PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2024-2025 COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED A, Exams of Pathophysiology

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PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2024-

COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

1. Which of the following is part of the pathophysiology of emphysema that can lead to the appearance of a barrel chart? A. Peripheral edema B. Bacterial infection in the lungs C. Air trapping in the alveoli please check D. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm please check
2. The primary problem with anemia, regardless of the cause, is ____ the goal in treating mia is to_____ A. Occult bleeding reduces the hemoglobin and hcrit levels. B. Tissue hypoxia; restore tissue oxygenation. C. Tissue hyperoxia; have the patient take slow deep breaths. D. Oxygen saturation more than 100%reduce oxygen toxicity.
3. Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following? A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate

4.Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) A. Simultaneous stroke and heat attack Simultaneous clotting and bleeding B. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release C. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

4. Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Vascular spasm B. Platelet’s dissolve C. Coagulation D. Dissolving of the clot
5. Which of the following clinical finding would be present inclients experiencing shock (select all that apply)? . B. Hypotension C. Increased mental clarity. D. Tachycardia E. Hypertension
6. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Demyelination of the neurons in the central system A. Altered level of consciousness

B. Decreased production of dopamine in the central nervous system. C. Clotting and bleeding disorders D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells

7. Which of the following is a component of the etiology of edema? A. Decreased plasma proteins B. Hypotension C. Dehydration D. Polyuria
8. Sing and symptoms of ocardial infarction include which of the following? A. Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm, neck, or jaw. B. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration C. Rapid respiration with left-sided weakness and numbness D. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder.
9. Which of the following can lead to impaired neurological function in clients with increased intracranial pressure? (select all that apply) A. Compression of the brain B. Inflammation of the brain tissue . C. Decrease perfusion of the brain tissue

D. The ability of the tissues to autoregulate the pressure E. Increased tissue oxygenation

10. Increased calcium levels in the blood could be due to an imbalance of which of the following hormones? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Calcitonin D. Melatonin
11. Which hyperglycemic disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in patients with type 1 diabetes? A. Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome B. Hyperglycemic lipid syndrome C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosis
12. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in client experiencing hypoventilation? A. increased oxygenation in the alveoli B. increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream C. decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream. D. decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
13. A client has a potassium of 1.9mEq/L. What is most important observation? A. Jaundice B. Skin turgor

C. Ability of the client to walk. D. Telemetry EKG for cardiac abnormalities

14. Clients experiencing a sickle cell crisis would display which of the following clinical manifestations? A. Pain and dyspnea B. Bleeding and decreased white blood cell count. C. Increase mucous production and decreased platelets. D. Jugular venous distension and ascites
15. Which of the following is used to classify seizures? A. Clinical symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Electroencephalogram (EEG)and electrocardiogram (ECG) C. Clinical symptoms and complete blood count (CBC) D. Clinical symptoms and electroencephalogram (EEG)
16. Which of the following are causes of obstructive shock? (Select all that Apply) A. Spinal cord injury B. Pulmonary embolism C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tension pneumothorax E. Hemorrhage
17. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and or chest tube placement as treatment to treat which component of this condition?

A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, whichmake it difficult for lungs to exchange gases. B. Extreme pain cause by a fractured rib. C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs and heart. D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

18. Which of the following describes what is occurring in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia? A. Increased urine retention B. Insufficient circulating blood volume C. Bounding peripheral pulses D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs.
19. Which link in the chain of infection describes the source (living or nonliving) of an infection agent? A. Reservoir B. Mode of transmission C. Portal of exit D. Susceptible
20. What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Dyspnea on exertion B. Normal lungs sound. C. Normal arterial blood gases D. Onset of the disease during young adulthood.

21. Which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Pancreas
22. Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of leukemia and lymphoma? A. Fatigue B. Increased risk of bleeding C. Increased risk of infections D. Increased energy and strength
23. Virchow triad includes which of the following factors? ( select all that APPLY ) A. Venous blood stasis B. Damage to the venous wall C. Venous blood hypermobility D. Increase blood coagulability.
24. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expert to find? A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia C. Alkalosis and high potassium D. Elevated sodium and acidosis

25. Which of the following electrolytes and as an electrolyte pool? A. Brain B. Bone C. Kidneys D. Nails
26. What is a cause of cardiogenic shock? . B. Acute blood loss C. Sever dysfunction of the heart’s atria. D. Suppression of the sympathetic nervous system
27. Which of the following would result in a prerenal kidney injury? A. Contrast dye/media B. Hemorrhage C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) D. Nephrolithiasis
28. What is the best way to prevent spinal cord injuries? A. Moving the client’s neck and spine to maintain mobility. B. Administering antibiotics to prevent invasion of bacteria. C. Stabilization to prevent further trauma to the spinal cord. D. Having the client bear weight immediately after injury A. Sever dysfunction of the heart’s ventricles

29.How dose unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris? A. Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only. B. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina. C. D. Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina.

29. A person involved in a motor vehicle accident has a suspected spinal cord injury. The nurse knows that which of the following may have cause this injury to occur? A. Leakage of fluid from the ears. B. Large loss of blood secondary to an open femur fracture. C. Compression of the spinal cord secondary to extreme twisting of the neck during the accident. D. An accumulation of the in the subarachnoid space secondary to hitting the head on the windshield. 30.What of the following best describes sepsis? A. An overwhelming allergic reaction B. Sever inflammatory response to a pathogen. C. Unknown cause resulting in hypertension. D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest.

30. What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function? A. The ability to perform complex mathematics. . C. The lack of level of cerebrospinal fluid production D. Intact cranial nerve functions
31. What happens to a cell with polycythemia? A. Deficient plasma in the blood B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced. . D. Deficient number of red blood cells.
32. A client is bleeding platelets within the bloodstream begin aggregating to prevent further blood lose. Platelet aggregation is one of the first steps of which of the following processes? A. Homokinetic B. Homokinetic C. Hemostasis D. homeostasis B. Altered level of consciousness C. Increased red blood cells being produced

36. Which of the following cause a client to have a mechanical bowel obstruction? Opioid analgesic administration A diet low in fiber Intussusception Clostridium difficulties infection 37.Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in clients with Cushing syndrome? Excessive production of glucocorticoids Insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Hyperpigmentation Exophthalmos 38.Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with pyelonephritis? Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain.

Identify pain in the cervical dermatomes. Evaluate for pain in the arms and legs. No assessment of pain as this organ does not sense pain.

39. Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining? Incontinence Pyelonephritis Urinary calculi Cystitis
40. In which of acute kidney injury will a decrease in urine output be noted? Oliguric phase Diuresis phase Prodromal/asymptomatic phase

Recovery phase

41. Meningitis is inflammation of the__________ and encephalitis is inflammation of the ___________ A. Meningeal tissues brain tissues A. Brain tissues, spinal cord? C. Meningitis tissues, spinal cord D. Brain tissues; kidneys
42. A client diagnosed with heart failure reports a feeling of dizziness upon standing, which of the following term is describe client is feeling? A. Contraindication B. Sign C. Symptom D. Objective data

43. Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune responses? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Chronic renal failure C. Type 2 diabetes D. Onychomycosis 44.A state of equilibrium or balance with the organism is defined as. A. Homeostasis B. Hemostasis C. Diffusion D. Osmosis
44. What sign and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with asthma? A. Wheezing dyspnea and coughing B. Coughing diarrhea and hypoventilation

C. Crackles, dyspnea, and oliguria D. Normal lung sounds, dyspnea, hyperventilation

46. A client presents to the emergency department with a distended abdomen a yellowish tint to his skin and sclera and confusion. The nurse suspects which of the following as the cause of these symptoms? A. Appendicitis B. Inflammatory bowel disease C. Liver disease D. Congestive heart failure
47. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? A. Decreased insulin production B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production.

C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). D. Increased production of insulin

48. The nurse knows which is true regarding the sexually transmitted infected syphilis? A. Syphilis is a systemic sexually transmitted infection causing painful fluid filled with vesicles that appear 3 to 7 days after the initial infection. B. Syphilis is a localized sexually transmitted infection that attaches to and penetrates columnar epithelium producing a patchy inflammatory response in the submucosa. C. Syphilis is a localized sexually transmitted infection that as a painful chancre and can progress to cause permanent cardiac and central nervous system. D. Syphilis is a systematic sexually transmitted infection that appears initially as a painless chancre and can progress to cause permanent cardiac and central nervous system damage.

49. Which of the following describes the type of incontinence due to an increase in intraabdominal pressure such as coughing sneezing and laughing? A. Overflow B. Stress C. Mixed D. Functional
50. What is the goal for treating sepsis? A. To identify the cause and treat. B. Offer antibiotics if the client asks. C. Restore cognitive functioning. D. Restore kidney function .?
51. What causes osteoporosis? A. Poor nutrition

B. Regular weight bearing exercise. C. Bone loss, frequently during aging D. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders 52, Which of the following is often cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)? A.An autoimmune disorder B. A venous blood clot from lower extremity C. An increase in intracranial pressure D. Hypotension 54: Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis? A.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Insulin C.Glycogen

D.Thyroxine 55: What is the etiology of hemophilia A? A.Chemotherapy B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Factor IX deficiency D.Decreased synthesis of fibrinogen 56: Dopaminergic cells are impacted while Parkinson’s disease develops. Which of the following is associated with Parkinson’s disease? A.Impaired mobility and functioning B. Decreased liver and kidney function C. Too much dopamine in the brain D.Skeletal muscle pain and flaccidity 57: Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left sided hearted failure? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY). Jugular venous distention

Cough with frothy sputum Crackles auscultated in the lungs. Shortness of breath Peripheral edema 58: How is mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted to others? A.Skin to skin contact with the infected person. B. Oral-fecal and from poor hygiene C. Walking barefoot outdoors .

59. What is most likely to cause a hiatal hernia? A. An abnormally long esophagus B. Increase intra-abdominal pressure. C. Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm D. A small fundus in the stomach D.Airborne droplets inhaled into the lung

60: Classify the following arterial blood gas results: PH= 7.30, PaCo2=55mm Hg. HCO3-=24mEq/L, A.Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

61. Which of the following is associated with client who have cystic fibrosis? A. Excessive mucous secretion B. Normal breath soundsC. High fever D. Excessive urination A
62. Which of the following describes passive immunity? A. Vaccination against the disease B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby C. Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal.

D. Having the disease in question. 63, A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding? A.Contraindication B. sign C. Symptom D.Subjective data 64, Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values? A.pH7, 25, PaCO252mmhg, PaO22 75mmHg, HCO3,18mEq/L B. pH 7,50, PaCO230mmHg PaO2 80mmHg, HCO3, 28mEq/L C.pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L D.pH 7. 15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, Pa02 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L

65. The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which type of cancer? A. Lung cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Stomach cancer D. Cervical cancer
66. Which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia? A. The loss of more than sodium B. A grain of more sodium than water C. Extreme thirst D. Potentially brain swelling. 67.Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia? A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy B. Those who exercise regularly and not exposed to pathogens.

C. Those who are hospitalized and immunopurified. D. Those who have adequate respiratory function.

68. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find in a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis? A. Dilated bronchioles, constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased capillary permeability. B. Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, encephalopathy C. Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, increased capillary permeability. D. Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection.
69. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production? A. Erythropoietin B. Insulin and glycogen C. Testosterone

D. Thyroid stimulating hormone.

70. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia? A. A decreased platelet cell count B. Decreased white blood cell count. C. Increase red blood cell count. D. An increased platelet cell count.
73. What physiological reaction happens to the body with the “fight or flight” response? A. Increase heart rate. B. Constricted pupilsC. Decreased blood pressure D. Decreased heart rate.