Download Pathophysiology Test Bank Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) Pathophysiology: A Practical Approach Lachel Story Additional Test Bank TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 1 QUESTIONS 1. The movement of water or another solvent across the cellular membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is referred to as A. meiosis. B. osmosis. C. lysis. D. mitosis. 2. Cells become specialized in their structure and function through A. proliferation. B. atrophy. C. differentiation. D. pinocytosis. 3. Eradicating the disease is the goal of A. palliative treatment. B. all cancer treatment. C. prophylactic treatment. D. curative treatment. 4. The fetus is most vulnerable to environmental influences during which period of gestation? A. 10 to 15 days B. The first 30 days C. 15 to 60 days D. The first trimester 5. Which form of cellular adaptation occurs because of decreased work demands on the cell? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Atrophy D. Metaplasia 6. What are the sex chromosomes that a female has? A. Paired X chromosomes B. Autosomes C. One X and one Y chromosome D. Two Y chromosomes TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 22. When caustic enzymes dissolve and liquefy necrotic cells, this is known as A. coagulative necrosis. B. liquefaction necrosis. C. fat necrosis. D. caseous necrosis. 23. Which type of disorder is phenylketonuria (PKU)? A. Sex-linked disorder B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. Multifactorial disorder D. Autosomal dominant disorder 24. When cells increase in number in an organ or tissue, this is known is A. apoptosis. B. hyperplasia. C. metaplasia. D. dysplasia. 25. In grading cancer cells, which grade has well differentiated cells? A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4 ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. A TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. A RATIONALES 1. Osmosis refers to the movement of water or another solvent across the cellular membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. Meiosis is a form of cell division that occurs only in mature sperm and ova. Lysis occurs when too much water enters a cell membrane. Mitosis is the most common form of cell division. 2. Cells become specialized in their structure and function through differentiation. Proliferation is the process by which cells divide and reproduce. Atrophy refers to a type of cell adaptation. Pinocytosis refers to cell drinking. 3. Curative treatment seeks to eradicate the disease. Not all cancer treatment does this. Palliative treatment treats symptoms to increase comfort. Prophylactic treatment seeks to prevent cancer. 4. The fetus is most vulnerable to environmental influences from 15 to 60 days of gestation. This is the period immediately after fertilization and implantation, when much of the cellular differentiation is taking place. 5. Atrophy is the type of cellular adaptation that occurs because of decreased work demands on the cell. Hypertrophy is the opposite; it occurs when cells increase in size to try to meet increased work demand. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue. Metaplasia is the process in which one adult cell is replaced by another cell type. 6. A female has two X chromosomes. A male has one X and one Y chromosome. No one has two Y chromosomes. Autosomes make up 22 of the 23 sets of paired chromosomes, with the remaining pair being the sex chromosomes. 7. Autosomal dominant disorders are passed from an affected parent to an offspring regardless of sex. This is not true of all sex-linked disorders. Fragile X syndrome is a sex- linked disorder which affects males. 8. Gangrene is a form of coagulative necrosis, which results in an interruption in blood flow. Caseous necrosis happens when necrotic cells disintegrate but cellular debris remains. Liquefaction necrosis occurs when caustic enzymes dissolve and liquefy TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) necrotic cells. Fat necrosis happens when lipase enzymes break down triglycerides into free fatty acids. 9. The genetic information for a cell is contained in the nucleus. The organelles are internal cellular structures that perform the work that maintains the cell’s life. A lipid bilayer is what makes up the cell membrane. Cytoplasm is a colorless, viscous liquid in the cell containing water, nutrients, and other substances. 10. Cancer is the disease state of a neoplasm. Apoptosis is a mechanism of cell death. Atrophy is one kind of cell adaptation. Exocytosis is the release of materials from a cell. 11. Infection is a possible teratogen. The other terms are distracters for this question. 12. We have 46 chromosomes, in 23 paired sets. 13. Selective permeability allows free passage in and out of cells to enzymes, glucose, and electrolytes. 14. Hypertrophy is the type of cellular adaptation is undergone by the muscles of an extremity that has been in a cast for a long period of time. Metaplasia, dysplasia, and hyperplasia are other forms of cellular adaptation. In metaplasia, one adult cell is replaced by another cell type. In dysplasia, cells mature into cells of a different size, shape, and appearance. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue. 15. Malignant tumors are usually undifferentiated. Benign tumors usually consist of differentiated, or less anaplastic, cells. 16. Causes of cell death include ischemia, apoptosis, and necrosis. 17. Variations of a gene are known as alleles. Autosomes refers to the 22 sets of paired chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes. A karotype is a representation of a person’s individual set of chromosomes. DNA makes up the long double-stranded chain of nucleotides known as chromosomes. 18. A form of cell division that occurs only in mature sperm and ova is meiosis. Mitosis is the most common form of cell division. Prophase refers to the first phase of mitosis. An oncogene can cause cancer. 19. Monosomy X (Turner’s syndrome) affects only females. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) and Tay-Sachs disease affect both females and males. Polysomy X (Klinefelter’s syndrome) affects only males. 20. A cancer patient’s likelihood for surviving a cancer is referred to as his or her prognosis. A remission takes place when cancer responds to treatment and is under TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. first line of defense. B. second line of defense. C. third line of defense. D. none of the above 8. In type III hypersensitivity, A. circulating antigen-antibody complexes accumulate and are deposited in the tissue. B. macrophages perform delayed processing of the antigen. C. allergens activate T cells, which bind to mast cells. D. the target cell is destroyed by an antibody-directed, cell-surface antigen. 9. Small proteins that are released from cells infected by viruses are known as A. regulator cells. B. effector cells. C. interferons. D. pyrogens. 10. Catecholamines and cortisol are released, causing the fight-or-flight response, in which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. The resistance stage B. Hypersensitivity C. The exhaustion stage D. The alarm stage 11. The skin and mucous membranes are part of the body’s A. first line of defense. B. second line of defense. C. third line of defense. D. fourth line of defense. 12. An inflated response to an antigen is A. hypersensitivity. B. immunodeficiency. C. the general adaptation syndrome. D. autologous. 13. Which of the following is a maladaptive coping strategy for stress? A. Physical activity B. Overeating C. Biofeedback D. Distraction 14. Anxiety, depression, insomnia, infections, and cardiovascular disease have been attributed to A. killer cell attacks. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) B. type II hypersensitivity. C. pyrogen. D. stress. 15. Factors that place individuals at risk for an impaired immune system include A. spending time outdoors. B. reducing stress. C. smoking. D. increasing fluid intake. 16. The membrane-attack complex is part of which line of defense? A. First line of defense B. Second line of defense C. Third line of defense D. All of the above 17. The type of rejection reaction that occurs only with bone marrow transplants is A. graft-versus-host rejection. B. graft-versus-graft rejection. C. host-versus-host rejection. D. host-versus-graft rejection. 18. Category 2 of HIV infection progression refers to A. CD4 cell count ≥ 500 cells/mm3. B. Asymptomatic HIV infection. C. CD4 cell count 200–499 cells/mm3. D. CD4 cell count < 200 cells/mm3. 19. The first stage of the general adaptation syndrome is the A. resistance stage. B. exhaustion stage. C. stress response. D. alarm stage. 20. Children who are HIV positive may experience A. problems walking. B. excess weight gain. C. high rates of growth. D. an absence of common childhood illnesses. 21. Which statement is true about autoimmune reactions? A. Autoimmune disorders affect women more than men. B. They can be systemic or can affect particular organs. C. Diagnostic procedures for autoimmune disorders often begin with eliminating all other causes. D. All of the above TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 22. Cells that have invaded the body are destroyed by A. T cells. B. B cells. C. cellular immunity. D. all of the above 23. Transplants that use tissue from the identical twin of the host are A. autologous transplants. B. syngenic transplants. C. allogenic transplants. D. all of the above 24. Erythema, edema, heat, and pain characterize A. the third line of defense. B. general adaptation syndrome. C. the inflammatory response. D. acquired immunity. 25. Antibody-producing cells and memory cells are types of A. T cells B. killer cells C. B cells. D. antigens. ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 3 QUESTIONS 1. A deficit of clotting factor VIII, or an abnormality of clotting factor VIII, is found in A. von Willebrand’s disease. B. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). C. hemophilia A. D. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). 2. The most plentiful type of blood cell in the human body is A. erythrocytes. B. leukocytes. C. thrombocytes. D. stem cells. 3. Clinical manifestations of Hodgkin’s disease include A. weight loss. B. pruritus. C. swollen, painless lymph nodes. D. all of the above 4. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency is found in A. pernicious anemia. B. aplastic anemia. C. hemolytic anemia. D. sickle cell anemia. 5. With proper management, patients with sickle cell disease live into their A. teens. B. 20s. C. 30s. D. 50s. 6. Blood gets its red color from A. von Willebrand factor. B. DIC. C. hemoglobin. D. pancytopenia. 7. Blood formation occurs primarily in the A. plasma. B. bone marrow. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. hemoglobin. D. none of the above 8. The most common anemia worldwide is A. pernicious anemia. B. iron deficiency anemia. C. aplastic anemia. D. sickle cell anemia. 9. Which of the following statements about polycythemia vera is true? A. Polycythemia vera is disease in which too few blood cells are produced. B. It is a common disease. C. Polycythemia vera occurs most frequently in women. D. It is a rare disease. 10. Another name for white blood cells is A. erythrocytes. B. thrombocytes. C. leukocytes. D. plasmin. 11. The immune system destroys its own platelets in A. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). B. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). C. hemophilia A. D. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 12. Which leukemia affects mainly adults? A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Chronic lymphoid leukemia C. Chronic myeloid leukemia D. All of the above 13. Thalassemia patients who are effectively treated can survive into their A. teens. B. 30s. C. 50s. D. 70s. 14. There are a number of causes of anemias, but a common clinical manifestation is A. weight gain. B. weakness. C. bradycardia. D. bone pain. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 15. Anemia is diagnosed in females when hematocrit is less than A. 37% B. 50% C. 75% D. 93% 16. An abnormal type of hemoglobin, called hemoglobin S, is the cause of A. polycythemia vera. B. aplastic anemia. C. sickle cell anemia. D. pernicious anemia. 17. In which stage of Hodgkin’s lymphoma are the lymphoma cells found in one lymph node group, or in only one part of a tissue or organ? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV 18. The liquid protein component of blood is the A. plasma. B. red blood cells. C. leukocytes. D. stem cells. 19. Coagulation is controlled by A. thrombocytes. B. hematopoiesis. C. clotting factors. D. both A and C, above 20. Hemoglobin binds to A. nitrogen. B. oxygen. C. leukocytes. D. plasma. 21. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the A. plasma cells. B. neutrophils. C. thromboplastin. D. all of the above 22. Another name for red blood cells is A. stem cells. B. erythrocytes. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 14. There are a number of causes of anemias, but a common clinical manifestation is weakness. 15. Anemia is diagnosed in females when hematocrit is less than 37%. 16. An abnormal type of hemoglobin, called hemoglobin S, is the cause of sickle cell anemia. 17. In stage I of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, the lymphoma cells are found in one lymph node group, or in only one part of a tissue or organ. In stage II, the lymphoma cells are in at least two lymph node groups on the same side of the diaphragm, or in one part of a tissue or an organ and the lymph nodes near that organ on the same side of the diaphragm. In stage II, the lymphoma cells are in lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm, and may also be in one part of a tissue or organ near the lymph node groups and in the spleen. In stage IV, lymphoma cells are found in several parts of one or more organs or tissues, or in an organ and in distant lymph nodes. 18. The liquid protein component of blood is the plasma. 19. Coagulation is controlled by thrombocytes and clotting factors. Hematopoiesis is the process of blood formation. 20. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen. Hemoglobin gives blood its red color. 21. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells. 22. Another name for red blood cells is erythrocytes. Another name for white blood cells is leukocytes. Another name for platelets is thrombocytes. Stem cells are also called primitive cells. 23. A lack of enough erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets is referred to as pancytopenia. Leukemia is a cancer of the leukocytes. Neutropenia is a decrease in circulating neutrophils. Anemia is a disorder of the erythrocytes. 24. Clotting factors become abnormally active in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Bleeding of a person with DIC is excessive and is not quickly halted by his or her clotting factors. Clotting factors are present in the bloodstream of an individual with DIC but have essentially been used up. To treat DIC, it is necessary both to treat the bleeding and to prevent clots. 25. Hematocrit refers to how much of the blood volume is occupied by erythrocytes, or red blood cells. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 4 QUESTIONS 1. Inflammation of the myocardium (heart muscle) is A. angina. B. myocarditis. C. automaticity. D. pericarditis. 2. Which of the following statements is true about the entry of blood into the heart? A. When blood enters the heart, it is high in oxygen and low in carbon dioxide. B. Blood enters the heart from the aorta. C. When blood enters the heart, it is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. D. Blood enters the left side of the heart from the systemic circulation. 3. The pressure that the left ventricle must exert in order to get the blood out of the heart and into the aorta is called A. peripheral vascular resistance (PVR). B. stroke volume. C. afterload. D. preload. 4. A bacteria’s endotoxins activate an immune reaction in A. distributive shock. B. septic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. neurogenic shock. 5. The lymphatic system includes A. lymph nodes. B. spleen. C. tonsils. D. all of the above 6. Which of the following statement is true about heart failure? A. Heart failure can be acute or chronic. B. Systolic dysfunction is characterized by decreased ventricular filling. C. Heart failure is characterized by increased contractility and stroke volume. D. Congestive heart failure differs from heart failure in the side of the heart involved. 7. Pulse pressure is the TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. top number in the usual blood pressure notation. B. difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. C. bottom number in the usual blood pressure notation. D. the force opposing the blood in the peripheral circulation. 8. Lymphedema can be caused by A. surgery. B. radiation. C. cancer. D. all of the above 9. Blood is carried away from the heart by A. arteries. B. capillaries. C. veins. D. venules. 10. Risk factors for hypertension include A. race. B. being overweight or obese. C. tobacco use. D. all of the above 11. Blood to be oxygenated is carried to the lungs by the A. pulmonary artery. B. aorta. C. pulmonary vein. D. mitral valve. 12. When fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity to the point that it compresses the heart, this is known as A. constrictive pericarditis. B. infective endocarditis. C. cardiac tamponade. D. myocarditis. 13. The most common type of hypertension is A. secondary hypertension. B. malignant hypertension. C. primary hypertension. D. pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). 14. The inner epithelial layer of the heart that makes up the valves is called the A. pericardium. B. myocardium. C. endocardium. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. B RATIONALES 1. Myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium (heart muscle). Angina is chest pain caused by reduction in oxygen to the cardiac muscle. Automaticity refers to the ability of cardiac cells to generate an impulse to contract even with no external nerve stimulus. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium. 2. When blood enters the heart, it is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. Blood leaves the heart from the aorta. Blood enters the right side of the heart from the systemic circulation. 3. The pressure that the left ventricle must exert in order to get the blood out of the heart and into the aorta is called afterload. Peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) is the force opposing the blood in the peripheral circulation. Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction. Preload refers to the amount of blood returning to the heart. 4. A bacteria’s endotoxins activate an immune reaction in septic shock. In distributive shock, vasodilation causes hypovolemia. Anaphylactic shock results from an allergic reaction. Neurogenic shock is caused by a loss of sympathetic tone in vascular smooth muscle and autonomic function leading to massive vasodilatation. 5. The lymphatic system includes lymph nodes, the spleen, and tonsils. 6. Heart failure can be acute or chronic. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by decreased ventricular filling. Heart failure is characterized by decreased contractility and stroke volume. Congestive heart failure is another name for heart failure. 7. Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. The top number in the usual blood pressure notation is the systolic pressure. The bottom number in the usual blood pressure notation is the diastolic pressure. The force opposing the blood in the peripheral circulation is called peripheral vascular resistance (PVR). 8. Causes of lymphedema include surgery, radiation, and cancer. 9. Blood is carried away from the heart by arteries. Veins return blood to the heart. 10. Risk factors for hypertension include race, being overweight or obese, and tobacco use. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 11. Blood to be oxygenated is carried to the lungs by the pulmonary artery. 12. When fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity to the point that it compresses the heart, this is known as cardiac tamponade. 13. The most common type of hypertension is primary hypertension. Secondary hypertension accounts for about 5% to 10% of hypertension cases. Malignant hypertension is an intensified form of hypertension that may not respond well to treatment efforts. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) occurs in 5% to 8% of pregnancies. 14. The inner epithelial layer of the heart that makes up the valves is called the endocardium. The pericardium is the sac enclosing the heart. The myocardium is the muscle. 15. Some dysrhythmias can cause sudden death. 16. Capillaries are smaller than veins, arterioles, and venules. 17. The superior vena cava empties into the right atrium. 18. Electrical impulses can be initiated by all cardiac muscle cells. Normally, however, they originate in the sinoatrial (SA) node. The atrioventricular (AV) node does not usually initiate impulses unless the SA node is failing. 19. The initial treatment of a myocardial infraction includes morphine, oxygen, and nitroglycerin. 20. The middle layer of blood vessel walls is known as the tunica media. The tunica intima is the inner layer, and the tunica adventitia is the outer layer. 21. Sometimes a myocardial infarction (MI) has no symptoms. Heart attack is another name for an MI. If a patient survives an MI, physical activity will likely be recommended to help prevent another MI. 22. Venous return reduces because of external volume losses in hypovolemic shock. Cardiogenic shock results when the left ventricle can’t maintain adequate cardiac output. In distributive shock, vasodilatation causes hypovolemia. Neurogenic shock results when a loss of sympathetic tone in vascular smooth muscle and autonomic function lead to massive vasodilatation. 23. When a weakened area of an arterial wall balloons outward, this is known as aneurysm. 24. Approximately 50 million Americans are affected by hypertension. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 25. Stimulating the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) increases the heart rate and blood pressure. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. alveolus. B. bronchus. C. trachea. D. diaphragm. 16. Tuberculosis is A. on the decline. B. a cause of illness but not death. C. confined to the lungs. D. increasing globally. 17. “Blue bloaters” is a nickname applied to patients with A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. B. emphysema. C. chronic bronchitis. D. cystic fibrosis. 18. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of lung cancer? A. Hoarseness B. Dyspnea C. Weight gain D. Fatigue 19. Intermittent, reversible airway obstruction is produced by A. asthma. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. emphysema. D. atelectasis. 20. Which of the following might be compared to the strings of a guitar or violin? A. Epiglottis B. Trachea C. Larynx D. Bronchi 21. Incomplete alveolar expansion or collapse of the alveoli is known as A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. infectious rhinitis. D. pleurisy. 22. The mortality rate with lung cancer is about A. 15%. B. 25%. C. 57%. D. 90% TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 23. Pneumonia that can occur when the gag reflex is impaired, such as during anesthesia, is A. viral pneumonia. B. aspiration pneumonia. C. bacterial pneumonia. D. pneumocystic carinii pneumonia. 24. Bronchiolitis occurs most often in A. children under 1 year of age. B. teenagers. C. summer months. D. the elderly. 25. Tuberculosis treatment requires an average of A. 2 weeks. B. 3 months. C. 6 to 9 months. D. 15 months. ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. B TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 24. A 25. C RATIONALES 1. A common viral infection in children is laryngotracheobronchitis. Cystic fibrosis is inherited. Pleurisy is excess fluid in the pleural cavity. Pink puffers is a term used to refer to patients with emphysema. 2. Influenza affects both the upper and lower respiratory tract. Type A is the most common type of influenza. Type C has never been connected with a large epidemic (types A and B have). 3. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) develops within about 90 minutes following a systemic inflammatory response. 4. The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli comprise the lower respiratory tract. 5. The normal VQ ratio is 0.8 6. The most serious type of pneumothorax is tension pneumothorax. 7. A life-threatening condition of the epiglottis is epiglottitis. 8. The sum of the tidal volume and reserves is the vital capacity. The minute respiratory volume is the amount inhaled and exhaled in 1 minute. Residual volume is the air remaining in the lungs after exhalation. The medulla oblongata controls the process of breathing. 9. Causes of sinusitis include viral infection, bacterial infection, and fungal infection. 10. Expiration is passive, in that it does not require muscle contraction. But expiration can also be active when the chest and abdominal muscles are contracted. Inspiration, not expiration, occurs by the diaphragm contracting, lowering, and flattening. 11. People can recover from legionnaires’ disease without incident , but the disease can be fatal if untreated. 12. The common cold is an upper respiratory infection. Infectious rhinitis is another name for the common cold. Coronavirus is one of the many viruses that can cause the common cold, but the rhinovirus is the most common cause. 13. The site for gas exchange with the bloodstream is the alveoli. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. inadequate fluid intake. B. nephrosis. C. excessive diaphoresis. D. all of the above 8. The electrolyte whose main function is to control serum osmolality and water balance is A. potassium. B. sodium. C. magnesium. D. chloride. 9. A serum potassium level above 5 mEq/L defines A. hypokalemia. B. hyperkalemia. C. hypercalcemia. D. hypocalcemia. 10. Most of the body’s phosphorus is found in the A. bloodstream. B. bones. C. muscle. D. teeth. 11. The osmotic pressure of two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane is A. the anion gap. B. pH. C. tonicity. D. uncompensated 12. A clinical manifestation of fluid deficit is A. bounding pulse. B. hypotension. C. rapid weight gain. D. hypertension. 13. The most significant cation is considered to be A. calcium. B. magnesium. C. sodium. D. potassium. 14. Trosseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign may be seen with A. hypocalcemia. B. hypercalcemia. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. hyperphosphatemia. D. hypomagnesemia. 15. A role in acid-base balance is played by A. body fluids. B. the lungs. C. the kidneys. D. all of the above 16. A major buffer mechanism is the A. bicarbonate-carbonic acid system. B. phosphate system. C. hemoglobin system. D. all of the above 17. Edema refers to A. fluid excess. B. fluid deficit. C. dehydration. D. hypovolemia. 18. With aging, the thirst sensation A. can decrease. B. no longer functions. C. can increase. D. none of the above. 19. Electrolytes in the body include A. phosphorus. B. magnesium. C. potassium. D. all of the above 20. Most of the body’s calcium is found in A. an ionized, or unbound, form. B. the bones and teeth. C. the intracellular space. D. the bloodstream. 21. The primary intracellular cation is A. calcium. B. sodium. C. phosphorus. D. potassium. 22. Metabolic alkalosis results from TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. excess bicarbonate. B. deficient acid. C. both A and B, above D. none of the above 23. The most abundant buffering system is the A. protein system. B. hemoglobin system. C. phosphate system. D. bicarbonate-carbonic acid system. 24. Death occurs if serum pH rises above A. 6.9. B. 7.2. C. 7.6. D. 7.8. 25. Which of the following results from a deficiency of bicarbonate (base) or an excess of hydrogen (acid). A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. A TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) and, in turn, decreasing pH. Respiratory alkalosis results from excess exhalation of carbon dioxide that leads to carbonic acid deficit and pH increase. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 7 QUESTIONS 1. The loss of urine while laughing is an example of A. nocturnal enuresis. B. urge incontinence. C. stress incontinence. D. gross total incontinence. 2. Which of the following statements is true about renal calculi? A. Renal calculi can be as large as a golf ball. B. Only males get renal calculi. C. Renal calculi are much more likely to cause obstruction than kidney stones. D. They are likely to coincide with gallstones. 3. Chronic renal failure (CRF) tends to be A. noticed once about 10% of nephrons are destroyed. B. irreversible. C. unrelated to hypertension. D. easily reversed. 4. Wilms’ tumor affects mainly A. older men. B. adults. C. children. D. the elderly of both genders. 5. Urine is stored in the A. urethra. B. urinary bladder. C. kidneys. D. all of the above 6. Hepatitis B and systemic lupus erythematosus might cause A. urolithiasis. B. nephrotic syndrome. C. Bowman’s capsule. D. nephritic syndrome. 7. Which of the following statements is true about urinary incontinence? A. Although embarrassing, urinary incontinence does not lead to complications. B. At present, there is no effective treatment for urinary incontinence. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. An aggressive form of treatment is an artificial urinary sphincter controlled by a manual subcutaneous valve. D. Without treatment, enuresis does not resolve. 8. An important metabolic waste managed by the kidneys is A. ammonia. B. urea. C. uric acid. D. all of the above 9. Brain injury, spina bifida, and nervous system tumors might be expected to lead to A. neurogenic bladder. B. polycystic kidney disease (PKD). C. Wilms’ tumor. D. none of the above 10. The microscopic filtering unit of the kidney is known as the A. calyx. B. nephron. C. UTI. D. renal hilum. 11. Among all infections, UTIs are the A. most common. B. second most common. C. tenth most common. D. sixteenth most common. 12. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for urinary incontinence? A. Advancing age B. Smoking C. Male gender D. Excess weight 13. Filtering of the blood is done by A. glomerular filtration. B. tubular reabsorption. C. tubular secretion. D. all of the above 14. A renal function test is A. BUN. B. serum creatinine. C. urinalysis. D. all of the above TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. B RATIONALES 1. The loss of urine while laughing is an example of stress incontinence. Nocturnal enuresis is bed- wetting by a child. Urge incontinence is a sudden, intense urge to urinate, followed by an involuntary loss of urine. Gross total incontinence refers to continuous leaking of urine, or episodic uncontrollable leaking of large amounts of urine. 2. Renal calculi range in size from as small as a grain of sand to as large as a golf ball. Both males and females get renal calculi. Kidney stones are a different term for renal calculi. The development of renal calculi and gallstones is unrelated. 3. Chronic renal failure (CRF) tends to be irreversible. Unfortunately, it tends not to be noticed until about 50% of nephrons are destroyed. Hypertension is a frequent cause. 4. Wilms’ tumor affects mainly children. 5. The urinary bladder is where urine is stored. The urethra transports urine to the outside of the body. Kidneys eliminate wastes from the blood and have regulatory functions but do not store urine. 6. Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by hepatitis B and systemic lupus erythematosus. Urolithiasis and nephritic syndrome are not subject to those causes, and Bowman’s capsule is an anatomical component of the nephron. 7. An aggressive form of treatment is an artificial urinary sphincter controlled by a manual subcutaneous valve. Urinary incontinence can lead to complications. There are a number of treatments for urinary incontinence. Enuresis usually resolves with or without treatment. 8. Metabolic waste managed by the kidneys includes ammonia, urea, and uric acid. 9. Brain injury, spina bifida, and nervous system tumors might be expected to lead to neurogenic bladder. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is an inherited disease. Wilms’ tumor is a rare cancer mainly affecting the kidneys of children. 10. The microscopic filtering unit of the kidney is known as the nephron. The calyx is a tube through which urine drains into the renal pelvis. UTI stands for urinary tract TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) infection. The renal hilum is the opening in the kidneys through which the renal artery and nerves enter and the renal vein and ureter exit. 11. Among all infections, UTIs are the second most common. 12. Male gender is not a risk factor for urinary incontinence. Advancing age, smoking, and excess weight are risk factors. 13. The nephron performs three processes that contribute to filtering the blood: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. 14. Renal function tests include BUN, serum creatinine, and urinalysis. 15. Acute renal failure (ARF) is generally reversible. People with ARF are usually asymptomatic in the initial phase. The mortality rate is 10% to 60%, depending on the cause. A high-calorie diet, rather than a low-calorie diet, is supportive. 16. A test to screen for prostate cancer, or to indicate the effectiveness of treatment for prostate cancer, is prostate specific antigen (PSA). Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) allows visualization of the kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, and bladder. Blood urea nitrogen is a test for liver and kidney function. 17. Urine is transported by the ureters and the urethra. The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. The urethra transports urine to the outside of the body. 18. Functional incontinence tends to occur in older adults, especially people in nursing homes. A physical or mental impairment prevents toileting in time. 19. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is common. It presents in a similar way to prostate cancer, but is not the same thing. BPH is treatable. 20. Each kidney contains approximately 1 to 2 million nephrons. 21. In women, the urethra is about one-fourth as long as in men. 22. End-stage renal disease is the third and final phase of chronic renal failure (CRF). Renal impairment is the first phase, and renal insufficiency is the second phase. The diuretic phase occurs in acute renal failure (ARF) rather than in CRF. 23. Bowman’s capsule is found in the nephron. The glomerulus and loop of Henle are also found in the nephron. The urinary bladder is another part of urinary system. 24. Techniques of preventing UTIs include increasing hydration, wearing cotton underwear, and avoiding bubble baths. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 25. Most urinary system tumors are malignant. They are not confined to the kidneys. Being male, rather than female, is a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. a cause for weight loss. D. responsible for change in the size or shape of the affected breast. 15. The function of the vasa deferentia is to A. produce male sex steroids. B. conduct sperm to the urethra. C. provide a proper temperature for the testes. D. all of the above 16. The vulva includes the A. mons pubis. B. labia minora. C. clitoris. D. all of the above 17. A dilated vein in the spermatic cord is known as A. varicocele. B. testicular torsion. C. spermatocele. D. hydrocele. 18. Conditions that affect the uterus include A. benign tumors. B. congenital disorders. C. malignant tumors. D. all of the above 19. Which statement is true about cancer deaths? A. The death rate from ovarian cancer is much higher than the death rate from endometrial cancer. B. Endometrial cancer is a much more frequent cancer than ovarian cancer. C. Cervical cancer rates are on the increase. D. Both A and B, above. 20. Priapism is A. another name for penile cancer. B. a synonym for impotence. C. sometime caused by a poisonous venom, such as from a scorpion or black widow spider. D. a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted from the glans penis. 21. The first stage of genital herpes is A. shedding herpes genitalis. B. latent herpes genitalis. C. recurrent herpes genitalis. D. primary herpes genitalis. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 22. A cyst that contains sperm and that develops between the testis and epididymis is a(n) A. spermatocele. B. cystocele. C. leiomyoma. D. ampulla. 23. When the urethral meatus is on the ventral surface of the penis instead of the end, this is known as A. epispadias. B. hypospadias. C. cryptorchidism. D. erectile dysfunction. 24. Treatment strategies for cryptorchidism include A. testicle implants. B. testicle removal. C. manual manipulation. D. all of the above 25. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of cervical cancer? A. Bone fractures. B. Weight loss. C. Metrorrhagia. D. Leaking of urine or feces from the vagina. ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C RATIONALES 1. Skene’s gland, located in the mucosal lining of the vagina, secretes a protective, lubricating fluid during sexual intercourse. The labia minora are part of the external female genitalia. The endometrium is the inner mucosal lining of the uterus that facilitates and maintains pregnancy. 2. Most women who develop breast cancer do not have a family history of breast cancer. Wearing underwire bras does not increase the risk of breast cancer. Women of all ages can develop breast cancer, though the risk does increase with age. Mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes do increase the risk of breast cancer, but most women with breast cancer do not have this mutation. 3. The testes, epididymides, and lower spermatic cords are contained in the scrotum. 4. When the rectum protrudes through the posterior wall of the vagina, this is known as rectocele. A cystocele occurs when the bladder protrudes into the anterior wall of the vagina. Uterine prolapsed is the descent of the uterus or cervix into the vagina. Endometriosis refers to the growth of the endometrium in areas outside the uterus. 5. Testicular cancer is uncommon, can occur as a slow-growing tumor, and can affect one or both testicles. 6. Usually the uterus is tilted forward. 7. The vagina is a hollow, tunnel-like structure that extends from the cervix to the external genitalia. The hymen is thin connective tissue that may partly cover the external vaginal opening. The vestibule is the area of the female genitalia that covers the urethral and vaginal opening. The mons pubis is the pad of fat over the female pubic bone. 8. The scrotum is contracted or relaxed by the cremaster muscle. The ampulla is a pouch in the duct system, and the penis is unaffected by the cremaster muscle. Testicular torsion is an abnormal rotation of the testes on the spermatic cord. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 9 QUESTIONS 1. A part of the upper gastrointestinal tract is the A. stomach. B. esophagus. C. oral cavity. D. all of the above 2. The innermost layer of the GI tract is the A. submucosa. B. mucosa. C. circular muscle. D. longitudinal muscle. 3. Clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis usually appear A. within a few weeks after birth. B. by age 2 years. C. by age 15 years. D. by age 20 years. 4. Which of the following is NOT a cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease? A. Alcohol consumption B. Smoking C. Normal body weight D. Pregnancy 5. When the stomach is empty, its wall shrinks, forming A. chyme. B. rugae. C. the pyloric sphincter. D. all of the above 6. For people of age 50 and above, the American Cancer Society and the CDC recommend A. flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years. B. colonoscopy every 2 years. C. flexible sigmoidoscopy every 10 years. D. colonoscopy every 10 years. 7. The most common cause of chronic gastritis is A. gastroenteritis. B. Helicobacter pylori infection. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. intestinal obstruction. D. none of the above 8. The type of ulcer caused by a major stressor on the body, such as a large burn, is a A. stress ulcer. B. duodenal ulcer. C. gastric ulcer. D. both A and C, above 9. Approximately how many different functions does the liver perform? A. 5 B. 50 C. 500 D. 5000 10. In which type of viral hepatitis can jaundice be present? A. Type A B. Type D C. Type E D. All types 11. For inflammatory bowel disease and irritable bowel syndrome, who gets these diseases most frequently? A. Men B. Women C. Infants D. The elderly 12. The large, serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity is the A. diverticulum. B. rugae. C. peritoneum. D. large intestine. 13. In the United States, the most frequent cause of cirrhosis is A. chronic alcohol abuse. B. hepatitis. C. autoimmune conditions. D. medications. 14. An inflammation of the vermiform appendix is known as A. atrophic gastritis. B. peristalsis. C. appendicitis. D. ascites. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 15. A strong, unproductive effort to vomit is called A. nausea. B. retching. C. emesis. D. all of the above 16. A cause of esophageal cancer is A. smoked tobacco. B. smokeless tobacco. C. both A and B, above D. none of the above 17. The overall 5-year survival rate for pancreatic cancer is A. 95%. B. 50%. C. 17%. D. 5%. 18. The rectum is part of the A. large intestine. B. colon. C. small intestine. D. cecum. 19. Bowel movement frequency among normal, healthy people is in the range of A. one every two days to two a week. B. one to two a day. C. two a day to two a week. D. three a day to three a week. 20. Crohn’s disease is a type of A. ulcerative colitis. B. inflammatory bowel disease. C. irritable bowel syndrome. D. diverticular disease. 21. A cause of diverticula is thought to be A. a high-fiber diet. B. the effort of moving soft stools. C. a low-fiber diet. D. none of the above 22. Hydrochloric acid is a digestive juice found in the A. pancreas. B. stomach. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 13. In the United States, the most frequent cause of cirrhosis is chronic alcohol abuse. Hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and medications are other causes. 14. An inflammation of the vermiform appendix is known as appendicitis. Atrophic gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining. Peristalsis is the wave-like motion that propels food through the GI tract. Ascites refers to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. 15. A strong, unproductive effort to vomit is called retching. Nausea is a subjective urge to vomit. Emesis is another term for vomiting. 16. Both smoked tobacco and smokeless tobacco can cause esophageal cancer. 17. The overall 5-year survival rate for pancreatic cancer is 5%. 18. The rectum is part of the large intestine. The colon and cecum are other parts of the large intestine. 19. Bowel movement frequency among normal, healthy people is in the range of three a day to three a week. 20. Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease. 21. A cause of diverticula is thought to be a low-fiber diet. 22. Hydrochloric acid is a digestive juice found in the stomach. 23. Eating larger meals at greater intervals is not a treatment strategy for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Surgery, reducing stress, and herbal therapies are treatments. 24. A The most common chronic cause of pancreatitis is alcohol abuse. Cholelithiasis is the most common acute cause. Metabolic disorders and pancreatic tumors are other causes. 25. A fluoroscopic examination of the pharynx and esophagus is the barium swallow. Cholescintigraphy involves injection of a radioactive dye into an IV line to evaluate gallbladder and common bile duct function. Colorectal cancer allelotyping for chromosomes 17p and 18q is a lab test for genes known to suppress tumor development. A barium enema is a study of colon mucosa to show neoplasms and other structural abnormalities. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 10 QUESTIONS 1. A form of glucose intolerance diagnosed during pregnancy is A. type 1 diabetes. B. adult-onset diabetes. C. gestational diabetes. D. type 2 diabetes. 2. Hunger is stimulated by A. ghrelin. B. amylin. C. somatostatin. D. insulin. 3. An autoimmune condition that stimulates thyroid hormone production is A. hyperthyroidism. B. Graves’ disease. C. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis D. hypoparathyroidism. 4. Hormones regulate A. growth and development. B. metabolism. C. mood stability. D. all of the above 5. In diabetes mellitus, increased appetite because of energy loss as glucose is excreted is A. polyuria. B. polyphagia. C. glucosuria. D. polydipsia. 6. Gamete production and hormone production by the gonads are stimulated by A. growth hormone. B. gonadotropins (FSH and LH). C. prolactin. D. melanocyte-stimulating hormone. 7. Hypoglycemia can result from A. excessive dietary carbohydrate intake. B. insufficient diabetic pharmacologic therapy. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. aggressive diabetic pharmacologic therapy. D. Both A and B, above 8. Glucagon is secreted in the pancreas by A. alpha cells. B. beta cells. C. delta cells. D. PP cells. 9. Excessive amounts of one or all of the pituitary hormones are secreted in A. hypopituitarism. B. hyperglycemia. C. hyperpituitarism. D. hyperthyroidism. 10. The adrenal glands are located A. on each kidney. B. on the back of the thyroid. C. below the larynx at the base of the neck. D. underneath the stomach and between the two kidneys. 11. A deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones is referred to as A. metabolic syndrome. B. polydipsia. C. Cushing’s syndrome. D. Addison’s disease. 12. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the A. pituitary gland. B. adrenal gland. C. thyroid gland. D. parathyroid gland. 13. Which of the following statements is true? A. Eating too much sugar causes diabetes. B. Drinking water excretes extra sugar in the blood. C. The amount of fruit eaten by people with diabetes should be controlled. D. Chocolate is off limits for people with diabetes. 14. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism? A. Fatigue B. Unexplained weight gain C. Increased sensitivity to cold D. Exophthalmos 15. The fight-or-flight response of the sympathetic nervous system is mediated by TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B RATIONALES 1. Gestational diabetes is a form of glucose intolerance diagnosed during pregnancy. Type 1 diabetes usually affects children and young adults. Adult-onset diabetes is another name for type 2 diabetes, and is associated with advancing age and other factors. 2. Hunger is stimulated by ghrelin. Amylin and insulin react synergistically to control glucose. Somatostatin regulates insulin and glucagon. All are produced by the pancreas. 3. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune condition that stimulates thyroid hormone production. Hyperthyroidism is a hypermetabolic state caused by excessive thyroid hormones. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is autoimmune thyroiditis. Hypoparathyroidism is a condition in which the parathyroid gland does not produce enough PTH. 4. Hormones regulate growth and development, metabolism, and mood stability. 5. In diabetes mellitus, increased appetite because of energy loss as glucose is excreted is polyphagia. Polyuria is increased urine output. Glucosuria is glucose excreted in the urine. Polydipsia is increased thirst because of the dehydration caused by increased urine output. 6. Gamete production and hormone production by the gonads are stimulated by gonadotropins (FSH and LH). Growth hormone stimulates cell growth. Prolactin stimulates milk production by the breast. The function of melanocyte-stimulating hormone is unknown. 7. Hypoglycemia can result from aggressive diabetic pharmacologic therapy. 8. Glucagon is secreted in the pancreas by alpha cells. Beta cells secrete amylin and insulin. Delta cells secrete somatostatin. PP cells secrete a pancreatic polypeptide. 9. Excessive amounts of one or all of the pituitary hormones are secreted in hyperthyroidism. Hypopituitarism refers to a condition in which the pituitary gland does not produce sufficient amounts of some or all of its hormones. Hyperpituitarism refers to its opposite. Hyperglycemia is high serum glucose levels. 10. The adrenal glands are located on each kidney. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 11. A deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones is referred to as Addison’s disease. Metabolic syndrome is a combination of hyperglycemia, high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, and increased waist circumference. Polydipsia is increased thirst caused by increased urine output. Cushing’s syndrome is a condition of excessive amounts of glucocorticoids. 12. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland. 13. The amount of fruit eaten by people with diabetes should be controlled. The other three statements are false. 14. Exophthalmos is not a clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism. It is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. Fatigue, unexplained weight gain, and increased sensitivity to cold are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism. 15. The fight-or-flight response of the sympathetic nervous system is mediated by epinephrine and norepinephrine. 16. Increased renal water retention caused by excessive antidiuretic hormone levels is referred to as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Hyperprolactinemia is a condition in which excessive prolactin levels result in menstrual dysfunction and galactorrhea. Acromegaly is increased bone size caused by excessive growth hormone levels in adulthood. Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol levels resulting from increased ACTH levels. 17. The pituitary gland is regulated by hypothalamus. 18. The principal mineralocorticoid is aldosterone. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid. Estrogen and androgen are sex hormones. 19. Increased bone size caused by excessive growth hormone levels in adulthood is known as acromegaly. Gigantism is tall stature caused by excessive growth hormone levels before puberty. Hyperprolactinemia is menstrual dysfunction and galactorrhea caused by excessive prolactin levels. SIADH is increased renal water retention caused by excessive antidiuretic hormone levels. 20. Adrenocorticotropin, prolactin, growth hormone, and other hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary. 21. Insulin decreases serum glucose levels. It stimulates cellular uptake of glucose. It is released when serum glucose levels increase. 22. Prolactin stimulates milk production. 23. Approximately 1,000,000 islets of Langerhans are contained in the human pancreas. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 24. The combination of hyperglycemia, high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, and increased weight circumference is known as metabolic syndrome. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is autoimmune thyroiditis. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune condition that stimulates thyroid hormone production. Thyrotoxicosis, or thyroid crisis, is a sudden worsening of hyperthyroidism. 25. Insulin is secreted in the pancreas by beta cells. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, delta cells secrete somatostatin, and PP cells secrete a pancreatic polypeptide. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) B. prion. C. dendrite. D. pons. 15. During the postictal period, the person having a generalized seizure may A. be confused. B. be fatigued. C. fall into a deep sleep. D. all of the above 16. When does a countercoup injury occur? A. When there is a simple crack in the skull B. When the brain strikes one side of the skull and then rebounds, causing another area of damage C. When there are several fracture lines. D. When brain tissue is exposed. 17. Which statement about brain tumors is true? A. All brain tumors are secondary tumors. B. Whether benign or malignant, they can be life threatening. C. Prevalence and mortality rates are highest among females. D. The 5-year survival rate is less than 4%. 18. In a depressed skull fracture, A. bone fragments are displaced into the brain. B. brain tissue is exposed. C. the base of the skull is fractured and usually CSF leaks. D. all of the above 19. Tonic seizures cause A. repeated jerking movements of muscles on both sides of the body. B. stiffening of muscles of the body, especially those in the back and extremities. C. a loss of normal muscle tone. D. jerks or twitches of the upper body, arms, or legs. 20. As the gene that causes Huntington’s disease is transmitted from one generation to the next, A. the disease tends to get milder. B. the number of CAG repeats gets smaller. C. the faster the disease progresses. D. the later in life symptoms appear. 21. Temporary suppression of neurologic function because of spinal cord compression is referred to as A. spinal shock. B. cauda equina syndrome. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. autonomic hyperreflexia. D. neurogenic shock. 22. The peripheral nervous system is made up of A. the brain B. the spinal cord C. the nerves D. all of the above 23. Which color is present in the brain? A. White B. Black C. Red D. All of the above 24. An epidural hematoma occurs A. outside the dura and under the skull. B. beneath the dura but outside the brain. C. within the substance of the brain tissue. D. none of the above 25. Pathologic characteristics associated with Alzheimer’s disease are A. amyloid plaques. B. neurofibrillary tangles. C. connections between neurons responsible for memory and learning are lost. D. all of the above ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. B TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. D RATIONALES 1. The pons is found in the brain stem. 2. Improved dexterity is not part of AIDS dementia complex. Encephalitis, behavioral changes, and concentration difficulty are part of the complex. 3. An aura is actually a simple focal seizure. 4. The type of seizure that originates in just one part of the brain is a focal seizure. A generalized seizure is a result of abnormal neuronal activity on both sides of the brain. In what was formerly called a petit mal seizure, and is now called an absence seizure, a person may appear to be staring into space and/or have jerking or twitching muscles. 5. Another name for cerebral vascular accident is stroke. 6. Body temperature, respiration, and heartbeat are controlled by the hypothalamus. 7. Depolarization occurs when a rapid flow into the cell of positively charged sodium ions increases the charge. Resting potential is a charge at rest, because sodium ions are concentrated on the outside of the cell. 8. There are 12 pairs of thoracic nerves. 9. The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that the cranial cavity cannot be compressed, and the volume inside the cavity is fixed. The hypothesis explains the delicate relationship between ICP, volume of CSF, and cerebral perfusion. 10. During the period immediately following a head injury, objects sticking out of a wound should be left in place. Direct pressure should not be applied to the bleeding site. The wound should not be washed if it is deep or bleeding a lot. If a helmet is present, it should be left on. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 12 QUESTIONS 1. A fracture with multiple fracture lines and bone pieces is a(n) A. spiral fracture. B. oblique fracture. C. comminuted fracture. D. open fracture. 2. When Rickets occurs in adults it is called A. Paget’s disease. B. osteopenia. C. osteomalacia. D. kyphosis. 3. Which statement is true about short bones? A. Short bones have bodies that are longer than they are wide. B. They are approximately as wide as they are long. C. Examples include the femur and humerus. D. Short bones provide protection to the body’s vital organs. 4. A sprain would be graded Grade III if there is A. complete disruption of the ligament. B. minimal damage or disruption. C. moderate damage. D. none of the above 5. Ankylosing spondylitis affects the A. sacroiliac joints. B. hands. C. femur. D. skeletal muscle. 6. Shiny connective tissue that is tough and flexible is known as A. ligaments. B. cartilage. C. amphiarthroses. D. the matrix. 7. Approximately what percentage of the body’s weight is made up by skeletal muscles? A. 20% B. 40% TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) C. 60% D. 80% 8. The type of fracture that results when the skin is broken is a(n) A. open fracture. B. complete fracture. C. oblique fracture. D. comminuted fracture. 9. Which of the following statement is true about arthritis? A. Cracking your joints causes arthritis. B. Being double-jointed increases your risk for arthritis. C. Vaccinations can cause arthritis. D. None of the above. 10. Osteosarcoma begins in the A. cartilage cells commonly found on the ends of bones. B. bone cells. C. femur, tibia, or fibula. D. both B and C, above 11. An inflammatory disease resulting from deposits of uric acid crystals is called A. gout. B. ankylosing spondylitis. C. rheumatoid arthritis. D. osteoarthritis. 12. An increase in the curvature of the thoracic spine outward is known as A. kyphosis. B. scoliosis. C. lordosis. D. none of the above 13. How many bones does the human skeleton contain? A. 43 B. 110 C. 206 D. 719 14. Treatment for bone tumors could be A. surgical excision. B. amputation. C. radiation. D. all of the above 15. Which of the following statements is true about fibromyalgia? TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) A. Fibromyalgia is an autoimmune disease. B. The symptoms of fibromyalgia are caused by depression. C. Fibromyalgia is a psychologic problem. D. None of the above 16. The separation of two bones where they meet at a joint is A. diaphysis. B. dislocation. C. incomplete fracture. D. simple fracture. 17. Osteoarthritis typically begins after age A. 20. B. 40. C. 60. D. 80. 18. Muscles that connect to bone are called A. smooth muscles. B. cardiac muscles. C. skeletal muscles. D. tendons. 19. Which of the following might be a treatment strategy for rheumatoid arthritis? A. Physical therapy B. Regular exercise C. NSAIDs D. All of the above 20. The “blood cell factory” is A. yellow marrow. B. periosteum. C. red marrow. D. the synovial joints. 21. Which statement is true about muscles? A. All skeletal muscles make bones move. B. Some skeletal muscles steady joints, allowing other muscles to act. C. Muscle fibers have low action potential. D. All muscles are under voluntary control. 22. Repeated excessive stress can result in a(n) A. pathologic fracture. B. stress fracture. C. depressed fracture. D. open fracture. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 14. Treatment possibilities for bone tumors include surgical excision, amputation, and radiation. 15. None of the statements are true about fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is not an autoimmune disease, its symptoms are not caused by depression, and it is not a psychologic problem. 16. The separation of two bones where they meet at a joint is dislocation. 17. Osteoarthritis typically begins after age 40. 18. Muscles that connect to bone are called skeletal muscles. Smooth muscles line the walls of organs and tubes. Cardiac muscles make up the heart. Tendons are bands of connective tissue. 19. Treatment strategies for rheumatoid arthritis include physical therapy, regular exercise, and NSAIDs. 20. The “blood cell factory” is red marrow of the bones. Yellow marrow replaces red marrow as we age. The periosteum is a layer of connective tissue that covers compact bone surfaces. The synovial joints contain cartilage lubricated by synovial fluid. 21. Some skeletal muscles steady joints, allowing other muscles to act. Not all skeletal muscles make bones move. Muscle fibers are excitable, with high action potential. Not all muscles are under voluntary control. 22. Repeated excessive stress can result in a stress fracture. Pathologic fractures result from a weakness in the bone structure resulting from a condition such as tumors or osteoporosis. A depressed fracture occurs in the skull when the broken piece is forced inward on the brain. An open fracture refers to a fracture when the skin is broken. 23. Bone tumors rarely occur as primary tumors. The overall 5-year survival rate is approximately 68%. The majority are malignant. 24. A lateral deviation of the spine is known as scoliosis. Lordosis refers to an exaggerated concave shape of the lumbar spine. Kyphosis refers to an increase in the curvature of the thoracic spine outward. Gout is an inflammatory disease. 25. The smooth muscles are involuntary, which means that they work without conscious control by the brain. Skeletal muscles are the most frequently occurring muscle type. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 13 QUESTIONS 1. The outermost layer of the skin is the A. dermis. B. epidermis. C. hypodermis. D. subcutaneous tissue. 2. Which of the following statements is true about acne vulgaris? A. Acne vulgaris affects only adolescents. B. Tea tree oil and brewer’s yeast should be avoided. C. Acne vulgaris can affect people of any age. D. A low level of humidity is a risk factor. 3. Direct exposure to an irritant or allergen-producing substance causes A. urticaria. B. contact dermatitis. C. psoriasis. D. cellulitis. 4. The highest prevalence rates for skin cancer are in A. females. B. Caucasians. C. African Americans. D. those with no family history of the disease. 5. Which of the following statements is true about birthmarks? A. Birthmarks generally result from something the mother ate while pregnant. B. They are typically related to trauma to the skin during childbirth. C. Birthmarks result from maternal activities during pregnancy. D. None of the above 6. Sweat is secreted through skin pores by A. eccrine glands. B. apocrine glands. C. keratin. D. melanin. 7. With a burn, it is a good idea to A. blow on the burn. B. apply ointment to a severe burn. C. remove clothing stuck to the skin. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) D. none of the above 8. In terms of frequency, skin cancer is the A. most frequently occurring cancer. B. rarest cancer. C. second-most frequently occurring cancer. D. fifth most common cancer. 9. First-degree burns affect the A. epidermis and dermis. B. epidermis only. C. deeper tissues. D. all of the above 10. A boil is also called A. folliculitis. B. impetigo. C. a furuncle. D. cellulitis. 11. An example of localized albinism is A. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome. B. tuberous sclerosis. C. Waardenburg’s syndrome. D. all of the above. 12. The death rate from necrotizing fasciitis is A. 5% B. 25% C. 50% D. 80% 13. Herpes simplex (HSV) type 1 is transmitted by contact with A. a parasite. B. a fungus. C. infected saliva. D. all of the above 14. Which statement is true about the most aggressive forms of skin cancer? A. With early detection, they can be successfully treated. B. They are uniformly fatal. C. Cancerous growths are left in place. D. None of the above. 15. A mite infestation causes A. pediculosis. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 25. B RATIONALES 1. The outermost layer of the skin is the epidermis. Moving inward from the epidermis come the dermis and then the hypodermis or subcutaneous tissue. 2. Acne vulgaris can affect people of any age. Tea tree oil and brewer’s yeast are sometimes used for treatment. A high level of humidity is a risk factor 3. Direct exposure to an irritant or allergen-producing substance causes contact dermatitis. Urticaria is caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction. The cause of psoriasis is unknown, but may be an autoimmune reaction. Cellulitis is caused by infection. 4. The highest prevalence rates for skin cancer are in African Americans. 5. None of the statement about birthmarks is true. Birthmarks do not result from something the mother ate or did while pregnant, and they are not related to trauma to the skin during childbirth. 6. Sweat is secreted through skin pores by eccrine glands. Apocrine glands open into hair follicles. Keratin is a protein that strengthens the skin. Melanin is a pigment that protects the skin from UV rays. 7. It is not a good idea to blow on a burn, apply ointment to a severe burn, or remove clothing stuck to burned skin. 8. In terms of frequency, skin cancer is the most frequently occurring cancer. 9. First-degree burns affect the epidermis only. Second-degree burns affect the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns affect deeper tissues. 10. A boil is also called a furuncle. Folliculitis is an infection of the hair follicles. Impetigo and cellulitis are skin infections. 11. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome, tuberous sclerosis, and Waardenburg’s syndrome are all examples of localized albinism. 12. The death rate from necrotizing fasciitis is about 25%. 13. Herpes simplex (HSV) type 1 is transmitted by contact with infected saliva. 14. With early detection, the most aggressive forms of skin cancer can be successfully treated. They are uniformly fatal. Cancerous growths are removed. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 15. A mite infestation causes scabies. Pediculosis is caused by a lice infestation. Tinea is a fungal infection; when it occurs on the body, it is called ringworm. 16. Hyperthermia is not a potential complication of burns. Sepsis, shock, and hypovolemia are potential complications. 17. The integumentary system accounts for approximately 15% of the body’s weight. 18. Impetigo is highly contagious. It is common. It is not an infection of the hair follicles (folliculitis is). Typically impetigo is caused by a staphyloccal, rather than streptococcal, infection. 19. Birthmarks the color of coffee with milk are café au lait spots. Port-wine stains, hemangiomas, and macular stains are types of vascular birthmarks. 20. Eating shellfish or nuts might trigger urticaria. Contact dermatitis is caused by direct exposure to an irritant or allergen-producing substance. The cause of psoriasis is unknown, but may be an autoimmune reaction. Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) is a fungal infection. 21. Foods that increase blood sugar may play a role in acne. Acne is not caused by greasy foods. Hard scrubbing with strong soaps should be avoided. 22. Skin tags are more common in older people, and often occur on the neck. They also often occur in people who are overweight. 23. Rosacea is prevalent in women. 24. A protein that protects the skin from ultraviolet (UV) rays is melanin. Lentigo refers to age spots, or liver spots. Keratin is a protein that strengthens the skin. Tinea is a fungal infection. 25. Albinism often impairs vision. It does not affect intellectual development. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) CHAPTER 14 QUESTIONS 1. Noxious stimuli to internal organs causes A. visceral pain. B. somatic pain. C. referred pain. D. neuropathic pain. 2. A gaze deviation of one eye is known as A. retinal detachment. B. cataract. C. strabismus. D. none of the above 3. In the ear, which structure vibrates when struck by sound waves? A. Cochlea B. Ossicles C. Tympanic membrane D. External auditory canal 4. Which of the following statements is true about pain? A. Pain is a protective mechanism. B. It is unaffected by affective or cognitive factors. C. Pain is the most common reason people seek medical attention. D. Both A and C, above 5. Age-related hearing loss is called A. presbycusis. B. anotia. C. atresia. D. congenital hearing loss. 6. Otitis media is an infection of the A. organ of Corti. B. outer ear. C. middle ear. D. inner ear. 7. The colored portion of the eye is called the A. cornea. B. iris. C. pupil. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) D. cataract. 23. An abnormal bone growth in the middle ear is known as A. otosclerosis. B. Meniere’s disease. C. otitis externa. D. otitis media. 24. Hearing receptors, the hair cells, are contained in the A. cochlear duct. B. organ of Corti. C. tympanic duct. D. vestibular duct. 25. An inflammation of the cornea is A. conjunctivitis. B. keratitis. C. glaucoma. D. all of the above ANSWER KEY 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. A TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 24. B 25. B RATIONALES 1. Noxious stimuli to internal organs causes visceral pain. Somatic pain results from noxious stimuli to the skin, joints, muscles, and tendons. Referred pain is visceral pain sensed on body surfaces at different locations. Neuropathic pain results from damage to peripheral nerves by disease or injury. 2. A gaze deviation of one eye is known as strabismus. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina separates from its supporting structures. A Cataract is opacity or clouding of the lens of the eye. 3. In the ear, the tympanic membrane vibrates when struck by sound waves. The cochlea converts fluid waves to nerve impulses. The ossicles transmit sound to the cochlea. 4. Pain is a protective mechanism, and is the most common reason people seek medical attention. It is affected by affective and cognitive factors. 5. Age-related hearing loss is called presbycusis. Anotia refers to the absence of the auricle. Atresia refers to the lack of an external ear canal. Congenital hearing loss can be caused by maternal rubella or syphilis during pregnancy. 6. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear. 7. The colored portion of the eye is called the iris. The cornea is the clear lens. The pupil is the dark opening in the center of the iris. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye. 8. Pain that exists after the removal of a body part is known as phantom pain. Neuropathic pain results from damage to peripheral nerves. Somatic pain results from stimuli to the skin, joints, muscles, and tendons. Pain tolerance can result from unrelieved pain. 9. Diabetic retinopathy is the leading cause of blindness, and glaucoma is second. 10. Each eye contains about 150 million rods. In contrast, each eye contains “only” about 6 million cones. 11. When your ears pop while taking off in an airplane, this is a result of pressure being released from the eustachian tube. 12. Vision deficits are severe enough to impair driving ability in 15% to 20% of elderly people. TB EXTRA QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2023 (Download To Score A plus) 13. Closed-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency. Secondary glaucoma is the result of certain medications. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type. 14. With age, the senses tend to become less able to distinguish details and less acute. 15. A function of the ear is helping maintain balance and detecting and processing sound. Detecting light touch is the responsibility of Meissner’s corpuscle, found just below the epidermis. 16. In the eye, images are focused on the retina by the lens. 17. Somatic pain is the result of noxious stimuli to the skin, joints, muscles, and tendons. Visceral pain is the result of noxious stimuli to internal organs. Referred pain is pain sensed at locations distant from the originating organ. Chronically progressing pain is intractable pain. 18. The dark opening in the center of the eye is the pupil. The sclera is the white area of the outermost layer of the eye. The iris is the colored portion of the eye. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye. 19. Any sensory organ can develop cancer. Cancer of the ear is uncommon. 20. Pacinian corpuscles are the receptors used for the sense of pressure. Light touch is detected by Meissner’s corpuscles. Temperature and pain are detected by naked nerve endings. 21. An underdeveloped, small auricle is referred to as microtia. Anotia is the absence of the auricle. Atresia is the absence of an external ear canal. Presbycusis is age-related loss of hearing. 22. An acute condition of the eye is retinal detachment. Amblyopia is the loss of one eye’s ability to see details. Strabismus is gaze deviation of one eye. A cataract is opacity or clouding of the lens of the eye. 23. An abnormal bone growth in the middle ear is known as otosclerosis. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear. Otitis externa (swimmer’s ear) is an infection or inflammation of the external ear canal or auricle. Otitis media is an infection or inflammation of the middle ear. 24. Hearing receptors, the hair cells, are contained in the organ of Corti. 25. An inflammation of the cornea is keratitis. Conjunctivitis is an infection or inflammation of the lining of the eyelids and sclera. Glaucoma refers to a group of conditions that lead to damage of the optic nerve.