Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers for 2024, Exams of Pathophysiology

Download Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers for 2024 and more Exams Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity! Pathophysiology final Exam Questions with Answers 2024 Latest  Which of the following is part of the pathophysiology of emphysema that can lead to the appearance of a barrel chart? A. Peripheral edema B. Bacterial infection in the lungs C. Air trapping in the alveoli D. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm  The primary problem with anemia, regardless of the cause, is the goal in treating anemia is to A. Occult bleeding reduces the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. B. Tissue hypoxia; restore tissue oxygenation. C. Tissue hyperoxia; have the patient take slow deep breaths. D. Oxygen saturation more than 100%reduce oxygen toxicity.  Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following? A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate  Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting  Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Vascular spasm B. Platelet’s dissolve C. Coagulation D. Dissolving of the clot  Which of the following clinical finding would be present in clients experiencing shock (select all that apply)? A. Altered level of consciousness. B. Hypotension C. Increased mental clarity. D. Tachycardia E. Hypertension  Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Demyelination of the neurons in the central system B. Decreased production of dopamine in the central nervous system C. Clotting and bleeding disorders D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells  Which of the following is a component of the etiology of edema? A. Decreased plasma proteins B. Hypotension C. Dehydration  Which of the following are causes of obstructive shock? (select all that Apply ) A. Spinal cord injury B. Pulmonary embolism C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tension pneumothorax E. Hemorrhage  A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and or chest tube placement as treatment to treat which component of this condition? A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which make it difficult for lungs to exchange gases. B. Extreme pain cause by a fractured rib. C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs and heart. D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli.  Which of the following describes what is occurring in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia? A. Increased urine retention B. Insufficient circulating blood volume C. Bounding peripheral pulses D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs.  Which link in the chain of infection describes the source (living or nonliving) of an infection agent? A. Reservoir B. Mode of transmission C. Portal of exit D. Susceptible  What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Dyspnea on exertion B. Normal lungs sound. C. Normal arterial blood gases D. Onset of the disease during young adulthood.  Which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Pancreas  Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of leukemia and lymphoma? A. Fatigue B. Increased risk of bleeding C. Increased risk of infections D. Increased energy and strength  Virchow triad includes which of the following factors? (select all that APPLY) A. Venous blood stasis B. Damage to the venous wall C. Venous blood hypermobility D. Increase blood coagulability. E. Damage to the arterial wall  A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expert to find? A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia C. Alkalosis and high potassium D. Elevated sodium and acidosis  Which of the following electrolytes and as an electrolyte pool? A. Brain B. Bone C. Kidneys D. Nails  What is a cause of cardiogenic shock? D. Deficient number of red blood cells.  A client is bleeding platelets within the bloodstream begin aggregating to prevent further blood lose. Platelet aggregation is one of the steps of which of the following processes? A. Homokinetic B. Homokinetic C. Hemostasis D. homeostasis  Which of the following cause a client to have a mechanical bowel obstruction? a. Opioid analgesic administration b. A diet low in fiber c. Intussusception d. Clostridium difficulties infection  Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in clients with Cushing syndrome? Excessive production of glucocorticoids Insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Hyperpigmentation Exophthalmos  Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with pyelonephritis? a. Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain. b. Identify pain in the cervical dermatomes. c. Evaluate for pain in the arms and legs. d. No assessment of pain as this organ does not sense pain.  Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining? Incontinence Pyelonephritis Urinary calculi Cystitis  In which of acute kidney injury will a decrease in urine output be noted? Oliguric phase Diuresis phase Prodromal/asymptomatic phase Recovery phase  Meningitis is inflammation of the and encephalitis is inflammation of the A. Meningeal tissues brain tissues A. Brain tissues, spinal cord C. Meningitis tissues, brain tissues this is not the answer. D. Brain tissues; kidneys  A client diagnosed with heart failure reports a feeling of dizziness upon standing, which of the following term is describe client is feeling? A. Contraindication B. Sign C. Symptom D. Objective data  Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune responses? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Chronic renal failure C. Type 2 diabetes D. Onychomycosis  A state of equilibrium or balance with the organism is defined as. A. Homeostasis B. Hemostasis C. Diffusion D. Osmosis  What sign and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with asthma? A. Wheezing dyspnea and coughing B. Coughing diarrhea and hypoventilation C. Crackles, dyspnea, and oliguria D. Normal lung sounds, dyspnea, hyperventilation  A client presents to the emergency department with a distended abdomen a yellowish tint to his skin and sclera and confusion. The nurse suspects which of the following as the cause of these symptoms? C. Glycogen D. Thyroxine 55: What is the etiology of hemophilia A? A. Chemotherapy B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Factor IX deficiency D. Decreased synthesis of fibrinogen  Dopaminergic cells are impacted while Parkinson’s disease develops. Which of the following is associated with Parkinson’s disease? A. Impaired mobility and functioning B. Decreased liver and kidney function C. Too much dopamine in the brain D. Skeletal muscle pain and flaccidity  Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left sided hearted failure? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY). Jugular venous distention Cough with frothy sputum Crackles auscultated in the lungs. Shortness of breath Peripheral edema 58: How is mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted to others? A. Skin to skin contact with the infected person. B. Oral-fecal and from poor hygiene C. Walking barefoot outdoors D. Airborne droplets inhaled into the lung.  What is most likely to cause a hiatal hernia? A. An abnormally long esophagus B. Increase intra-abdominal pressure. C. Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm D. A small fundus in the stomach  Classify the following arterial blood gas results: PH= 7.30, PaCo2=55mm Hg. HCO3-=24mEq/L, A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis  Which of the following is associated with client who have cystic fibrosis? A. Excessive mucous secretion B. Normal breath sounds C. High fever D. Excessive urination  Which of the following describes passive immunity? A. Vaccination against the disease B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby C. Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal. D. Having the disease in question.  A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding? A. Contraindication B. sign C. Symptom D. Subjective data  Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values? A. pH7, 25, PaCO252mmhg, PaO22 75mmHg, HCO3,18mEq/L B. pH 7,50, PaCO230mmHg PaO2 80mmHg, HCO3, 28mEq/L C. pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L D. pH 7. 15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, Pa02 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L  Which condition is the result of endometrial tissue growing outside of the uterus? A. Chlamydia B. Amenorrhea C. Endometriosis D. Gonorrhea  Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with which of the following conditions? A. Anemia B. Sepsis C. Pneumothorax D. Cystic fibrosis  What is the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes? A. Overproductions od insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas. B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin. C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance. D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production.  Which of the following factors in not modifiable for clients with hypertension? A. Dietary intake B. Increasing age C. Obesity D. Sedentary life  Which of the following are back ward effects of right-sided failure? A. Increased urination B. Peripheral edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Immunosuppression  A client present to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness; what would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing? A. Pseudomembranous colitis B. Peptic ulcer disease B. Appendicitis C. Esophageal cancer  which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome? A. Hemorrhage secondary to open wound B. Severe pain and tissue damage secondary to tissue hypoxia C. Increased limb function secondary to hypermobility to the joint. D. Chronic kidney disease secondary to bone breakdown.  Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension? A. The bladder and urethra B. The brain and skin C. The heart and kidney D. The stomach and intestines  What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. The build-up of infections by products in the lymph node B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gall bladder  Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a potential etiology of which of the following diseases? A. Colon cancer B. Hiatal hernia C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Esophageal varices  What cause atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body? A. Poor dietary modification B. Administration of statin medications C. Interruption of blood flow to the brain D. Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries.  What typically causes contact dermatitis? A. Fungai infection B. Long term Disorder from gout C. Contact with a skin allergen. D. Staphylococcal infection 97. Epidmiologist classify vaccinations as which level of disease prevention? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Second level prevention 98. What is the common denominator of all of heart failure? a. Pulmonary edema b. Jugular venous distention c. Peripheral edema d. Reduced cardiac output 99.?  The main functional process of the endocrine system relies on which of the following? A. Neurotransmitters B. Hormones C. Medications D. The spleen  Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)? High sugar, low-fat diet A. Increased physical activity. B. Tobacco use C. Low-fat diet  what is the process of moving air into lungs with subsequent distribution to the alveoli called? A. Ventilation B. Aeration C. Perfusion D. Residual volume  What is the function of the ribosomes within cells? A. Production of proteins B. Form lipids on the outside of the cell C. Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D. Form a protective barrier around the cell.