Pathophysiology Exam 1 Test Bank: Questions and Answers, Exams of Pathophysiology

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PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1

TEST BANK 2024-2025 LATEST

UPDATED GRADED A+.

An increase in cardiac size and function workload is termed: - Answer Atrophy While assessing a patient diagnosed with Marfan's Syndrome the nurse should include which of the following is consistent with the syndrome: A. cardiac assessment for coarctation of the aorta B. genital assessment for small testicles C. metal assessment for impairment D. oral assessment for cleft palate - Answer A. cardiac assessment for coarctation of the aorta Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet. Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of: A. fat B. Sugar C. Protein D. carbohydrates - Answer C. Protein A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. this is an example of A. primary prevention B. secondary prevention C. tertiary prevention D. disease treatment - Answer A. primary prevention Metaplasia is - Answer the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another During a routine ultrasound of a 38-year-old women 26 weeks’ gestation reveals a fetus with a small square head, upward slant of the eyes, and low set ears. The nurse recognizes that these findings are consistent with which of the following?

A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome) C. Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome) D. Trisomy X (Klinefelter's Syndrome) - Answer C. Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome) While discussing treatment options with a parent of a newly diagnosed Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome) child, the nurse should include which of the following? A. there is no treatment of cure B. symptoms of the condition are treated with estrogen C. symptoms of the condition are treated with testosterone D. institutionalization is the preferred methods of managing care - Answer B. symptoms of the condition are treated with estrogen Which of the following assessment findings indicates an altercation in homeostatic control mechanisms? A. Fever B. Throat Pain C. Joint Stiffness D. Positive throat culture - Answer A. Fever What information should parents be given about the consequences of phenylketonuria (PKU)? A. mental retardation is inevitable B. PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies C. High dietary tyramine may help induce enzyme production D. failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation. - Answer D. failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation. An injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called ____ Injury. A. Hypoxia B. Ischemic C. Hyperemic D. Neoplastic - Answer B. Ischemic Tay Sachs is caused by which of the following? A. A deficiency or absence of hexosaminidase A

B. A defect on chromosomes 17 or 22 C. A mutation on chromosomes 15 D. An error in converting phenylalanine to tyrosine - Answer A. A deficiency or absence of hexosaminidase A An Obese, but otherwise healthy teen goes to a health fair and has her blood pressure checked. This is an example of A. Primary prevention B. secondary prevention C. tertiary prevention D. disease treatment - Answer B. secondary prevention Characteristics of X-linked recessive disorders include which of the following? A. The son of a carrier mother has 25% chance of being affected B. Affected fathers transmit the gene to all of their sons C. All daughters of affected fathers are carriers D. Boys and girls are equally affected - Answer C. All daughters of affected fathers are carriers A factor associated with risk of down syndrome: A. Maternal Age B. maternal alcohol intake C. family history of heritable diseases D. Exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms - Answer A. Maternal Age Which type of gangrene is usually a result of arterial occlusion A. Necrosis B. Dry C. Wet D. Gas - Answer B. Dry The cancer growth continuum is divided into the following stages A. Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 3 B. Initiation, Progression, Promotion C. Preliminary, Evolutionary, Metastasis D. Initiation, Promotion, Progression - Answer D. Initiation, Promotion, Progression

A disease in which the principal manifestations is an abnormal growth of cells leading to formation of tumors is called a _______ Disease A. Congenital B. Degenerative C. Metabolic D. Neoplastic - Answer D. Neoplastic The activities of the cell are directed by which cell structure? A. Cytoplasma B. Organelles C. Cell Membranes D. Golgi Apparatus - Answer D. Golgi Apparatus Enzymes that use oxidation to convert food materials into energy are found in sausage-shaped structures called __________. A. Endoplasmic Reticulum B. ribosomes C. Mitochondria D. Golgi Apparatus - Answer C. Mitochondria Mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and centrioles are all examples of _____? A. Cell membranes B. Organelles C. Enzymes D. None of the above - Answer B. Organelles Choose the answer below that best completes the sentence: DNA is composed of _________ base chemicals called ___________. A. 4; adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine B. 3; nucleotide, deoxyribose, base C. 2; chromosomes, proteins D. None of the above - Answer A. 4; adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine Which of the terms below does not describe a method by which cells adapt to changing conditions? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Increased enzyme synthesis D. Necrosis - Answer D. Necrosis

Dysplasia of epithelial cells sometimes results from which of the following? A. Excessive sodium intake B. Chronic irritation or inflammation C. Increased enzyme synthesis D. Apoptosis - Answer B. Chronic irritation or inflammation The function of lysosomes is to: A. Break down particles or worn-out cellular components B. Convert food materials into energy C. Produce digestive enzymes and antibody protein D. Ain in cell division - Answer A. Break down particles or worn-out cellular components A _______ gene is one that produces an effect only in the homozygous state. A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Sex-linked D. Hemizygous - Answer B. Recessive A _______ gene expresses itself in either the heterozygous or the homozygous state. A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Sex-linked D. Hemizygous - Answer A. Dominant Genes carried on sex chromosomes are called ______ genes A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Sex-linked D. Hemizygous - Answer C. Sex-linked A common abnormality in females, _____ syndrome results from an absence of one X chromosome. A. Triple X B. Turner's C. Klinefelter's D. Down - Answer B. Turner's

______ Syndrome occurs in males when there is an extra X chromosome A. Triple X B. Turner's C. Klinefelter's D. XYY - Answer C. Klinefelter's A metastatic tumor is one that: A. has spread to a location from it site of origin B. shows slow expansion and well-differentiated cells C. cannot be classified easily D. invade deeply into the tissue where it arose - Answer A. has spread to a location from it site of origin A 2 day post-op heart transplant patient begins to have a fever and s/s of heart failure. The patient is more likely experiencing which of the following? A. Type I, IGE mediated hypersensitivity B. Type III, immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity C. Graft vs host disease D. Host vs graft disease - Answer D. Host vs graft disease Which of the following is a complication of chronic stress? A. Renal disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pathological fractures D. Increased susceptibility to illness - Answer D. Increased susceptibility to illness Within minutes after receiving an injection of penicillin, the pt complains of shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notifies the pt's healthcare provider b/c this patient is most likely experiencing which type of hypersensitivity? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV - Answer A. Type I During which of the following stages of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) has the body's coping methods been completely utilized? A. Alarm

B. Resistance C. Transference D. Exhaustion - Answer D. Exhaustion Which of the following is a chemical released from the sympathetic nervous system by the adrenal medulla that is responsible for many of the physiological symptoms of the "fight or flight" response? A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Corticotropin - Answer C. Epinephrine The nurse conducts group education for pt's with seasonal allergies, and teaches about the role of histamine. The nurse evaluates that the education has been effective when the pt make which response? A. "Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, so it is congested and stuffy" B. "Histamine is inhibited by allergies, therefore leading to the signs and symptoms" C. "Histamine constricts vessels, causing capillaries to become more permeable" D. "Histamine is primarily stored in phagocyte cells in the skin" - Answer A. "Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, so it is congested and stuffy" which of the following is an example of passive immunity? A. Immunization B. Transplant rejection C. Response to a disease D. Placental transfer of antibodies - Answer D. Placental transfer of antibodies What disease state results from an inability to differentiate self from non- self? A. Immunodeficiency B. Hypersensitivity C. Autoimmune D. Anaphylaxis - Answer C. Autoimmune Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of impaired immune function? A. 23-year-old female that is 5% above her ideal body weight

B. 79-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus C. 89-year-old male controlled hypertension D. 45-year-old female recently widowed - Answer B. 79-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus Which of the following situations represents a break in the "first line of defense" against infection A. an abnormally low total white blood cell (WBC) count B. A "shift to the left" on the WBC differential C. Use of an indwelling bladder catheter D. Poor nutritional status - Answer C. Use of an indwelling bladder catheter HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it A. Blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens B. causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells C. directly inhibit antibody production by B cells D. causes the destruction of T helper cells - Answer D. causes the destruction of T helper cells With which pt is it most important for the nurse to take special precautions because of an increased susceptibility to infection as a result of medical therapy. A. the 38 y/o women taking contraceptives B. the 38 y/o man w/ diabetes mellitus taking insulin C. the 58 y/o women w/ rheumatoid arthritis taking corticosteroids daily D. the 58 y/o man 5 years after a myocardial infraction taking aspirin daily. - Answer C. the 58 y/o women w/ rheumatoid arthritis taking corticosteroids daily Although skin manifestation may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus includes: A. lesions affecting the palms of hands and soles of feet B. dry, scaly patches in the antecubital area and behind the knees C. cracked, scaly areas in webs of fingers D. butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose - Answer D. butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose The nurse recognizes that which of the following is required for a diagnosis of AIDS

A. Lymphocytopenia B. Abnormally functioning macrophages C. CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/mm D. Increased production of incomplete and nonfunctional antibodies - Answer C. CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/mm Which statement made by the pt newly diagnosed w/ systemic lupus erythematosus indicates a need for further teaching about the course and management of this disease? A. "I will take my medication even if my symptoms improve" B. "I will report any fever to my health care provider immediately" C. "I will sunbathe as often as possible to ensure I get enough vitamin D" D. "I will not have my hair dyed, frosted, or permed unless I am in a period of remission" - Answer C. "I will sunbathe as often as possible to ensure I get enough vitamin D" Which of the following findings is a systemic sign of inflammation? A. Pain B. Loss of function C. Edema D. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate - Answer D. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate In context of aging, tertiary prevention refers to: A. Prevention of incident diseases, and geriatric conditions. B. early detection, treatment, and management of prevalent and recurrent condition C. Reducing the impact of comorbidity on physical functioning and premature mortality D. Public health promotion of preventive healthcare. - Answer C. Reducing the impact of comorbidity on physical functioning and premature mortality Which type of immunity is developed following injection of antibodies synthesized by another human or animal? A. Adaptive B. Active C. Innate D. Passive - Answer D. Passive The major disadvantage of passive immunity is that it:

A. is ineffective B. is expensive C. interferes w/ active immunization D. induces short-term protection - Answer D. induces short-term protection Which of the following is true about inflammation? A. It is specific response to an insult B. It requires previous exposure C. It is the second level of response to injurious agents D. It only lasts for short periods of time E. It exists in almost all chronic illnesses in the body - Answer E. It exists in almost all chronic illnesses in the body Which of the following is not part of the inflammation process? A. Contraction of vascular smooth muscle B. Increased blood flow C. Increased permeability of vessels D. Dialation of vessels E. Intracellular gaps in vessels which passage of large proteins. - Answer A. Contraction of vascular smooth muscle Which of the following are systemic effects from an inflammatory response? A. elevated temp. B. redness and swelling C. blisters D. pus - Answer A. elevated temp. What happens when the vasodilator histamine is released by the mast cells? A. the inflammatory process is ended B. blood platelets adhere to collagen fragments and begin the healing process C. blood vessels expand and become more permeable D. blood vessels constrict and become less permeable - Answer C. blood vessels expand and become more permeable Which of the following is an immunoglobin E (IgE)- mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

A. A transfusion reaction resulting from an infusion of incompatible blood into a person who has pre-existing antibodies directed against the transfused cells B. Organ or tissue damage resulting from deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the organs or tissues of an affected person C. An area of swelling and tenderness in the skin after an intradermal injection of protein material derived from the tubercle bacillus D. A penicillin reaction characterized by fall in blood pressure and respiratory distress after an injection of penicillin in a person who has become sensitized to penicillin as a result of a pervious penicillin injection - Answer D. A penicillin reaction characterized by fall in blood pressure and respiratory distress after an injection of penicillin in a person who has become sensitized to penicillin as a result of a pervious penicillin injection Autoimmune disease are caused by ________ A. authoantibodies B. non-self antigens C. self-antigens D. none of the above - Answer A. authoantibodies Lupus erythematosus is a common connective-tissue disease that is most frequently seen in _______ A. young women B. young men C. older women D. older men - Answer A. young women An important and serious infection in AIDS patients is a pneumonia caused by a small parasite that grows within pulmonary alveoli, called A. Pneumocystis carinii B. Chlamydia C. Toxoplasma D. The EB virus - Answer A. Pneumocystis carinii Which is NOT one of the common agents that causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients A. Pneumocystis carinii B. Cytomegalovirus C. mycobacterium avium-intracellulare D. Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

E. Toxoplasma gondii - Answer D. Corynebacterium Diphtheriae The main source of serum bicarbonate is obtained from: A. The kidneys B. Dietary intake C. Synthesis by the liver D. Medications containing sodium bicarbonate - Answer A. The kidneys While performing an admission assessment on a patient with the diagnosis of bone cancer, you determine that your patient has a history of Paget's disease. The patients family informs you that the patient has had some recent muscle weakness and personality changes. You would want to assess the patient's lab values for which of the following A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypocalcemia - Answer B. Hypercalcemia The major physiologic stimulus for thirst is: A. Polyuria B. Hyponatremia C. Hypovolmia D. Hypoglycemia - Answer C. Hypovolmia Which of the following would be appropriate treatments for the patient with respiratory alkalosis: A. Increase ventilation B. Sodium Bicarbonate IV C. Breath into paper bag D. Dialysis - Answer C. Breath into paper bag The health care provider orders an infusion of hypertonic solution, The nurse knows an appropriate intravenous solution to administer would be: A. 5% dextrose lactate ringers (D5LR) B. 1/2 normal saline (0.45% NS) C. Normal saline (0.9% NS) D. Ringers lactate (RL) - Answer A. 5% dextrose lactate ringers (D5LR) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by: A. Hypoventilation

B. Hyperventilation C. Decreasing arterial carbon dioxide D. Increasing bicarbonate ion excretion - Answer A. Hypoventilation Which of the following serum electrolyte value is abnormal? A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L B. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L C. Sodium 138 mg/dl D. Calcium 15.0 mEq/L - Answer D. Calcium 15.0 mEq/L Aldosterone's main effect increases _______ reabsorption while antidiuretic hormone's main effect increases ______ reabsorption: A. sodium; water B water; potassium C. potassium; sodium D. glucose; potassium - Answer A. sodium; water Which of the following signs would indicate a fluid deficit? A. Acute weight loss and increase in blood pressure B. tachycardia, acute loss of body weight, weakness, and dry mucous membranes C. physical weakness, weight gain, bradycardia, and decreased urine output D. dry fissured tongue, rapid respirations, weight gain, and confusion or delirium - Answer B. tachycardia, acute loss of body weight, weakness, and dry mucous membranes While assessing a patient with heart failure and renal impairment, the nurse notices 3+ pitting edema in his feet a bounding pulse, and severe shortness of breath. This patient probably experiencing which of the following. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Fluid volume deficit D. Fluid volume excess - Answer D. Fluid volume excess Classify the following arterial blood gas: pH=7.35, PaCO2= 50 mmHg, HCO3-= 29 mEq/L A. Compensated respiratory acidosis B. partially compensated respiratory acidosis

C. compensated metabolic acidosis D. partially compensated metabolic acidosis - Answer A. Compensated respiratory acidosis Classify the following arterial blood gas: pH= 7.52, PaCO2= 30 mm Hg, HCO3-= 24 mEq/L A. metabolic acidosis B. metabolic alkalosis C. respiratory acidosis D. respiratory alkalosis - Answer D. respiratory alkalosis Which of the following medication would you anticipate the order to treat hyperkalemia? A. Calcium gluconate B. Lactated ringers C. Arginine HCL D. Kayexalate - Answer D. Kayexalate A patient presents to the emergency room with a K level of 6.5. What potentially life threatening complication would you assess for? A. Cardiac dysrhythmias B. Decreased urine output C. Nausea and vomiting D. Ataxia - Answer A. Cardiac dysrhythmias The most reliable method for measuring a loss or gain of body water is: A. change in body weight B. serum sodium levels C. intake and output D. skin turgor - Answer A. change in body weight Capillary colloidal pressure is controlled by the: A. Plasma protein B. Red blood cells C. White blood cells D. serum sodium concentration - Answer A. Plasma protein A patient presents to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for three days. The patient's lab value is as follow: K 3.8, Na 149,

pH 7.32, HCO3- 20, and PaCO2 40. Which of the following intravenous fluids would you anticipate the doctor would order? A. 0.45% normal saline w/ 100 mEq/liter of sodium bicarbonate B. 0.95 normal saline with 40 mEq/liter of potassium C. 0.95% normal saline D. 2.5% Dextrose - Answer A. 0.45% normal saline w/ 100 mEq/liter of sodium bicarbonate Hypoventilation, aspiration of foreign bodies, and sleep apnea may cause: A. metabolic acidosis B. metabolic alkalosis C. respiratory alkalosis D. respiratory acidosis - Answer C. respiratory alkalosis Decreased neuromuscular excitability can be seen in which two electrolyte disorders? A. hypercalcemia & hypermagnesemia B. hyponatremia & hyperkalemia C. hypocalcemia & hypokalemia D. hypernatremia & hypomagnesemia - Answer A. hypercalcemia & hypermagnesemia Your renal failure on the hospital unit begins having severe diarrhea. You become concerned that your patient may develop which of the following? A. metabolic alkalosis B. metabolic acidosis C. respiratory alkalosis D. respiratory acidosis - Answer B. metabolic acidosis Insensible water losses are those that occur as the result of water that is lost in: A. urine B. breathing and sweating C. urine and bowel movements D. vomitus and bowel movements - Answer B. breathing and sweating The most appropriate therapy for an individual with hypernatremia is: A. volume expansion with normal saline B. administration of colloids C. hypotonic fluids

D. ACE inhibitors - Answer C. hypotonic fluids the normal osmolality of blood and body fluids is 300 mOsm/L. A person w/ severe diabetes and a greatly elevated blood glucose has a blood osmolarity of 370 mOsm/L. Which of the following events will result from the increased ismolarity? A. water shifts by osmosis from the cells into the extracellular fluid (ECF) B. no water shifts will occur between the cells and the extracellular fluids as a result of the higher osmolarity of the subject's blood and body fluids C. water shifts by osmosis from the extracellular fluid into the cells D. Equal amounts of water move from the cells into the ECF and from the ECF into the cells, and this there is no net change in the water content of either the cells or the ECF - Answer A. water shifts by osmosis from the cells into the extracellular fluid (ECF) Reduced capillary osmotic pressure can be caused by which of the following? A. dehydration B. low concentration of plasma proteins C. increase hydrostatic pressure in the vein during capillaries D. edema - Answer B. low concentration of plasma proteins A patient has severe chronic lung disease and is unable to excrete CO efficiently or oxygenate his blood adequately. What acid-base disturbance is likely to result from this condition? A. respiratory acidosis B. respiratory alkalosis C. metabolic acidosis D. metabolic alkalosis - Answer A. respiratory acidosis respiratory acidosis occurs moist commonly in which disease or condition? A. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus B. renal insufficiency C. emphysema D. potassium depletion - Answer C. emphysema metabolic alkalosis occurs in association w/ many diseases and conditions? A. excess loss of gastric juice due to vomiting B. ingestion of large amounts of sodium bicarbonate or other antacids

C. overproduction of ketone bodies D. excess secretion of corticosteroids by the adrenal glands - Answer C. overproduction of ketone bodies Which of the following is the major effect produced by an increase in the rate and depth of respiration? A. plasma PCO2 rises B. plasma PCO2 falls C. plasma PCO2 stays the same D. the pH shifts to the alkaline side of the physiologic range - Answer B. plasma PCO2 falls What is the main buffer in the extracellular fluid? A. phosphate buffer system B. bicarbonate-carbonic acid C. urea D. none of the above - Answer B. bicarbonate-carbonic acid Which of the following diseases or conditions does NOT cause metabolic acidosis? A. renal insufficiency (urenia) B. overproduction of ketone bodies (ketosis) C. overproduction of lactic acid (lactic acidosis) D. high blood PCO2 and carbonic acid due to inadequate pulmonary ventilation - Answer D. high blood PCO2 and carbonic acid due to inadequate pulmonary ventilation Aldosterone primarily affects which of the following? A. carbohydrate metabolism B. protein and fat metabolism C. salt and water metabolism D. protein and water metabolism - Answer C. salt and water metabolism A sprain involves: A. Stretching injury to a muscle or musculotendinout unit B. injury to a ligamentous structures that support a joint C. displacement and loss of articulation of bone ends within the joint capsule

D. partial dislocation in which bone ends with a joint are still in partial contact w/ each other - Answer B. injury to a ligamentous structures that support a joint A life-threatening complication of a fracture is: A. compartment syndrome B. fat embolism C. nonunion D. infection - Answer B. fat embolism A pt presents to the emergency room after a motor vehicle accident w/ obvious deformity and lack of function to the right lower leg. A x-ray of the extremity reveals that the tibia is broken into two pieces and fibia is broken into three pieces. The patient has more than likely suffered a: A. comminuted fracture B. greenstick fractureure C. impacted fracture D. spiral fracture - Answer A. comminuted fracture After a period of prolonged bed rest, the healthcare provider tells the pt that she has developed brittle bones. The nurse should explain to the pt that the prolong bedrest has resulted in: A. atrophy B. fractures C. contractures D. Osteoporosis - Answer D. Osteoporosis Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when: A. no movement of the break us detectable B. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone C. the fracture site and surrounding soft tissue are pain free D. a cast is no longer required to stabilize the break - Answer B. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone J.R is a 33 y/o lawyer who has sustained a leg fracture as a result of colliding w/ a tree while skiing. His fracture has been disgnosed as "compund, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibia". The type of fracture J.R sustained is best described as a bone. A. broken in two or more pieces B. cracked but not completely separated

C. broken along the long axis D. broken and protruding through skin - Answer D. broken and protruding through skin common early manifestation of fracture include which of the following : A. muscle flaccidity B. swelling at fracture site C. elevated white blood cells D. loss of sensation in affected extremity - Answer B. swelling at fracture site Which of the following would an appropriate treatment for mild scoliosis? A. bracing B. routine exercise C. smoking cessation D. calcium supplement - Answer A. bracing Compartment syndrome involves: A. nerve and blood vessel compression caused by swelling of tissues enclosed within muscle fascia B. large compartment on area of localized hemorrhage C. presence of a loose body with a joint space D. bleeding into a joint space - Answer A. nerve and blood vessel compression caused by swelling of tissues enclosed within muscle fascia to determine if a pt is experiencing compartment syndrome, which of the following is a priority for nursing assessment? A. edema at the fracture site B. deformity at the fracture site. C. presence of drainage on the cast. D. pain at fracture site above what would be expected - Answer D. pain at fracture site above what would be expected a 12 y/o pt comes into the ER w/ a strained wrist from a fall while skating. The appropriate intervention during the first 24 hours is to: A. keep the wrist in a dependent position to decrease stress on the ligaments B. apply ice packs to promote vasoconstriction C. apply heat packs to promote vasodilatation

D. apply traction to prevent muscle spasms - Answer B. apply ice packs to promote vasoconstriction which of the following persons is at highest risk for osteoporosis? A. 72 y/o caucasian female w/ a body mass index of 19 B. 70 y/o african american female w/ a BMI of 28 C. 40 y/o hispanic male that has been quadriplegic for 6 years D. 68 y/o caucasian male that has been wheelchair bound for 5 years - Answer A. 72 y/o caucasian female w/ a body mass index of 19 Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from: A. hypercalcemia B. estrogen deficiency C. phosphate excess D. vitamin D deficiency - Answer D. vitamin D deficiency RICE would be appropriate treatment protocol for which of the following diseases? A. paget's disease B. osteoarthritis C. sprains D. gout - Answer C. sprains prevention of osteoporosis focuses on: A. increasing phosphorus intake B. increasing weight-bearing exercise C. limiting soy intake D. limiting vitamin D intake - Answer B. increasing weight-bearing exercise Paget's disease: A. is a chronic, inflammatory, rheumatic, autoimmune disease B. is thought to be caused by a virus that induces osteoclast proliferation C. is a chronic, autoimmune, connective tissue disorder involving skin and other organs D. is an inadequate bone mineralization as a result of a deficiency of calcium and phosphorus - Answer B. is thought to be caused by a virus that induces osteoclast proliferation which of the following lab data would be most significant in the pt w/ paget's disease?

A. elevated white blood cell count B. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. elevated serum alkaline phosphatase D. positive tissue biopsy for staphylococcus - Answer C. elevated serum alkaline phosphatase what is an excessive lateral curvature of the spine. A. scoliosis B. kyphosis C. lordiosis D. anklosing spondylitis - Answer A. scoliosis A 40 y/o women presents to the clinic complaining of morning stiffness, fatigue, and loss of energy. Physical exam reveals hard, swollen joints, limited range of motion, deformity of the interphalangeal joints, fever, and systemic inflammatory responses. Laboratory results indicate an elevated sedimentation rate. The healthcare provider should suspect which of the following diseases? A. Gout B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus - Answer C. Rheumatoid Arthritis Which of the following persons is at the highest risk for developing pathological fractures? A. a highly active 2 y/o female B. 20 y/o male routinely participated in contact sports C. 40 y/o female w/ moderate scoliosis D. 68 y/o postmenopausal female w/ bone cancer - Answer D. 68 y/o postmenopausal female w/ bone cancer A 58 y/o obese man presents to the clinic w/ joint pain that worsens w/ activity and relieved by rest. Physical exam reveals joint stiffness and crepitis. These findings are consistent w/ which of the following diseases. A. osteoarthritis B. gouty arthritis C. reactive arthritis D. rheumatoid arthritis - Answer A. osteoarthritis The pathophysiology underlying gouty arthritis may be attributed to:

A. increase immune complexes within the joint cavity B. the presence of fibrous adhesions within bony cartilage C. an alteration in purine metabolism resulting in hyperuricemia D. excessive bone remodeling secondary to increased levels of phosphorus - Answer C. an alteration in purine metabolism resulting in hyperuricemia which of the following laboratory values would you expect for the patient w/gout due to under excretion? A. normal serum uric acid and elevated urine uric acid B. low serum uric acid and low urine uric acid C. high serum uric acid and normal uric acid D. high serum uric acid and low urine uric acid - Answer D. high serum uric acid and low urine uric acid Which of the following foods should you instruct the pt prone to gout to avoid? A. spinach B. crawfish C. chocolate D. potato chips - Answer B. crawfish The following are risk factors are arthritis except: A. overweight/obesity B. joint injuries C. infection in joints D. certain occupations E. all of the above are risk factors - Answer E. all of the above are risk factors _________ results in the failure of cartilage cells to maintain the balance between degradation synthesis of the supporting matrix. A. gout B. rheumatoid athritis C. osteoarthritis D. none of the above - Answer C. osteoarthritis Tertiary activities for osteoporosis include which of the following? A. education, diet B. exercise, fall prevention

C. medication, education D. bone density screening, medication - Answer B. exercise, fall prevention The most serious consequence of osteoporosis is: A. bad skin B. falls C. hip fractures D. loss of height - Answer C. hip fractures Osteoporosis is most likely to affect which group of people: A. adolescents B. young men and women C. middle age women D. older women - Answer D. older women Which of the following statements related to herniated intervertebral disk is INCORRECT? A. protrusion of the disk material may impinge on nerve roots that exit through intervertebral foramina. B. it usually results from chronic infection of the disk, which predisposes to the herniation C. protrusion of disk material may be detected against antigens in joint cartilage D. part of the nucleus pulposus is extruded through a weak area or tear in the annulus fibrosus - Answer B. it usually results from chronic infection of the disk, which predisposes to the herniation Which of the following statements regarding gout is INCORRECT? A. it is disturbance of purine metabolism B. it is associated w/ an autoantibody directed against antigens in joint cartilage C. uric acid may precipitate in tissues forming gouty tophi D. the frequency of attacks can be reduced by drugs that lower blood uric acid - Answer B. it is associated w/ an autoantibody directed against antigens in joint cartilage What is a pathologic fracture? A. A fracture in which the overlying skin is broken

B. A fracture that occurs in a weakened area of bone secondary to a disease involving the bone C. A fracture in which the bone is shattered into multiple pieces D. A fracture associated with an autoantibody - Answer B. A fracture that occurs in a weakened area of bone secondary to a disease involving the bone Which of the following conditions is NOT a characteristic manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis? A. autoantibodies directed against gamma globulin B. high levels of uric acid in the blood C. chronic inflammation of synovium D. involvement of the small joints of the hands and feet - Answer B. high levels of uric acid in the blood Which of the following statements does NOT apply to Myasthenia gravis? A. abnormal fatiguability of voluntary muscles B. associated w/ degeneration of motor nerve cells supplying the affected muscles C. associated w/ autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the myoneural junction of the muscle fibers D. symptoms of the disease are relieved by drugs that prolong the action of acetylcholine - Answer B. associated w/ degeneration of motor nerve cells supplying the affected muscles A deposit of uric acid in the soft tissues of gouty subject is called: A. calculus B. synovium C. tophus D. arthritis - Answer C. tophus All of the following conditions predispose to osteoporosis or increase the risk of osteoporosis EXCEPT: A. overweight B. low intake of calcium in the diet C. vitamin D deficiency D. white race E. female gender - Answer A. overweight

The active bone-forming cells that produce the collagenous bone matrix and secrete the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are called: A. osteocytes B. osteoblasts C. trabeculae D. osteoclasts - Answer B. osteoblasts Which of the following statements about scoliosis are CORRECT? (2 Answer s) A. scoliosis can be identified by examination of the spine when the teen is either standing upright or while bending forward B. usually a curvature progresses after the teenager stops growing C. thoracic curvature reduces the size of the thorax, interfering w/ lung function D. scoliosis never requires surgical treatment E. all of the above - Answer A. scoliosis can be identified by examination of the spine when the teen is either standing upright or while bending forward C. thoracic curvature reduces the size of the thorax, interfering w/ lung function A pt presents to the clinic w/ pain and burning sensation of the skin that begins on the right lower back and ends on the right lower abdomen. Physical exam reveals a silvery rash in that area. The nurse should suspect: A. herpes simplex B. herpes zoster C. psoriasis D. uticaria - Answer B. herpes zoster the virus that causes herpes zoster is the same one that causes: A. chickenpox in children B. Measles in children C. mumps in children D. Polio in children - Answer A. chickenpox in children While assessing a child, the nurse notes a circular area of erythema w/ hair loss on the scalp. The likely diagnosis for the condition is: A. tinea coropis