Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Community
Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts
Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users
Free resources
Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors
A set of questions and answers related to pathophysiology. The questions cover topics such as blood pressure, antigens, chest wall compliance, cancer treatment, renal changes, infectious diseases, and more. The answers provide explanations and details on the correct options. The document can be useful for students studying pathophysiology or preparing for exams in this field.
Typology: Exams
1 / 57
What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Hyperpolarization During the refractory period, no new cardiac action potential can be initiated by a stimulus. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the period described in the question. What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? 106/58 mm Hg
104/55 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg The suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9- year-old child is 106/ mm Hg. For a child of 6 to 7 years old, 104/55 mm Hg is appropriate; for a 12- to 13-year-old child, 112/62 mm Hg is appropriate, and for a 16- to 18- year-old young man, 121/70 mm Hg is appropriate. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Cancer cells Fungus Bacteria Of the options provided, endogenous antigens include only those uniquely produced by cancerous cells. An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A
wide fixed splitting of
the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. Chest wall compliance is higher in infants than it is in adults, particularly in premature infants. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Hair loss
Nausea Weight loss Fatigue Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. At birth, which statement is true? Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. From the available options, the only change that takes place in the circulation at birth is the shift of gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs.
What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Correct Answer Vitamin B 12 by injection Cyanocobalamin by oral intake Folate by oral intake Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Replacement of vitamin B 12 (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial injections of vitamin B 12 are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected, (^) followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual’s life. The other options are not treatments for PA. Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? Cholera Rocky Mountain spotted fever Sleeping sickness
Candida Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a result of a rickettsiae. Cholera is a bacterial infection, candida is a fungal infection, and sleeping sickness is a protozoal infection. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age. Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction, invasion of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation can cause pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the cancer has metastasized. During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? The nodes fill with purulent exudate. B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are not properly functioning. The nodes are inflamed. The B lymphocyte proliferation in response to significant antigen (e.g., during infection) may result in lymph node enlargement and tenderness (reactive lymph node). This description is not accurate for the other options.
What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Traumatic injury Despite the wide-scale implementation of progressive public health and immunization policies, infectious disease remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. The other options are not significant causes. Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Decrease in urine output Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Decrease in the number of nephrons With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily related to aging. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? 24 to 36 18 to 20 6 to 14 1 to 2 Antibody appears rather rapidly after infection through blood products, usually within 4 to 7 weeks. After sexual transmission, however, the individual can be infected yet seronegative for 6 to 14 months or, in at least one case, for years. Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? Neisseria syphilis
Treponema pallidum Chlamydia trachomatis Haemophilus ducreyi T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG T cells IgM Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever.
Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes Only monocytes migrate into a variety of tissues and fully mature into tissue macrophages and myeloid dendritic cells (see Table 27-3). In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Spleen Regional lymph nodes Thymus gland
Bone marrow B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs— the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells. Neither regional lymph nodes nor the spleen are involved in changing B lymphocytes into B cells. Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? V IX X VIII Only factor IX deficiency causes hemophilia B (Christmas disease). Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)
Chlamydia Adenovirus Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Alarm Adaptation Flight or fight Arousal Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and adaptation is not successful, ultimately causing impairment of the immune response, heart failure, and kidney failure, leading to death. The other stages occur before the adaptation stage. Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
Left ventricle Left atrium Right ventricle Right atrium Pressure is greatest in the systemic circulation, driven by the left ventricle. Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? Uromodulin Urodilatin Cystatin Nephrin Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein, also known as uromodulin, is the most abundant urinary protein, protects against bacterial adhesion and urolithiasis, and is
a ligand for lymphokines. This statement is not true of the other options.
Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Functional scar Thecal follicle Atretic follicle Corpus luteum Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum. The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Health history Computed tomographic (CT) scan Skull x-ray studies
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis Although the history may be supplemented with the remaining options, it remains the pivotal tool for establishing the cause of a seizure disorder. Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Alkaline phosphatase Calcium Total protein Phosphorus Of the available options, serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all forms of the disease. How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? It increases and strengthens the heart rate. The release of epinephrine causes shivering.
It raises the metabolic rate. It affects muscle tone. Epinephrine and norepinephrine produce a rapid transient increase in heat production by raising the body’s basal metabolic rate. The other options are not correct descriptions of the effects of epinephrine on body heat. Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Premenstrual syndrome Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Primary dysmenorrhea Polycystic ovary syndrome Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron-deficiency anemia. This option is the only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described.
What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? It becomes thinner. It becomes thicker. It assumes a neutral pH. It undergoes atrophy. Before puberty, vaginal pH is approximately 7 (neutral) and the vaginal epithelium is thin. At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. Cell atrophy is not associated with puberty. Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children.
Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Infants have low fluid reserves and relatively rapid peristalsis and metabolism. Therefore the danger of dehydration is great. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the reason prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children. The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations HLA associations and positive family history Autoantibodies and obesity Obesity and positive family history The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are positive family history and obesity. The other options are not believed to be important risk factors for this form of diabetes. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Polycystic ovary syndrome
Endometriosis Pelvic inflammatory disease Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States. Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Tenfold Fourfold Threefold Twofold Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent, even when raised by nonalcoholic parents, have a fourfold increased risk of developing the disorder.
Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Ligament Tendon Bursa Mesentery A tendon is fibrous connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to bone. None of the other options are associated with this function. Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? Volvulus Intussusception Congenital aganglionic megacolon
Malrotation Intussusception is the telescoping or invagination of one portion of the intestine into another section of intestine. Usually, the ileum invaginates the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve. The other terms are not used to describe this event. The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: Disunion Fracture Sprain Strain Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are associated with this damage. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Hyperkinesia