Pathophysiology 2023 module 04 exam (50 questions and answers), Exams of Pathophysiology

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Pathophysiology 2023 module 04 exam (50 questions and answers)

Question 1 Which of the following are associated with the ‘fight or flight’ response in a client? (Select all that apply) A. Increased heart rate B. Decreased heart rate C. Constricted pupils D. Increased blood pressure E. Dilated pupils F. Decreased blood pressure Question 2 Incorrect Which of the following are characteristics of fluid deficit? A. Thirst B. Tachycardia C. Weight loss D. Bounding pulses E. Altered level of consciousness CORRECT ANS: A, B, C, E Question 3 Which of the following typically causes contact dermatitis? A. Fungal infection B. A long-term disorder from gout C. Staphylococcal infection D. Contact with a skin allergen Question 4 Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves development of urticaria, or hives? A. Type IV B. Type I C. Type B D. Type III Question 5 Which of the following describes the autoimmune condition of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. Chronic inflammation in affected joints B. Inability to digest high calcium foods C. Hypermobility of the affected joints D. Increased ossification in the facial bones Question 6

Which condition indicates the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. A return to normal sympathetic nervous system function B. The ‘fight or flight’ response intensifies C. Stessor is prolonged and overwhelms the body D. Increased release of catecholamines and cortisol Question 7 Which condition leads to a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction resulting in a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance? A. Serum sickness B. Psoriasis C. Contact dermatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus Question 8 Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that causes a deficient immune response, which can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of the following cells are invaded by HIV to cause the immunodeficiency? A. Neutrophils B. CD4+ (T-Helper cells) C. Memory B cells D. IgG antibodies Question 9 Which condition indicates the resistance stage of general adaptation syndrome? A. Increased release of catecholamines and cortisol B. Inability to maintain homeostasis through compensatory mechanisms C. A return to normal sympathetic nervous system function D. Stressor is prolonged and has overwhelmed the body Question 10 Which of the following is an example of active immunity? A. Influenza vaccine during flu season B. Tetanus anti-toxin after stepping on a rusty nail C. IgA antibodies transferred to a newborn through breast milk D. Anti-rabies serum after being bitten by a bat Question 11 Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is characterized by the formation of immune complexes, which deposit in blood vessels or tissues throughout the body? A. Type II B. Type IV C. Type I D. Type III Question 12 Incorrect

The pathophysiology of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which of the following? A. Purine B. Vitamin C C. Pyrimidine D. Amino acid Question 13 What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease? A. Immune system dysfunction B. Having a history of psoriasis C. Buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint D. Wear-and-tear of a localized joint Question 14 An exaggerated concave curvature of the lumbar spine is known as which of the following? A. Scoliosis B. Lumbardosis C. Lordosis D. Kyphosis Question 15 Incorrect Which type of gangrene develops because of the presence of an anaerobic bacterium such as Clostridium? A. Wet gangrene B. Dry gangrene C. Gas gangrene D. Fournier gangrene Question 16 Which of the following terms describes the wasting away or deterioration of muscle? A. Myositis B. Atrophy C. Hypertrophy D. Ankylosis Question 17 Which condition is a lateral curvature of the spine that may affect the thoracic area, the lumbar area, or both? A. Osteoporosis B. Scoliosis C. Lordosis D. Hyphosis Question 18 Incorrect Which is the most common type of rejection reaction occurring four days to three months following a transplant? A. Chronic rejection reaction

B. Acute rejection reaction C. Immunosuppression

Hyperacute rejection reaction Question 19 Which of the following is an example of a matured monocyte that migrates from the blood into tissues and engulfs foreign antigens called? A. Macrophages B. Myeloid cells C. T-cells D. Stem cells Question 20 Incorrect The nurse observes redness and feels warmth in an area of cellulitis. Which of the following describes the direct cause of these clinical manifestations? A. An increase of white blood cells in the area B. Production of antibodies C. Increased interstitial fluid D. Increased blood flow to the area Question 21 Which of the following autoimmune disorders present with fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and the characteristic butterfly rash? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Scleroderma D. Sjogren’s syndrome Question 22 Which of the following effects describes the role of neutrophils during the inflammatory process? A. They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate the intrinsic clotting cascade B. They release histamine, a potent vasodilator C. They form antibodies to fight infection D. They remove microbes and cellular debris through the process of phagocytosis Question 23 The laboratory analysis conducted on a child with chronic nasal drainage reveals an elevated number of eosinophils on a white blood cells differential. Based on these findings, which is most likely the cause of the nasal drainage? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Allergies Question 24

Which of the following describes the role of mast cells in the inflammatory process? A. They form antibodies to fight infection B. They release histamine, a potent vasodilator C. They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate the intrinsic clotting cascade D. They remove microbes and cellular debris through the process of phagocytosis Question 25 Incorrect What is the expected range for serum sodium? A. 1.8 - 2.5 mg/dl B. 3.5 - 5 mEq/L C. 8.5 - 10.2 mg/dL D. 135-145 mEq/L Question 26 Which of the following is the normal range for serum potassium? A. 3.5 - 5 mEq/L B. 8.5 - 10.2 mg/dL C. 1.8 - 2.5 mg/dL D. 135 - 145 mEq/L Question 27 Which process involves an intracellular protein-containing vesicle fusing with the cell membranes and expelling the protein outside the cell? A. Endocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Phagocytosis D. Exocytosis Question 28 Which of the following intravenous solutions would cause fluid to shift from the intracellular space to the extracellular space? A. Isometric solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Hypertonic solution Question 29 A client has a serum potassium level of 1.9 mEq/L. Which of the following is a potential complication of this electrolyte imbalance? A. Skin discoloration B. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Immobility D. Bone fractures Question 30

Which condition would result from a blood pH of 7.6? A. Alkalosis B. Neutral C. Isotonic Acidosis Question 31 Which solution causes fluid to shift from the intravascular components to the intracellular space leading to the swelling of the cell? A. Hypertonic solution B. Hypotonic solution C. Isotonic solution D. Normal saline Question 32 A 32-year old was injured in a motor vehicle and confined to a bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of the muscle fibres decreased. The condition is referred to which of the following? A. Fibromyalgia B. Muscle atrophy C. Muscle hypertrophy D. myelodysplasia Question 33 What is a typical characteristic of pain caused by osteoarthritis A. Quite severe in early stages B. Decreases over time C. Aggravated by general muscle aching D. Increased with weight bearing and capacity Question 34 Children with osteogenesis imperfecta are at high risk of which of the following? A. Excessive growth B. Bone tumors C. Bone fractures D. Loss of vision Question 35 Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis? A. It is common in young individuals B. It is an inflammatory disease C. There is progressive loss of articular cartilage D. The shoulder joint is most commonly affected Question 36 A client with herniated intervertebral disc has experienced limited mobility and paresthesia of the lower extremities. Which of the following contains an explanation for this symptom? A. The client fractured his/her femur B. The client also injured their lower extremities when their intervertebral disc herniated

C. Pressure from the herniation on the spinal cord is interfering with nerve impulse transmission D. The client has compartment syndrome Question 37 Which arthritic musculoskeletal disorder is associated with localised joint pain, deformity and inflammation along with systemic signs and symptoms of the inflammatory response? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Gout Question 38 Which of the following conditions is a progressive inflammatory disorder in which joints calcify and fuse together in the spine and/or nearby areas? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Intervertebral disc herniation C. Osteoporosis D. Ankylosing spondylitis Question 39 Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine is known as which of the following? A. Lordosis B. Sclerosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Kyphosis Question 40 Which of the following term is used to describe abnormal new cellular growth? A. Apoptosis B. Suppressor genes C. Proto-oncogene D. Neoplasia Question 41 In which of the following stages of carcinogenesis do cancerous cells invade and metastasize? A. Remission B. Initiation C. Progression D. Promotion Question 42 Which describes a tumor that is encapsulated and unable to metastasize? A. Malignant B. Metastatic C. Necrotic D. Benign Question 43 What type of fracture occurs with an incomplete fracture of the bone and is shown in the image below?

A. Greenstick fracture B. Compression fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Transverse fracture Question 44 A client sustained burn injuries to the torso and legs. The injured skin area appeared blackened and charred with underlying adipose tissue exposed. Which type of burn occurred? A. Third degree burn B. Second degree burn C. First degree burn Partial thickness burn Question 45 After spending the day at the beach, a client appeared reddenned and swollen as shown in the image below. What type of burn occurred? A. Second degree burn B. Third degree burn C. First degree burn D. Partial thickness burn Question 46 Which of the following describes a furuncle? A. Erythema extending from an initial area of insult B. Bright red or painful area that may turn necrotic at the centre C. Firm, red painful nodule filled with purulent exudate D. Small vesicles that erupt forming a honey-colored crust. Question 47 Which process describes dividing one cell into two genetically identical and equal daughter cells? A. Mitosis B. Differentiation C. Meiosis D. Anaplasia Question 48 Which structure is a semipermeable lipid bilayer? A. Mitochondrion B. Cytosol C. Plasma membrane D. Ribosome Question 49 Which of the following describes homeostasis? A. Ability of the organism to successfully adapt to changes B. A state of equilibrium or balance within the organism to maintain usual function C. A process that allows water molecules to cross plasma membrane D. It is equivalent to the path of disease causation

Question 50 Incorrect Which acid-base imbalance would result from prolonged hyperventilation? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis