Pathophysiology Exams; Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update 2023, Exams of Nursing

Download Pathophysiology Exams; Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update 2023 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Pathophysiology Exams; Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update 2023 Exam 1  Question 1 A male client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of glucose transporters in his cell membranes. Consequently, his cells lack intracellular glucose, and it accumulates in his blood. Which of the following processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes? Selected Answer: D. Facilitated diffusion  Question 2 Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the number of layers. Which of the following is a correctly matched description and type of epithelial tissue? Selected Answer: B. Glandular epithelium: arises from surface epithelia and underlying connective tissue.  Question 3 To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes a chemical messenger system to: Selected Answer: D. Release secretions into extracellular fluid  Question 4 A student asks the instructor what it means when the book states, skeletal muscles are syncytial or multinucleated? The instructor responds: Selected Answer: C. “If a skeletal muscle is injured and a portion dies, the adjacent sections of that same skeletal muscle fiber do not die because they have their own nuclear material.”  Question 5 Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the “power plants” of the cell because they: A client presents to the clinic with a swollen, painful “hang nail” on the index finger. There is a large pustule over the site that needs to be lanced. The health care worker knows that which mediator of inflammation causes this increase in capillary permeability and pain? Selected Answer: D. Bradykinin  Question 16 A couple has chosen to pay for the harvesting and storage of umbilical cord blood after the delivery of their child to secure a future source of embryonic stem cells. What is the most likely rationale for the couple's decision? Selected Answer: D. The stem cells may be able to produce a wide range of body cells.  Question 17 A client underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process that characterizes this phase of the client's healing? Selected Answer: A. Collagen secretion by fibroblasts  Question 18 Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention? Selected Answer: B. A boy's “road rash” that he got by falling off his bicycle  Question 19 Epithelialization, the first component of the proliferative phase of wound healing, is delayed in open wounds until what type of tissue has formed? Selected Answer: A. Granulation tissue  Question 20 Which of the following clients would be considered a good candidate for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? Selected Answer: D. An older adult with history of diabetes and intermittent claudication (poor circulation in the legs) who received a laceration while on the lawnmower  Question 21 Which of the following statements is true of messenger RNA (mRNA)? Selected Answer: B. mRNA provides the template for protein synthesis.  Question 22 A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) asks the nurse why he has this disease, but his parents are perfectly healthy. The nurse explains: Selected Answer: D. Both parents are carriers and have a recessive genotype with alleles for CF.  Question 23 A pregnant female has been told she is a carrier for fragile X syndrome. She asks, “What does that mean?” The health care provider explains that she is heterozygous for fragile X recessive trait, but this will only be a problem if: Selected Answer: C. The expressed pairing becomes homozygous.  Question 24 A physiology instructor asks the students about the purpose of the promoter region on a DNA strand. Which student response is most accurate? Selected Answer: D. Contains amino acids that the RNA polymerase recognized and binds to, thus starting the replication process  Question 25 Which genetic disorders (body system) have a high requirement for oxidative metabolism associated with mitochondrial DNA? Selected Answer: B. Neuromuscular disorders  Question 26 A woman who is a carrier for which of the following diseases possesses the greatest likelihood of passing the disease to her future children when heterozygous pairing exists? Selected Answer: D. Neurofibromatosis  Question 27 Genetic disorders that involve a single-gene trait are characterized by: Selected Answer: A. Mendelian patterns of transmission  Question 28 Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is unlike other teratogens in that the harmful effects on the fetus: Selected Answer: C. Extend throughout the pregnancy  Question 29 The parents of a newborn infant are relieved that their baby was born healthy, with the exception of a cleft lip that will be surgically corrected in 10 or 12 weeks. Which of the nurse's following statements to the parent's best conveys the probable cause of the infant's cleft lip? Selected Answer: D. “Your child's cleft lip likely results from the interplay between environment and genes.”  Question 30 Which of the following meals would be considered high in folic acid intake? Selected Answer: B. Green leafy salad, beef and bean burrito on whole-wheat shell  Question 31  Question 43 A large surface wound is likely to heal by the process of primary intention. Selected Answer: False  Question 44 There are six bases that make up the alphabet of the genetic code. Selected Answer: False  Question 45 Messenger RNA carries the instructions for protein synthesis. Selected Answer: True  Question 46 Cleft lip and palate is an example of an autosomal dominant disorder. Selected Answer: False  Question 47 A teratogenic agent is an environmental agent that produces abnormalities only during the first 4 weeks of embryonic or fetal development. Selected Answer: False  Question 48 Cell differentiation is the process whereby proliferating cells are transformed into different and more specialized cell types. Selected Answer: True  Question 49 The Papanicolaou test is a cytologic method used to detect cancer cells. Selected Answer: True  Question 50 Surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy are the only identified treatment modalities for cancer. Selected Answer: False EXAM 2  Question 1 A client with a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse has a distended abdomen as a result of fluid accumulation in his peritoneal cavity (ascites). Which of the following pathophysiologic processes contributes to this third spacing? Selected Answer: B. Abnormal increase in transcellular fluid volume  Question 2 A very ill client has been admitted to the hospital for testing for possible septic shock. The client reports light-headedness, dizziness, and tingling/numbness of the fingers and toes. The nurse understands that this is likely due to which physiological phenomenon? Selected Answer: C. Decrease in cerebral blood flow  Question 3 As other mechanisms prepare to respond to a pH imbalance, immediate buffering is a result of increased: Selected Answer: B. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid regulation  Question 4 Of the following clients, which would be at highest risk for developing hyperkalemia? Selected Answer: A. A male admitted for acute renal failure following a drug overdose  Question 5 Magnesium is important for the overall function of the body because of its direct role in: Selected Answer: D. DNA replication and transcription  Question 6 A student is participating in an extended fast as part of a charitable fundraising effort. Which of the following is an example of the physiologic reserve that will facilitate the student's adaptation to the stress of this sudden change in diet? Selected Answer: B. The student's adipose tissue contains large and accessible stores of energy.  Question 7 A nurse working at nights is constantly complaining of being tired and sick. It seems like she catches every illness that is on the unit. One possible reason for this may relate to: Selected Answer: D. Alterations in sleep–wake cycle have decreased her immune function.  Question 8 Two people experience the same stressor, yet only one is able to cope and adapt adequately. An example of the person with an increased capacity to adapt is the one with: Selected Answer: A. A sense of purpose in life  Question 9 A client is extremely anxious about his impending surgery. Which of the following measures should the nurse implement to create an atmosphere for effective use of relaxation techniques? Selected Answer: C. A quiet, dim environment  Question 10 Which of the following emergency department clients is most likely demonstrating clinical manifestations of acute stress? A client with: Selected Answer: A. An acute heightened sense of alertness to surroundings and personnel  Question 11 Disseminated intravascular coagulation  Question 22 A 23-year-old female client has been diagnosed with von Willebrand disease following a long history of “heavy periods” and occasional nosebleeds. Which of the client's following statements demonstrates a sound understanding of her new diagnosis? Selected Answer: A. “I'll make sure to take Tylenol instead of aspirin when I get aches and pains.”  Question 23 In immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), the client has what type of disorder that primarily destroys which blood component? Selected Answer: B. Autoimmune; platelets  Question 24 During a client's admission assessment prior to reduction mammoplasty surgery, the nurse notes a reference to a Leiden mutation in the client's history. The nurse assesses this client for an increased risk of developing which of the following postsurgical complications? Selected Answer: D. Deep vein thrombosis  Question 25 Blood coagulation is initiated by either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway. The final step in both pathways would be: Selected Answer: A. Activation of factor X, leading to conversion of prothrombin II to thrombin IIa  Question 26 For which of the following health problems is stem cell transplantation likely to be of therapeutic benefit? Selected Answer: A. Aplastic anemia  Question 27 A 6-month-old infant was born with a murmur. The pediatrician is recommending valve replacement/repair surgery based on which of the following lab values indicating intravascular hemolysis? Selected Answer: C. Excess of hemoglobin in the blood plasma (hemoglobinemia)  Question 28 An infant from parents of Mediterranean decent has been diagnosed with a severe form of β- thalassemia anemia. The nurse caring for this infant knows that the infant will likely receive which of the following medical treatments? Selected Answer: D. Transfusion therapy  Question 29 Polycythemia develops in clients with lung disease as a result of: Selected Answer: B. Chronic hypoxia  Question 30 Conditions that predispose to sickling of hemoglobin in persons with sickle cell anemia include: Selected Answer: A. Decreased oxygen saturation  Question 31 A client asks why he has not had major heart damage since his cardiac catheterization revealed he has 98% blockage of the right coronary artery. The nurse's best response is: Selected Answer: C. “You have small channels between some of your arteries, so you can get blood from a patent artery to one severely blocked.”  Question 32 Upon admission assessment, the nurse hears a murmur located at the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. The client asks, “What does that mean?” The nurse will base her answer on which of the following physiologic principles? Selected Answer: D. “You have a heart valve that is diseased.”  Question 33 A male client with a history of angina has presented to the emergency department with uncharacteristic chest pain, and his subsequent ECG reveals T-wave elevation. This finding suggests an abnormality with which of the following aspects of the cardiac cycle? Selected Answer: B. Ventricular repolarization  Question 34 Following a hypertensive crisis, a client's family asks, “Why are the client's eyes so bloodshot?” The nurse responds that high arterial pressure: Selected Answer: A. Damages more fragile blood vessels like those in the eyes to the point of rupture  Question 35 Heart muscle differs from skeletal muscle tissue by being able to generate: Selected Answer: A. Action potentials  Question 36 The extracellular compartment contains approximately two thirds of the body water in healthy adults and is the larger of the two compartments. Selected Answer: False  Question 37 Decreased vascular volume would yield manifestations such as full and bounding pulses, venous distension, and signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema, such as shortness of Question 2 Atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease is symptomatic with at least 50% occlusion. The primary peripheral symptom, due to ischemia, is: Selected Answer: B. Calf pain Question 3 A client consistently has an elevated systolic BP greater than 150 mm Hg but a diastolic pressure in the 80s. The health care provider should be assessing for which of the following complications? Selected Answer: B. Crackles in bilateral lung bases caused by left-sided heart failure Question 4 A 52-year-old man who is moderately obese has recently been diagnosed with hypertension by his primary care provider. Which of the client's following statements indicates a need for further health promotion teaching? Selected Answer: D. “I'm resolving to eat organic foods from now on and to drink a lot more water.” Question 5 A 29-year-old woman who considers herself active and health conscious is surprised to have been diagnosed with preeclampsia–eclampsia in her second trimester. What should her care provider teach her about this change in her health status? Selected Answer: C. “We don't really understand why some women get high blood pressure when they're pregnant.” Question 6 Which elevated serum marker for systemic inflammation is now considered a major risk factor for atherosclerosis and vascular disease? Selected Answer: A. C-reactive protein Question 7 Which of the following clients should most likely be assessed for orthostatic hypotension? Selected Answer: C. An 80-year-old elderly client who has experienced two falls since admission while attempting to ambulate to the bathroom Question 8 Which of the following assessment findings would be suggestive of cardiac tamponade? Selected Answer: B. A 20 mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure during respiration Question 9 A child's history of a recurrent sore throat followed by severe knee and ankle pain has resulted in a diagnostic workup and a diagnosis of rheumatic fever. What are the treatment priorities for this child? Selected Answer: B. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory drugs Question 10 Football fans at a college have been shocked to learn of the sudden death of a star player, an event that was attributed in the media to “an enlarged heart.” Which of the following disorders was the player's most likely cause of death? Selected Answer: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) Question 11 The plaques in a client's coronary arteries are plentiful, and most have small- to moderate-sized lipid cores with thick fibrous caps. This form of atherosclerosis is most closely associated with which of the following diagnoses? Selected Answer: A. Stable angina Question 12 On the 3rd day following an acute myocardial infarction, the client is being discharged home. The nurse is explaining how the heart tissue heals following an MI. “Since today is your 3rd day after your heart attack, the tissue is: Selected Answer: C. Acutely inflamed.” Question 13 The nurse would anticipate that which of the following clients would be considered a good candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)? Selected Answer: A. A 56-year-old with a history of MI experiencing new-onset chest pain and ST elevation Question 14 The most recent blood work of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure indicates increased levels of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). What is the most likely effect of these peptides on the client's physiology? Selected Answer: D. Inhibition of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system Question 15 An 86-year-old male client is disappointed to learn that he has class II heart failure despite a lifelong commitment to exercise and healthy eating. Which of the following age-related changes predisposes older adults to developing heart failure? Selected Answer: B. Increased vascular stiffness Question 16 In the ICU setting, clients who develop shock need thorough head-to-toe assessments. Which of the following clinical manifestations would alert the health care provider that the client may be developing ischemia associated with gastrointestinal redistribution of blood flow? Selected Answer: A. Gastric bleeding Question 17 Severe shock can be followed by acute lung injury/acute respiratory distress syndrome (ALI/ARDS) characterized by: Selected Answer: D. Ventilation–perfusion mismatch Question 18 Assessment of an elderly female client reveals the presence of bilateral pitting edema of the client's feet and ankles and pedal pulses that are difficult to palpate. Auscultation of the client's lungs reveals clear air entry to bases, and the client's oxygen saturation level is 93%, and vital signs are within reference ranges. What is this client's most likely health problem? Selected Answer: A. Right-sided heart failure Question 19 A client with a diagnosis of heart failure has returned from a visit with his primary care provider with a prescription for a change in his daily medication regimen. Which of the following drugs is likely to improve the client's cardiac function by increasing the force and strength of ventricular contractions? Selected Answer: A. A cardiac glycoside Question 20 Clients who have been bed-ridden for a long time likely will experience: Selected Answer: C. Shallow, quiet breathing, which impairs the spreading of surfactant Question 21 When a client with a history of asthma takes a walk outside on a windy day with high pollen counts, she may experience an asthma attack, resulting in an increase in respiration rate and wheezing. The body's response is likely related to which pathophysiological principle? Selected Answer: B. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation resulting in airway constriction Question 22 A college student is training for a marathon in the mountains. One day, she experiences a sharp pain and suddenly becomes short of breath. At the emergency room, chest x-ray reveals a spontaneous pneumothorax. The client asks the nurse to explain why this happened. The nurse states, “For unknown reasons, you lose intrapleural negative pressure. Selected Answer: D. This means your lungs collapsed and expelled its air when you lose negative pressure.” Question 23 Generalized acute hypoxia in lung tissue, when alveolar oxygen levels drop below 60 mm Hg, causes pulmonary: Selected Answer: D. Vasoconstriction Question 24 COPD clients live with persistently elevated PCO2 levels. Therefore, which assessment finding would likely initiate a stimulus for ventilation in this client population? Selected Answer: C. PO2 level of 50 mm Hg Question 25 Bronchial circulation differs from the pulmonary circulation by providing blood for the: Question 42 The heart extracts and uses 60% to 80% of oxygen in blood flowing through the coronary arteries. Selected Answer: True Question 43 Decreased cardiac output will lead to an increase in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate. Selected Answer: False Question 44 Myocardial hypertrophy is a long-term mechanism by which the heart compensates for increased workload. Selected Answer: True Question 45 The peripheral chemoreceptors monitor arterial oxygen levels and will stimulate respirations when the PO2 has dropped below 60 mm Hg. Selected Answer: True Question 46 Deoxygenated blood leaves the right heart through the pulmonary veins. Selected Answer: False Question 47 Acute bronchiolitis is a viral infection that has a peak incidence between 3 to 6 months of age and is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Selected Answer: True Question 48 Influenza is a viral infection that can affect the upper and lower respiratory tracts and is transmitted by aerosol or direct contact. Selected Answer: True Question 49 Extrinsic or atopic asthma is typically initiated by a type I hypersensitivity reaction induced by exposure to an antigen or allergen. Selected Answer: True Question 50 Pleural, musculoskeletal, and myocardial pain are similar in description and almost impossible to differentiate. Selected Answer: False Exam #4 Question 1 While explaining the tubular role in reabsorption, the nurse will stress that a diet high in sodium intake will result in sodium reabsorption in which of the following renal locations? Selected Answer: C. Proximal convoluted tubule Question 2 Which of the following clients is benefiting from the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone mechanism? Selected Answer: B. A college student admitted to the neurotrauma unit following traumatic brain injury requiring surgery to evacuate a large hematoma Question 3 A client who has been diagnosed with Addison disease will likely experience which of the following lab results related to the absence of aldosterone? Selected Answer: A. Serum potassium levels elevated Question 4 Which of the following aspects of kidney function is performed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus? Selected Answer: D. Matching changes in GFR with renal blood flow Question 5 Clients with CKD are at risk for demineralization of their bones since they are no longer able to: Selected Answer: C. Transform vitamin D to its active form Question 6 When the glomerular transport maximum for a substance such as blood glucose is exceeded and its renal threshold has been reached, the substance will: Selected Answer: A. Spill into the urine Question 7 A child is recovering from a bout with group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. They return to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. The health care provider suspects the child has developed: Selected Answer: A. Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis Question 8 A client has recently undergone successful extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) for the treatment of renal calculi. Which of the following measures should the client integrate into his lifestyle to reduce the risk of recurrence? Selected Answer: D. Increased fluid intake and dietary changes Question 9 An obese, male client with a history of gout and a sedentary lifestyle has been advised by his primary care provider to avoid organ meats, certain fish, and other foods that are high in purines. The care provider is demonstrating an awareness of the client's susceptibility to which of the following types of kidney stones? Selected Answer: D. Uric acid stones Question 10 The most recent assessment of a client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes indicates a heightened risk of diabetic nephropathy. Which of the following assessment findings is most suggestive of this increased risk? Selected Answer: C. Microalbuminuria Question 11 Prior to undergoing diagnostic testing with contrast, it is recommended that older adult clients have their creatinine level checked. The rationale for this is to ensure the client: Selected Answer: C. Will not undergo an acute kidney injury by decreasing renal blood flow Question 12 A client has been given the diagnosis of diffuse glomerulonephritis. They ask the nurse what diffuse means. The nurse responds: Selected Answer: B. All glomeruli and all parts of the glomeruli are involved. Question 13 Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR), with a serum creatinine level that remains in the normal range, is associated with aging because elderly persons tend to have reduced: Selected Answer: D. Muscle mass Question 14 A client had excessive blood loss and prolonged hypotension during surgery. His postoperative urine output is sharply decreased, and his blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is elevated. The most likely cause for the change is acute: Selected Answer: D. Tubular necrosis Question 15 A drug abuser was found unconscious after shooting up heroin 2 days prior. Because of the pressure placed on the hip and arm, the client has developed rhabdomyolysis. The nurse knows this can: Selected Answer: D. Obstruct the renal tubules with myoglobin and damage tubular cells Question 16 Which of the following individuals likely faces the greatest risk for the development of chronic kidney disease? Selected Answer: D. A client with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes who does not monitor his blood sugars or control his diet Question 17 A client is beginning to recover from acute tubular necrosis. The nurse would likely be assessing which of the following manifestations of the recovery phase of ATN? Selected Answer: D. Diuresis Question 18 A college student goes to the campus health office complaining of diarrhea, lower right abdominal pain, and weight loss. Suspecting Crohn disease, the nurse will assess for which complication associated with this diagnosis? Selected Answer: A. Urine that has the look and smell of feces Question 34 The nurse caring for a client with diverticulitis should assess for which of the following clinical manifestations? Selected Answer: B. Lower left quadrant pain Question 35 A 60-year-old male client has presented to his primary care provider to follow up with his ongoing treatment for peptic ulcer disease. What is the most likely goal of this client's pharmacologic treatment? Selected Answer: B. Inhibiting gastric acid production Question 36 Acute gastritis refers to a transient inflammation of the gastric mucosa that is most commonly associated with: Selected Answer: D. Alcohol intake Question 37 The activation of vitamin A, which is important for intestinal reabsorption of calcium, occurs in the kidney. Selected Answer: False Question 38 The kidneys perform both excretory and endocrine functions. Selected Answer: True Question 39 Large molecules, such as protein, easily cross the glomerular wall. Selected Answer: False Question 40 Pyelonephritis is often inherited as a Mendelian trait. Selected Answer: False Question 41 Diabetes mellitus and hypertension are two major causes of glomerular injury. Selected Answer: True Question 42 Acute renal failure is not a reversible process. Selected Answer: False Question 43 During chronic renal failure, the activation of vitamin D is increased. Selected Answer: False Question 44 Flaccid bladder dysfunction is a neurogenic disorder of the bladder in which bladder emptying is impaired. Selected Answer: True Question 45 The storage and emptying of urine involves voluntary (somatic nervous system) control only. Selected Answer: False Question 46 The gastrointestinal tract is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Selected Answer: True Question 47 The gastrointestinal tract is the largest endocrine organ in the body. Selected Answer: True Question 48 C. difficile and E. coli are two types of viral infections that affect the gastrointestinal system. Selected Answer: False Question 49 Two of the major causes of gastric irritation and ulcer formation are aspirin or nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and infection with Helicobacter pylori. Selected Answer: True Question 50 A peptic ulcer affects a single layer of the stomach or duodenum. Selected Answer: False EXAM #5 Question 1 A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum. Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? Selected Answer: D. Exotoxins Question 2 A public health nurse notes an increase in regional throat cancer cases. Upon epidemiological studies, many of the throat cancer clients also had oral exposure to human papillomavirus (HPV). This exposure to HPV would be considered by: Selected Answer: A. Direct contact with infected secretions Question 3 A premature neonate in the ICU suspected of having an infection has blood drawn for class specific antibodies. Which of the following confirms that the neonate has developed a congenital infection? Selected Answer: C. IgM antibodies are elevated. Question 4 A client's primary care provider has ordered direct antigen detection in the care of a client with a serious symptomatology of unknown origin. Which of the following processes will be conducted? Selected Answer: B. Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the client Question 5 Following delivery, the parents have chosen to have their infant's cord blood frozen. A blood test is performed on the cord blood and found to contain IgM antibodies. The nurse interprets this to mean: Selected Answer: B. The infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection. Question 6 A client who was exposed to hepatitis A at a local restaurant has recovered from the disease. At her annual physical, the client asks the health care provider if she should go to her health department and get the hepatitis A “shot.” The best response, based on the concepts of adaptive immunity, by the health care provider would be: Selected Answer: D. “No, since having an active case, you have already developed antigens against hepatitis A.” Question 7 A 1-day-old infant was exposed to an infectious microorganism prior to discharge home from the hospital, but was able to affect a sufficient immune response in the hours and days following exposure. The nurse knows that which of the following immunoglobulins assisted with this process? Selected Answer: D. IgG Question 8 A client's exposure to an antibiotic-resistant microorganism while in the hospital has initiated an immune response. Which of the following is responsible for the mediated and regulated actions that occur in this situation? Selected Answer: B. Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces, binding to specific receptors Question 9 Question 26 The immune suppressive and anti-inflammatory effects of cortisol cause: Selected Answer: A. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis Question 27 Which of the following individuals displays the precursors to acromegaly? Selected Answer: C. An adult with an excess of growth hormone due to an adenoma Question 28 A 33-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of Graves disease. Which of the following assessments should the client's care team prioritize? Selected Answer: C. Assessment of the client's vision and oculomotor function Question 29 The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves disease. When assessing this client, the nurse should put priority on which of the following signs/symptoms? Selected Answer: C. Ophthalmopathy Question 30 A young child develops type 1A diabetes. The parents ask, “They tell us this is genetic. Does that mean our other children will get diabetes?” The best response by the health care provider would be: Selected Answer: D. “This autoimmune disorder causes destruction of the beta cells, placing your children at high risk of developing diabetes.” Question 31 Which of the following insulin administration regimens is most likely to result in stable blood glucose levels for a client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes? Selected Answer: D. Intermediate-acting insulin at 8:00 AM and 8:00 PM with rapid-acting insulin before each meal Question 32 Which of the following clients would be considered to be exhibiting manifestations of “prediabetes”? Selected Answer: B. A middle-aged overweight adult with a fasting plasma glucose level of 122 with follow-up OGTT of 189 mg/dL. Question 33 Which of the following pregnant women likely faces the greatest risk of developing gestational diabetes? A client who: Selected Answer: A. Is morbidly obese defined as greater than 100 pounds over ideal weight Question 34 Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease and “mad cow disease” are examples of prion-associated diseases. Selected Answer: True Question 35 Viruses are capable of replication outside of a living cell. Selected Answer:False Question 36 Active immunity is acquired through immunization or actually having the disease. Selected Answer: True Question 37 Adaptive immunity (also called acquired immunity) refers to immunity that is acquired through previous exposure to infectious and other foreign agents. Selected Answer: True Question 38 An HIV-infected person can only transmit the virus when symptoms are present and the antibody test is positive. Selected Answer: False Question 39 Severe combined immunodeficiency is a disorder that results from the loss of B-cell function as well as T-cell function. Selected Answer: True Question 40 Most STIs are transmitted by direct sexual contact. Selected Answer: True Question 41 The incidence and prevalence of most sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are decreasing. Selected Answer: False Question 42 Genital herpes is the most common cause of genital ulcers in the United Sates and is caused by a bacterial organism. Selected Answer: False Question 43 Hepatitis, inflammation of the liver, is of bacterial origin. Selected Answer: False Question 44 Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is caused by precipitation of substances contained in bile, mainly cholesterol and bilirubin. Selected Answer: True Question 45 All hormones can cross the cell membrane. Selected Answer: False Question 46 The hypothalamus controls the release of pituitary hormones. Selected Answer: True Question 47 Primary adrenal insufficiency, or Addison disease, is caused by destruction of the adrenal gland. Selected Answer: True Question 48 Hypothyroidism is evidenced by an increased metabolic rate, restlessness, irritability, tachycardia, diarrhea, and heat intolerance. Selected Answer: False Question 49 All cells can use fatty acids interchangeably with glucose for energy. Selected Answer: False Question 50 Insulin is produced by the pancreatic beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. Selected Answer: True EXAM 6 Question 1 Following a car accident that has resulted in partial amputation of the lower limbs, the client's body has implemented a compensatory mechanism releasing antidiuretic hormone (ADH) into the blood stream, causing retention of water and vasoconstriction of blood vessels. This is accomplished as a result of: Selected Answer: A. Rapid axonal transport of ADH from the hypothalamus into the posterior pituitary Question 2 Following a stroke, injury to nerve cells within the central nervous system needs to be repaired. The health care provider knows that which of the following processes explains how this occurs? Selected Answer: D. Astrocytes fill up the space to form a glial scar, repairing the area and replacing the CNS cells that cannot regenerate. Question 3 Which area of the brain is responsible for respiration? Selected Answer: C. Brain stem Question 4 The perception of “where” a stimulus is in space and in relation to body parts is a function of the: Selected Answer: B. Parietal lobe A client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis has required a mastectomy for the treatment of breast cancer. The surgery has been deemed a success, but the client has gone into a myasthenic crisis on postoperative day 1. Which of the following measures should the care team prioritize in this client's immediate care? Selected Answer: D. Respiratory support and protection of the client's airway Question 22 Which of the following statements by the husband of a client with Alzheimer disease demonstrates an accurate understanding of his wife's medication regimen? Selected Answer: B. “I'm really hoping these medications will slow down her mental losses.” Question 23 Which of the following pathophysiologic processes occurs in cases of bacterial meningitis? Selected Answer: C. Inflammation allows pathogens to cross into the cerebrospinal fluid. Question 24 A client with a history of a seizure disorder has been observed suddenly and repetitively patting his knee. After stopping this repetitive action, the client appears confused but is oriented to person and place but not time. What type of seizure did this client most likely experience? Selected Answer: C. Focal seizure with impairment to consciousness Question 25 Common manifestations of acute meningococcal meningitis, a highly contagious and lethal form of meningitis, include: Selected Answer: C. Petechiae Question 26 A client's emergency magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has been examined by the physician and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) has been administered to the client. What was this client's most likely diagnosis? Selected Answer: A. Ischemic stroke Question 27 Which of the following individuals has the highest chance of having a medulloblastoma? Selected Answer: B. A 4-year-old child who has become uncoordinated in recent months Question 28 A family brings a client to the emergency department with increasing lethargy and disorientation. They think the client had a seizure on the drive over to the hospital. The client has been sick with a “cold virus” for the last few days. On admission, the clients' temperature is 102°F. Which other clinical manifestations may lead to the diagnosis of encephalitis? Selected Answer: D. Impaired neck flexion resulting from muscle spasm Question 29 Which of the following signs and symptoms is most indicative of Ménière disease? Selected Answer: C. Rotary vertigo and tinnitus Question 30 One of the causes of conductive hearing loss is: Selected Answer: C. Excess middle ear fluid Question 31 Frustrated by her worsening tinnitus, a 55-year-old female client has sought care. Which of the following teaching points should the clinician provide to the client? Selected Answer: B. “Initially, there are some changes in your diet that you should implement.” Question 32 A client presents to the clinic complaining, “I have something in my eye.” When questioned, the client admits to a scratching and burning sensation and light sensitivity. The health care provider suspects the client has developed: Selected Answer: A. Conjunctivitis Question 33 A client presents to the emergency department complaining of loss of part of his vision. An MRI with contrast reveals multiple aneurysms of the circle of Willis. The client is diagnosed with “bitemporal heteronymous anopia.” For this client, what effect will this have on his vision? Selected Answer: C. With both eyes open, the client has full binocular visual fields Question 34 A 78-year-old female client has been scheduled for outpatient cataract surgery. While taking a presurgery history, which statement by the client correlates to the surgical procedure? Selected Answer: D. “I have blurred vision in both my eyes and my visual is distorted.” Question 35 A client seeks medical care when he wrecks his care because of poor eyesight. At the time of admission, his blood glucose level was 390 mg/dL. The client is diagnosed with diabetes (type 2). The ophthalmologist must perform an urgent intravitreal injection. The nurse explains this to the client by stating the doctor will: Selected Answer: B. Put a needle with syringe into your eyeball and inject some medication to decrease active bleeding. Question 36 The brain is divided into three regions: the hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain. Selected Answer: True Question 37 The CSF helps maintain a constant ionic environment that serves as a medium for diffusion of nutrients, electrolytes, and metabolic end products into the extracellular fluid surrounding CNS neurons and glia. Selected Answer: True Question 38 The dorsal horn cell columns contain the afferent (sensory) neurons and the ventral horn cell columns contain the efferent neurons. Selected Answer: True Question 39 Pain tolerance is physiologically identical between individuals. Selected Answer: False Question 40 The somatosensory system relays information to the CNS about four major body sensations: touch, temperature, pain, and body position.. Selected Answer: True Question 41 The myelinated fibers provide slow transmission of pain from the receptor to the spinal cord. Selected Answer: False Question 42 Paralysis refers to weakness or incomplete loss of muscle function. Selected Answer: False Question 43 Autonomic dysreflexia represents an acute episode of exaggerated sympathetic reflex responses that occur in persons with some types of spinal cord injuries. Selected Answer: True Question 44 Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of a polyneuropathy. Selected Answer: False Question 45 Concussions are listed under the category of focal brain injuries. Selected Answer: False Question 46 The brain tissue and interstitial fluid represent the majority of the skull content. Selected Answer: True Question 47 Alzheimer disease is characterized by cortical atrophy and loss of neurons. Selected Answer: True Question 48 Ringing of the ears is known as tinnitus.