Pathophysiology Practice Questions: Final Exam Review, Exams of Pathophysiology

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patho 370 - Final Practice Questions with Correct Answers

1. An undesired side-

effect of medical treatment is aka.

a) teratogenic

b) iatrogenic

c) endemic

d) idiopathic: B) iatrogenic

2. Stress can cause

all of the following reactions except

a) stimulating adrenal hormone production

b) increasing serum glucose levels

c) increasing cardiac output and blood circulation

d) decreasing sympathetic reaction: D) Decreasing sympathetic reaction

3. Corticosteroids are the primary mediators of chronic stress.

a) True

b) False

c) I don't know

d) Who cares!: A) True

4. Statement A: Hydrophic swelling is reversible.

Statement B: Hydrophic swelling occurs due to Na+-K+ pump dysfunction.

a) Both statements are correct.

b) Neither statement is correct.

c) Only Statement A is correct.

d) Only Statement B is correct.: a) Both statements are correct.

5. Sensitivity is

a) the probability that a test will be negative when a person actually does not have a

particular condition.

b) the probability that a test will be positive when a person truly has a

particular condition.

c) the ability of the test to repeatedly be correct.

d) the degree to which a measurement reflects the true value of what it intends to

measure.: b) the probability that a test will be positive when a person truly has a particular condition.

6. Epidemic means

a) disease has spread worldwide.

b) spread to many people at same time.

c) disease is native to local region.

d) none of the above.: b) spread to many people at same time.

7. "Allostatic overload" refers to

a) Normal feedback mechanisms include unlimited suppression.

b) The target "normal" range can be shifted in disease processes.

c) inadequate adaptation leading to the inability to maintain homeostasis.

d) The "signal" part of the loop is at the end.: c) inadequate adaptation leading to

the inability to maintain homeostasis.

8. Which of the followings is caused by reversible cellular response? (Choose all that

apply)

a) infarct/necrosis

b) apoptosis

c) metaplasia

d) inflammation

e) hyperplasia: c) metaplasia

d) inflammation

e) hyperplasia

9. Lactic acidosis

usually indicates the presence of.

a) apoptosis

b) radiation injury

c) cellular hypoxia

d) cellular aging: c) cellular hypoxia

10. is considered as preneoplastic tissue reaction.

a) Anaplasia

b) Dysplasia

c) Metaplasia

d) Hyperplasia: b) Dysplasia

11. Which of the following hormone is usually inhibited under stress?

a) norepinephrine

b) epinephrine

c) cortisol

d) insulin: d) insulin

12. Necrosis causes cell membrane rupture with the release of intracellular

contents, but apoptosis does not.

a) True

b) False: a) True

13. G.P., 66 yo, eats "lots of fat," lives a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two

packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened. After medical tests and histologic examination, G.P. is diagnosed with primary lung carcinoma, grade 4. The risk factors for the development of lung cancer in G.P. include (Choose all that apply)

a) high-fat diet.

b) urban pollutants.

c) stressful lifestyle.

d) cigarette smoking.

e) her age: a) high-fat diet.

c) stressful lifestyle.

d) cigarette smoking.

e) her age

14. G.P., 66 yo, eats "lots of fat," lives a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two

packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened. After medical tests and histologic examination, G.P. is diagnosed with primary lung carcinoma, grade 4. GP's grade 4 means her cancer cells have the highest malignancy.

a) True

b) False

c) I don't know

d) Finally week 3!: a) True

15. G.P., 66 yo, eats "lots of fat," lives a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two

packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened. After medical tests and histologic examination, G.P. is diagnosed with primary lung carcinoma, grade 4. After surgery, G.P. is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will

a) selectively kill tumor cells.

b) stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.

c) have minimal side effects.

d) kill rapidly dividing cells.: d) kill rapidly dividing cells.

16. G.P., 66 yo, eats "lots of fat," lives a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two

packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened. After medical tests and histologic examination, G.P. is diagnosed with primary lung carcinoma, grade 4. Side effects of chemotherapy include all the following except.

a) Anemia

b) Bone necrosis.

c) Hair loss.

d) Mucosa sloughing: b) Bone necrosis.

17. R

adiation can cause cellular injury by the mechanism of (choose all that apply)

a) ionization to generate free radicals.

b) direct breakage of chemical bonds/radiolysis.

c) glycolysis.

d) heat production.: a) ionization to generate free radicals.

b) direct breakage of chemical bonds/radiolysis. d) heat production.

18. The stage of remission indicates

a). The stage the patient functions normally even the pathological processes are well-

established.

b). the stage of recovery after a disease, injury or surgical procedure.

c). the stage with decreases in disease severity, signs and/or symptoms.

d). the stage lasting for months or even years following an acute stage.: c). the stage

with decreases in disease severity, signs and/or symptoms.

19. All of the following situations could be associated with

Carcinogenesis except

a) the overproduction of proto-oncogene

b) the deficiency of p

c) the mutation of BRCA

d) immunization to Epstein-Barr virus: d) immunization to Epstein-Barr virus

20. MATCH

1) Iron deficiency:

2) Folate Acid deficiency:

3) GI Bleeding

a. normocytic anemia

b. aplastic anemia

c. macrocyclic anemia

d. microcystic anemia: 1) Iron deficiency: d. microcytic anemia

2) Folate Acid deficiency: c. macrocytic anemia

3) GI Bleeding: a. normocytic anemia

21. Inflammation is nonspecific because the inflammatory reaction is similar

regardless of cause.

a. True

b. False: a. True

22. The clinical manifestations of inflammation are characterized by (Choose ALL that

apply)

a. Redness--rubor

b. Swelling--tumor

c. Heat--calor

d. Pain—dolor

e. Lack of color--palor: a. Redness--rubor

b.Swelling--tumor

c. Heat--calor

d. Pain—dolor

23. J.B. is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Clinical

manifestations of J.B.'s leukemia prior to treatment would include all of the following EXCEPT

a. anemia.

b. leukocytosis.

c. leukopenia.

d. Thrombocytopenia.: b. leukocytosis

24. While in the hospital for management of ALL, J.B. developed severe throm-

bocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition would be:

a. anticoagulant therapy.

b. chemotherapy.

c. activity restriction.

d. isolation.: c. activity restriction.

25. The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that

forms a new gene called

a. bcr-abl.

b. Rb.

c. p53.

d. ARA-c.: a. bcr-abl.

26. The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) mea- sure the

integrity of

a. platelet function.

b. extrinsic and common pathway.

c. intrinsic pathway.

d. common pathway only.: b. extrinsic and common pathway.

27. Statement A: The final step in clot formation is the conversion of plasmino- gen to

plasmin. Statement B: The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in platelet aggregation.

a. Both statements are correct.

b. Neither of the statements is correct.

c. Only Statement A is correct.

d. Only Statement B is correct.: b. Neither of the statements is correct.

28. Activation of the extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by

a. platelet factors.

b. collagen exposure.

c. tissue thromboplastin.

d. factor VIII.: c. tissue thromboplastin.

29. von Willebrand's Disease (vWD.

a. is a defect in factor IX

b. manifests as heavy GI bleeding

c. affects males and females equally

d. is X-linked recessive: c. affects males and females equally

30. Treatment for aplastic anemia is

a. iron therapy

b. folic acid supplements

c. chemotherapy

d. radiation therapy

e. bone marrow transplantation: e. bone marrow transplantation

31. The measurement of the size of the cell is the

a. MCV

b. TIBC

c. Ferretin

d. Hb

e. Hct: a. MCV

32. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL):

a. is common in adults over age 50

b. only responds to radiation

c. has typically very high platelets

d. causes severe bleeding

e. none of the above: d. causes severe bleeding

33. The most common form of leukemia in adults is:

a. ALL

b. AML

c. CLL

d. CML: c. CLL

34. Liver-

associated bleeding issue is due to the deficiency of :

a. Vit A

b. Vit B

c. Vit D

d. Vit K

e. folic acid: d. Vit K

35. A 43 year-old Gravida 5, Para 4, status-post cesarian section x 2 (with her last two

births) presents to your Emergency Room in full contractions. Her BP is 140/85, pulse is 100, her platelet count is 25,000 (normal is 150-450,000) and she suddenly starts bleeding profusely from her vagina. What is (are) the possible contributing factor(s) to her bleeding?

a. her blood pressure

b. her pulse

c. her age

d. platelet count

e. C and D: e. C and D

36. Anti-histamines inhibit

a. basophils

b. T cells

c. B cells

d. mast cells

e. A and D: e. A and D

37. All forms of shock are associated with hypoperfusion.

a) True

b) False: a) True

38. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. Mr. Jones is very likely experiencing shock.

a. cardiogenic

b. septic

c. neurogenic

d. hemorrhagic: b. septic

39. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. The nature of Mr. Jones' shock is primarily due to

a. the reduction of blood oxygen content

b. the decrease of the blood volume

c. the excessive vasodilation led to peripheral pooling of blood

d. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS): c. the excessive vasodilation led to

peripheral pooling of blood

40. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. If the venous oxygen saturations are measured, Mr. Jones will have SvO2 compared to his normal situation since his tissue oxygen extraction is low under this shock.

a. lower

b. higher

c. no change

d. unstable: d. unstable

41. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the

new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. If the venous oxygen saturations are measured, Mr. Jones's ScvO2 can be than his SvO2 since the oxygen extraction in his brain could be de- creased..

a. lower

b. higher

c. doubled

d. 50% less: b. higher

42. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. All of the following could be the treatment options for Mr. Jones, EXCEPT

a. antibiotics

b. administration of normal saline

c. vasoconstrictor agents

d. nitric oxide: d. nitric oxide

43. Mr. Jones, a 76 year old Caucasian male, has been admitted to the hospital for 3

days due to pneumonia. Lab culture result shows Gram(-) Klebsiella pneumo- niae (+++). Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease 10 years ago. He had com- plained about his chest pain and multiple "cold/flu" episodes in the last 6 months. Before the doctor starts the new antibiotics Ceftazidime/avibactam, Mr. Jones suddenly develops fever, hy- potension, tachycardia, and lactic acidosis. After effective treatment, Mr. Jones's shock has been greatly improved which is indicated by

a. a decreasement of his cardiac output.

b. an increasement of his SvO2.

c. an increasement of his systemic vascular resistance (his blood pressure).

d. an increasement of his serum lactate acid level.: c. an increasement of his

systemic vascular resistance (his blood pressure).

44. Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypoten- sion

occurs with

a. cardiogenic shock

b. hypovolemic shock

c. anaphylactic shock

d. electric shock: c. anaphylactic shock

45. Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of

a. tissue hypoxia.

b. anxiety.

c. The activation of SNS.

d. acidosis.: c. The activation of SNS.

46. Cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock can be differentiated based on differ- ences

in cardiac preload.

a. True

b. False: a. True

47. Administration of which of the following therapies would be most appro- priate

for hypovolemic shock?

a. Normal saline

b. Vasoconstrictor agents

c. Inotropic agents

d. 5% dextrose in water: a. Normal saline

48. Blood pressure is the highest in the superior vena cava.

a. True

b. False: b. False

49. Which of the following would result in an increase in systemic blood

pressure? (Choose all that apply)

a. Hypovolemia

b. Decreased cardiac output

c. Vasoconstriction

d. Decreased vascular resistance: b. Decreased cardiac output

c. Vasoconstriction d. Decreased vascular resistance

50. Which of the following blood pressure readings is considered to be indica- tive of

prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?

a. 118/ b. 128/ c. 140/ d. 138/94: b. 128/

51. Which of the following factors will regulate the systemic blood pressure?

a. Sympathetic nervous system

b. RAAS system (Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)

c. serum sodium level

d. Atrial natriuretic peptide

e. all of the above: e. all of the above

52. The common character in all forms of heart failure is

a. poor diastolic filling

b. reduced cardiac output

c. pulmonary edema

d. tricuspid regurgitation: b. reduced cardiac output

53. The forward effects of heart failure include all of the followings EXCEPT

a. fatigue

b. oliguria

c. increased HR/heart rate

d. energetic and active: d. energetic and active

54. Statement A: Widespread pulmonary hypoxemia increases pulmonary artery

resistance (hypertension). Statement B: This pulmonary artery hypertension will increase the right ven- tricular workload and may lead to the right heart failure, i.e., cor pulmonale.

a. Both statements are correct.

b. None of them are correct.

c. Statement A is correct, and statement B is wrong.

d. Statement A is wrong, and statement B is correct.: a. Both statements are

correct.

55. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. Based on the above information, this patient

a. is under severe asthma attack.

b. has expired inhaler.

c. has heart failure.

d. has Acute Tracheobronchial Obstruction.: a. is under severe asthma attack.

56. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. From the following list, what will be an appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

a. Administer sodium bicarbonate.

b. Ask patient to rest.

c. Administer oxygen.

d. Do nothing.: c. Administer oxygen.

57. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. This patient situation is highly associated with

a. increased functional residual capacity.

b. unknown precipitating factors.

c. IgE-mediated reversible (most of the cases) airway inflammation and con- striction.

d. permanent airway obstruction.: c. IgE-mediated reversible (most of the cases)

airway inflammation and constriction.

58. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy.

This patient's ABG test indicates that patient has developed

a. metabolic acidosis.

b. metabolic alkalosis.

c. respiratory acidosis.

d. respiratory alkalosis.: d. respiratory alkalosis.

59. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. The patient could be provided with any of the following treatment options EXCEPT

a. O2 therapy

b. Corticosteroids

c. Mast cell inhibitors

d. histamine: d. histamine

60. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy.

If blood test is ordered for this patient, we will expect (Choose all that apply)

a. increased basophils.

b. increased WBCs.

c. decreased platelets.

d. increased eosinophils.: b. increased WBCs.

d. increased eosinophils.

61. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. To further evaluate the diagnosis of asthma, this patient has pulmonary func- tion tests. Which test result is consistent with the patient's condition?

a. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

b. Decreased functional residual capacity

c. Increased FEV1

d. increased total lung volume: a. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second

(FEV1)

62. A 5-year-old boy presents to ER with severe wheezing, non-

controllable coughing, and bluish lips and fingernails. Patient was very "ex- citing" and has to lean forward in a sitting position to breathe. Mom said she has given patient inhaler half hour ago, but no improvement. His BP 120/75, pulse 145/min, breath 30/min. His blood gas reveals the following values: pH=7.48, PaO2=63 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2=30 (34-45), HCO3-= 23 (22-26), and

his oxygen saturation 85%. FEV1/FVC: 60%. Patient has eczema and family history of allergy. If the patient is further tested for his pulmonary function by bronchodilator, we will expect that the patient shows

a. positive bronchodilator response, i.e.,increased FVC value.

b. negative bronchodilator response, i.e.,decreased FVC value.

c. positive bronchodilator response, i.e., FEV1 improves >15%.

d. negative bronchodilator response, i.e., FEV1 decreases < 15%.: c. positive

bronchodilator response, i.e., FEV1 improves >15%.

63. Alpha 1-antitripsin deficiency may be associated with

a. right-sided heart failure.

b. severe asthma attack.

c. chronic bronchitis

d. emphysema: d. emphysema

64. Widespread atelectasis, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, and fibrosis are

characteristic of

a. acute respiratory distress syndrome.

b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

c. asthma.

d. cor pulmonale.: a. acute respiratory distress syndrome.

65. Which of the following would be indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?

a. Course crackles throughout the left chest

b. Tracheal deviation to the left

c. Absent breath sounds on the left

d. Increased lung density on the left: c. Absent breath sounds on the left

66. Primary cause of IRDS is

a. lack of alveolar macrophages

b. lack of Type I alveolar cells

c. pulmonary atresia

d. lack of surfactant made by Type II alveolar cells

e. transposition of the great vessels: d. lack of surfactant made by Type II alveolar

cells

67. RH, a 21 year old known hemophilia A is in a roll-over traffic collision and brought

into your ER. RH is conscious but pale looking, and he appears postured over to his left. His breathing is rapid and shallow, and his BP is rapidly declining. In addition to ARDS, what is your greatest concern at this point?

a. fractured ribcage

b. tension pneumothorax

c. emphysema

d. hemothorax: d. hemothorax

68. RH, a 21 year old known hemophilia A is in a roll-over traffic collision and brought

into your ER. RH is conscious but pale looking, and he appears postured over to his left. His breathing is rapid and shallow, and his BP is rapidly declining. To confirm your concern, it will be appropriate to order the following tests EXCEPT

a. chest X-ray

b. thoracentesis

c. CT or ultrasonographic test

d. Sputum test

e. Complete blood test: d. Sputum test

69. RH, a 21 year old known hemophilia A is in a roll-over traffic collision and brought

into your ER. RH is conscious but pale looking, and he appears postured over to his left. His breathing is rapid and shallow, and his BP is rapidly declining. If the test result confirms your concern, the appropriate treatment options for RH would include:

a. Thoracotomy

b. Blood transfusion

c. DDAVP medication

d. All of the above: d. All of the above

70. RH, a 21 year old known hemophilia A is in a roll-over traffic collision and brought

into your ER. RH is conscious but pale looking, and he appears postured over to his left. His breathing is rapid and shallow, and his BP is rapidly declining. The hypoxia associated with RH's ARDS responds well to supplemental oxy- gen.

a. True

b. False: b. False

71. Wilms tumor is a renal cancer that primarily affects children.

a. True

b. False: a. True

72. A person with acute pyelonephritis would typically have

a. fever.

b. jaundice.

c. ascites.

d. macrovascular complications.: a. fever

73. The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is

a. renal ischemia.

b. bacterial invasion of the glomerulus.

c. an anaphylactic reaction.

d. an immune complex reaction.: d. an immune complex reaction.

74. Z.C. is a 49-year-old man has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease

for a couple of years. His kidneys now are enlarged with multiple urine-filled cystic lesions. Z.C. is currently in a stage of renal insufficiency with a GFR of about 20% of normal. He suffers from recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI) and chronic anemia. The Cystic Kidney Diseases that ZC has is very likely

a. an autosomal recessive form

b. an autosomal dominant form: b. an autosomal dominant form

75. Z.C. is a 49-year-old man has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease

for a couple of years. His kidneys now are enlarged with multiple urine-filled cystic lesions. Z.C. is currently in a stage of renal insufficiency with a GFR of about 20% of normal. He suffers from recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI) and chronic anemia. If ZC has kidney pain (nephralgia) for his situation, the pain is most likely located in

a. RUQ

b. RLQ

c. McBurney Point

d. CVA: d. CVA

76. Z.C. is a 49-year-old man has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease

for a couple of years. His kidneys now are enlarged with multiple urine-filled cystic lesions. Z.C. is currently in a stage of renal insufficiency with a GFR of about 20% of