. Lateral impact at a controlled intersection with no weather issues - - correct ans- - Answer: D
  2. Limitations to air medical transport include? A. Lack of fuel B. Short distances C. Cost

D. Spinal injuries - - correct ans- - Answer: C In placenta previa the cervix is is blocked or partially occluded by the placenta. The most likely symptoms and signs are: A. Intermittent bleeding, accompanied by cramping B. Fetal hypoxia, maternal hypertension C. Painless bleeding D. There are no observable signs and symptoms - - correct ans- - Answer C In an abruptio placentae, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall causing: A.Severe pain, internal and possible external hemorrhage B.Minor bleeding that generally resolves itself quickly C. Severe pain, pedal edema D. Bleeding accompanied with right posterior shoulder pain. - - correct ans- - Answer A Changes to woman's cardiovascular system during pregnancy can be be summed up as: A. Heart rate, blood pressure and volume all increase B. Volume increases by 45%, systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 to 15, heart rate increases by 10 to 15 C. Variation is based on each ones individual response to the pregnancy D. Cardiac output decreases resulting in lower heart rate, and increased blood pressure - - correct ans- - Answer B Fetuses born after 28 weeks have an excellent chance of survival because: A. They have formed surfacant that is necessary for lung function.

B. Cardiovascular function is completely mature. C. Because at 28 weeks they are considered full term. D. At this point the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale have closed. - - correct ans- - Answer A It is important in neonates to remember that: A. They are obligate mouth breathers B. To check Apgar scores every 5 minutes during transport. C. If thier respirations are under 30 to assist with ventilations D. If the HR is less than 100 assist ventilations, and in less than 60 do compressions. - - correct ans- - Answer D If a neonate is delivered with thick meconium staining, it is important to: A. Suction and intubate. B. Be ready admister fluids as the beonate will be dehydrated C.Use a bulb syringes starting with the nose the mouth. D. Not panic - - correct ans- - Answer A Although rare _______ is one of the most common causes of maternal death following birth. A. Pneumonia B. Urinary track infection C. High space shock D. Pulmonary Embolism - - correct ans- - Answer D

  1. Immunity where an individual develops antibodies in response to a vaccine A. Passive immunity

B. Active immunity - - correct ans- - Answer: b

  1. Immunity acquired when antibodies are received through maternal circulation A. Passive immunity B. Active immunity - - correct ans- - Answer: a
  2. Lymph has the same composition as: A. White blood cells B. Intracellular fluid C. Adipose tissue D. Interstitial fluid - - correct ans- - Answer:d
  3. When is it not necessary to don protective eyewear A. Bleeding control with minimal bleeding B. Emergency childbirth C. Oral/nasal auctioning D. Endotracheal intubation - - correct ans- - Answer: a
  4. What kind of cell is activated during the inflammatory response A. B cells B. T cells C. Neutrophils

D. Lymphocytes - - correct ans- - Answer: c

  1. Which is not a common sign in meningitis A. Nuchal rigidity B. Sunken fontanelle C. Fever D. Seizure - - correct ans- - Answer: b
  2. Schizophrenia affects approximately what percentage of the U.S. population A.. B. 1 C. 4 D. 6 - - correct ans- - Answer: b
  3. Delirium has a rapid onset, whereas dementia is a chronic condition A. True B. False - - correct ans- - Answer: a
  4. The SAD CAGES acronym is a screening mnemonic for what psychological disease A. Schizophrenia B. Somatoform disorders C. Fugue state

D. Major depression - - correct ans- - Answer:d

  1. fibers carry impulses to the central nervous system from the body, , fibers carry impulses from the central nervous system to the body. A. Purkinje, dermatome B. Efferent, Afferent C. Afferent, Efferent D. Meningal, Synaptic - - correct ans- - Answer: C. Afferent, Efferent
  2. The main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is , while is the main neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine B. Seratonin, Epinephrine C. Epinephrine, Seratonin D. Norepinephrine, Acetylcholine - - correct ans- - Answer: A. Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine
  1. Assign the following cranial nerves to the corresponding area of control in order: III, V, VII, IX A. Facial, Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Vagus B. Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Facial, Vagus C. Vagus, Facial, Occulomotor, Trigeminal D. Trigeminal, Occulomotor, Facial, Vagus - - correct ans- - Answer: B. Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Facial, Vagus
  2. Rapid, deep respirations caused by severe metabolic and CNS problems are: A. Kussmaul B. Cheyne-Stokes C. Apneustic D. Ataxic - - correct ans- - Answer: A. Kussmaul
  3. results in the progressive degeneration of specific nerve cells that control voluntary movement eventually weakening the diaphragm, while is chronic

and progressive disorder characterized by low dopamine levels, tremors, bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability. A. Multiple Sclerosis, Muscular Distrophy B. Muscular Distrophy, Multiple Sclerosis C. ALS, Parkinson's Disease D. Alzheimer's, ALS - - correct ans- - Answer: C. ALS, Parkinson's Disease

  1. An stroke is a result of a cerebral artery blocked by a clot or foreign body, while a stroke is a result of bleeding within or in the area around the brain. A. Embolic, Thrombotic B. Occlusive, Embolic C. Hemorrhagic, Intracerebral D. Occlusive, Hemorrhagic - - correct ans- - Answer: D. Occlusive, Hemorrhagic
  2. Which are not vitals sign associated with Cushing's Triad?

A. Irregular Respirations, Increased Blood Pressure B. Decreased Blood Pressure, Irregular Respirations C. Increased Blood Pressure, Decreased Pulse D. Decreased pulse, Irregular Respirations - - correct ans- - Answer: B. Decreased Blood Pressure, Irregular Respirations