PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUIZ WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2023-2024 (GRADED A), Exams of Nursing

Download PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUIZ WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2023-2024 (GRADED A) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUIZ WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2023-2024 (GRADED A)  What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis? A. Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection B. Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, increased capillary permeability C. Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy D. Dilated bronchioles, constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased capillary permeability  Which of the following hormones to the kidney secrete to increase red blood cell production? A. Testosterone B. Insulin and glycogen C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Erythropoietin  Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in clients that is hyperventilating? A. Increase hemoglobin in the bloodstream B. Decreased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream C. Decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream D. Decreased blood PH  Which of the following would result in a prerenal kidney injury? A. Hemorrhage B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) C. Nephrolithiasis D. Contrast dye/media  Which of the following is a goal when treating anemia? A. Increase carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream B. Improve tissued oxygenation C. Reduce the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels D. Reduce oxygen toxicity  What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body? A. Poor dietary modification B. Interruption of blood flow to the brain C. Injury to the endothelium D. Administration f statin medications  Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with kidney disease? A. Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain B. Identify pain in the cervical dermatomes C. Evaluate for pain in the arms and legs D. No assessment of pain as the kidneys do not sense pain  Which of the following is often cause of pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. An increase in intracranial pressure B. Hypotension C. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity D. An autoimmune disorder  A client has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia B. Alkalosis and high potassium C. Alkalosis and hyperventilation D. Elevated sodium and acidosis  What is the function of ribosomes within cells? A. Form a protective barrier around the cell B. Production of proteins C. Form lipids on the outside of the cell D. Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy  Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as electrolyte pool? A. Brain B. Bone C. Kidneys D. Nails  Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise- induced asthma? A. Increased mucous production due a genetic mutation B. IgE-meditated inflammatory response to an antigen C. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods D. Bronchospasm after exercise  Virchow’s triad includes which of the following factors? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased blood coagulability B. Damage to the arterial wall C. Venous blood stasis D. Venous blood hypermobility E. Damage to the venous wall  Which of the following is characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding B. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release C. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting D. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack  What is the best way to prevent spinal cord injuries? A. Stabilization to prevent further trauma to the spinal cord B. Administering antibiotics to prevent invasion of bacteria C. Having the client bear weight immediately after injury D. Moving the client’s neck and spine to maintain mobility  What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) A. Onset of the disease during young adulthood B. Normal lungs sounds C. Dyspnea on exertion D. Normal arterial blood gases  A client presents with a lateral curvature of the spine as shown in the image below. The nurse knows that is classified as which of the following conditions. A. Osteoporosis B. Scoliosis C. Lordosis D. Kyphosis  Which of the following caused hepatic encephalopathy? A. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream B. Untreated chronic bronchitis C. Decreased albumin blood levels D. A brain infection  Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with type I diabetes? A. Hyperglycemic liquid syndrome B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome D. Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosis  Which is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease? A. Red-stained cells B. Human papillomavirus C. B-cells and T-cells D. Reed-Sternberg cells  Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Thyroxine  Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with polycythemia vera? A. Decreased white blood cell count B. An Increased platelet cell count C. Increased red blood cell count D. A decreased platelet cell count  Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome? A. Hemorrhage B. Pain and tissue damage C. Increased limb function D. Chronic kidney disease  Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? A. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production B. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C. Decreased insulin production D. Increased production on insulin  Which of the following hormones plays a role in decreasing the level of calcium in the blood? A. Parathyroid hormone B. Glucagon C. Calcitonin D. Insulin  What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone (GI) released by the pituitary gland after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused? A. Acromegaly B. Gigantism C. Dwarfism D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)  A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and/or chest tube placement as treatment to treat which component of the pathophysiology of this condition? A. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs and heart B. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the lungs to exchange gases C. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli D. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib  Which of the following describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A. It results in an outpouching of cerebral artery B. It results in significant neurologic dysfunction and death C. It is a temporary episode of cerebral ischemia D. Symptoms of transient ischemic attacks can last for several days to several weeks  Which of the following could result in a functional bowel obstruction? A. Volvulus B. Intestinal tumor C. Intussusception D. Opioid analgesic administration  Classify the following arterial blood gas results: pH= 7.30, PaCO2= 45 mm Hg, HC03- =14 mEq/L A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis  Which of the following is observed in the client with leukopenia?  INCREASED FLUID RETENTION AND WEIGHT GAIN COULD BE DUE TO IMBALANCE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HORMONES? A- CALCITONIN B- MELATONIN C- ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE D- PARATHYROID HORMONE  WHAT IS THE CHARACTERISTIC OF CORONARY DISEASE(CAD)? A- Insufficient DELIVERY OF OXYGENATED BLOOD TO THE MYOCARDIUM B- THE BUILD-UP OF BILE IN THE STOMACH AND GALL BLADDER C- INSUFFICIENT DELIVERY OF CARBON DIOXIDE TO THE LUNGS D- THE BUILD-UP OF INFECTIOUS BY-PRODUCTS IN THE LYMPH NODES  A CLIENT IS BLEEDING, PLATELETS WITHIN THE BLOODSTREAM BEGIN AGGRESSIVE TO PREVENT FURTHER BLOOD LOSS. THIS IS OF THE FIRST STEPS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCESSES? A- HEMOSTASIS B- HOEOKINETICS C- HOMEOSTASIS D- HEMOKINETICS.  THE MAIN FUNCTIONAL PROCESS OF THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM RELIES ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING.? A- MEDICATIONS B- THE SPLEEN C- NEUROTANSMITTERS D- HORMONES  WHAT IS THE GOLD STANDARD THAT IS USED TO DIAGNOSE ISCHEMIC OR HEMORRHAGIC STROKE? A. SURGERY TO OPEN THE CRANIUM AND OBSERVE B. URINALYSIS, LIVER, AND PANCREATIC ENZYMES C. COMPUTERIZED TOMOGRAPHY (CT) OF THE HEAD D. DRAWING A BLOOD SAMPLE FOR ELECTROLYTES  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEADS TO THE APPEARANCE OF A BARREL CHEST WITH EMPHYSEMA? A. AIR TRAPPING IN THE ALVEOLI B. MUSCLE ATROPHY OF THE DIAPHRAGM C. PERIPHERAL EDEMA D. BACTERIAL INFECTIONS IN THE LUNGS  A MALE CLIENT WITH A HISTORY OF GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX DISEASE (GERD) PRESENTS TO THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT WITH DYSPHAGIA WEIGHT LOSS, CHEST PAIN, AND BLOODY EMESIS. WHAT WOULD THE NURSE ANTICIPATE THE CLIENT TO BE EXPERIENCING? A. PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE B. PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS C. APPENDICITIS D. ESOPHAGEAL CANCER  WHICH TYPE OF SEIZURES RESULT IN ABNORMAL NEURONAL ACTIVITY IN BOTH HEMISPHERE OF THE BRAIN? A. FOCAL SEIZURES B. GENERALIZED SEIZURES C. AUTOMATISMS D. PARTIAL SEIZURES  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CAUSE OF EDEMA? A. POLYURIA B. DECREASED PLASMA PROTEINS C. DEHYDRATION D. HYPOTENSION  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLINICAL FINDINGS WOULD BE PRESENT IN CLIENTS EXPERIENCING SHOCK? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A. HYPERTENSION B. HYPOTENSION C. ALTERED LEVEL OF CONCIOUSNESS D. INCREASED MENTAL CLARITY E. TACHYCARDIA  DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC) IS A SEVERE COMPLICATION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS? A. EMPHYSEMA B. GASTRITIS C. CYSTIC FIBROSIS D. SEPSIS  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAN OCCUR WITH CLIENTS WHO HAVE HYPONATREMIA? A. POTENTIALLY FATAL SWELLING IN THE BRAIN B. THIRST AND DRY MOUTH C. INCREASED ENERGY AND MENTAL CLARITY D. WEAK PERIPHERAL PULSES  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE USED TO IDENTIFY CLIENTS WITH MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION (MI)? A. COMPUTERIZED TOMOGRAPHY (CT) OF THE BRAIN B. USING A 12-LEAD ELECTROCARDIOGRAM (ECG) TO DETERMINE CHANGES C. AN ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAM (EEG) TO VISUALIZE CHANGES D. PRESENTING SYMPTOMS WHEN SEEKING CARE  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE DAMAGE TO THE BRAIN THAT RESULTS IN CEREBRAL PALSY? A. TRANSIENT AND RESOLVES IN ADULTHOOD FROM PHYSICAL THERAPY B. MANIFESTED AS AN ADULT AFTER NORMAL CHILDHOOD ACTIVITIES C. REVERSIBLE WITH COGNITIV THERAPY WITH THE INFANT CLIENT D. IRREVERSIBLE AND OCCUR BEFOR, DURING, OR AFTER BIRTH OR INFANCY  WHAT OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES SEPSIS? A. UNKNOWN CAUSES RESULTING IN HYPERTENSION B. POOR NURSING AND HEALTH CARE PROVIDER INTERVENTIONS C. SEVERE INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE TO A PATHOGEN D. AN OVERWHELMING ALLERGIC REACTION  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE? (SELECT AL THAT APPLY) A. PERIPHERAL EDEMA B. COUGH WITH FOURTHY SPUTUM C. JUGULAR VENOUS DISTENTION D. CRACKLES AUSCULTATED IN THE LUNGS E. SHORTNESS OF BREATH  WHAT SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS WOULD THE NURSE EXPECT TO SEE IN A CLIENT WITH ASTHMA? A. WHEEZING, DYSPNEA, AND COUGHING B. COUGHING, DIARRHEA, AND HYPERVENTILATION C. CRACKELS, DYSPNEA, AND OLLIGURA D. NORMAL LUNG SOUNDS, DYSPNEA, HYPERVENTILATION  WHAT IS THE COMMON FINDING OF ALL FORMS OF HEART FAILURE? A. PERIPHERAL EDEMA B. JUGULAR VENOUS DISTENTION C. REDUCED CARDIAC OUTPUT D. PULMONARY EDEMA  WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS ARE PRIMARYLLY AFFECTED BY POORLY MANAGED HYPERTENSION? A. THE STOMACH AND INTESTINES B. THE BRAIN AND KIDNEYS C. THE BLADDER AND HEART D. THE BRAIN AND SKIN  A CLEINT DIAGNOSED WITH HEART FAILURE DISPLAYES BILATERAL PITTING EDEMA OF THE LOWER EXTREMETIES. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS IS USED TO DESCRIBE THIS FINDINGS? A. SIGN B. CONTRAINDICATION C. SYMPTOM D. SUBJECTIVE DATA  DIALYSIS IS A NECESSARU TREATMENT FOR THOSE IN END STAGE RENAL DISEASE BECAUSE IT DOES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING? A. ADDS CHEMICALS TO THE BLOODSTREAM TO HELP THE KIDNEYS B. REMOVES EXCESS FLUID AND WASTE PRODUCTS C. PREPARES THE CLIENT FOR KIDNEY TRANSPLANT D. FILTER OUT BACTERIA CAUSING INFECTION  HOW IS HEMORRHAGIC STROKE DIFFERENT FROM A THROMBOEMBOLIC STROKE? A. A HEMORRAGIC STROKE IS THE RESULT OF A CLOT B. A HEMORRHAGIC STROKE IS THE RESULT OF BLEEDING IN OR AROUND THE BRAIN C. A HEMORRHAGIC STOKE DOES NOT RESULT IN BRAIN DAMAGE D. THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE IN HEMORRHAGIC AND THROMBOEMBOLIC STROKE  What typically causes contract dermatitis? A. Fungal infection B. Long-term disorder from gout C. Staphylococcal infection D. Contact with a skin allergen  What is the pathophysiology of type II diabetes? A. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin. B. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance D. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas  How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted to others? A. Walking barefoot outdoors B. Oral-fecal and from poor hygiene C. Airborne droplets inhaled into the lungs D. Skin to skin contact with the infected person  How does the unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris? A. Unstable angina pectoris manifest in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only B. Unstable angina pectoris can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac biomarkers C. Unstable angina pectoris is not serious as stable angina D. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest  Which of the following are backward effects of left-sided heart failure? A. Pink-frothy sputum B. Increased cardiac output (CO) C. Jugular venous distension (VD) D. Peripheral edema  What causes osteoporosis A. Regular weight-bearing exercise B. Poor nutrition in infancy C. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders D. Bone loss, frequently during aging  Disturbances in uric acid metabolism are associated with which of the following conditions? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Gouty arthritis  Which of the following factors is not modifiable for clients with hypertension? A. Increasing age B. Obesity C. Dietary intake D. Sedentary life  Which of the following is associated with clients who have cystic fibrosis? A. Excessive absorption of nutrients B. Excess urination C. Normal breath sounds D. Increased mucous production  Which of the following describes active immunity? A. Vaccination against the disease B. Injection of antivenom C. Intravenous infusion and immunoglobulins D. Transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus across the placenta  The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which type of cancer. A. Cervical cancer B. Stomach cancer C. Lung cancer D. Pancreatic cancer  Which of the following can lead impaired neurological function in clients with increased intracranial pressure (select all that apply)? A. Decreased tissue oxygenation B. Decreased perfusion of the brain tissue C. Inflammation of the brain tissues D. The ability of the tissues to autoregulate the pressure E. Compression of the brain  Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Dissolving of the clot B. Platelet plug C. Vascular spasm D. Coagulation  What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function? A. The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production B. Intact cranial nerve function C. The ability to perform complex mathematics D. Altered level of consciousness  A person involved in a motor vehicle accident has a suspected spinal cord injury. The nurse knows that which of the following may have caused this injury to occur? A. Compression of the spinal cord secondary to extreme twisting of the neck during the accident. B. Large loss of blood secondary to an open femur fracture C. Leakage of fluid from the ears D. An accumulation of blood in the subarachnoid space secondary to hitting the head on the windshield.  Signs and Symptoms of myocardial infraction include which of the following? A. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration B. Persistent chest pain that may radiated to the arm, neck, or jaw C. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder D. Rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness  Which clients are at higher risks for pneumonia? A. Those who exercise regularly and not exposed to pathogens B. Those who have adequate respiratory function C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised D. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy  Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis? A. Clotting and bleeding disorders B. Demyelination of the neurons C. Decreased production of dopamine D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells  Which of the following is cause of cardiogenic shock? A. Myocardial infraction B. Allergic reaction C. Spinal cord injury D. Pulmonary embolism  Dysfunction of which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Kidney