PEAT Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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PEAT Exam Questions with 100%

Correct Answers | Verified | Updated

Brief intense TENS? what is conventional TENS used for? What is low rate TENS used for? What is modulated TENS used for? burst mode (pulse trains) TENS. p461 - Correct Answer-Brief intense TENS -given right before painful procedures or painful manual therapy conventional: application time is longer than brief, and it is decr in intensity. (acute or chronic) strong low rate TENS (aka acupuncture like TENS) - doesn't do immediate relief of pain; CHRONIC phase of pain. the

application time is longer bc it duration of relief is supposed to be longer lasting (>1 hr). modulated - to prevent accommodating; not to provide immediate pain relief. burst mode (pulse trains) TENS- combined low and high rate TENS to stim endog opioids but more tolerable than low rate. contraindications to ES. How does it differ for demand type PM vs fixed rate PM? Can you do ES with insulin pump? Can you do in a prego person? - Correct Answer-Can't do ES anywhere in the body with demand type PM. Just don't do ES over the site if pt has fixed rate PM. In the fixed rate mode, the pace rate is set by the clinician regardless of the patient's intrinsic heart rate. ... In demand mode pacing, the pacer senses the patient's intrinsic heart rate and will pace if the intrinsic signal is slower than the rate programmed by the clinician.

Don't do ES anywhere in body with electronic devices (insulin pump, vagus n stimulator). Yes prego but not back or abdomen. contraindications to ES. - Correct Answer-suspected epilepsy or seizure dz. thoracic region. What electrode should you use and what material with infected wound ES? - Correct Answer-Anode (+) combo with silver with infectd wound. If no infection, use cathode initially. ABeta, A delta, C fibers. how do they all relate in TENS? - Correct Answer-A Beta (touch) fibers block A delta (fast) and C (slow) fibers (pain). Gate theory bitch. ventolin (albuterol) - slow or fast acting for acute sx? - Correct Answer-Fast acting! Don't look for the difficult stuff. Common meds are coming up bc we want to know them. It is a short acting beta 2 agonist, relieving bronchoconstriction. Diff btwn obers test and modified obers? - Correct Answer- Obers: NORMALLY KNEE FLEXED. But for pts who have decr

mm length/ too much tightness of rectus femoris, the therapist can do modified version. Mod obers- with knee bent. Modified for the pt to test TFL still by putting rectus femoris on slack so can get necessary hip ext to test TFL. It's modified for the patient's needs- not for the therapist bc it's a fat ****ing leg. What do you use wet to dry dressings for? What can you use low pressure wound irritation (below 15 psi) - Correct Answer-For removing necrotic tissue! Helps to decr colonization and prevent infection. You can use it on a normal healing ulcer apparently. Valsalva with a pt with cardio dz? What's the change in vitals? e.g. pt 2 d s/p CABG? - Correct Answer-slowing of the pulse (decr return of blood to heart) and incr venous pressure. Can be dangerous c CVD bc blood rushes to heart and can overload the system --> cardiac arrest.

What's a cholinergic response? - Correct Answer-aka vagal response aka vasovagal response. Passing out due to sudden drop in BP and HR. Result of PNS stim providing inhibit control of the vague n over HR and AV conduction. What is acute cholecystitis? | Sx? - Correct Answer-Acute cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder that develops over hours, usually because a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct. Dad had acute cholecystitis. Symptoms include right upper quadrant pain (appendix is LOWER quadrant pain) and tenderness, sometimes accompanied by fever, chills, nausea, and vomiting. You notice lots of bruising on your elderly pt who comes in for a foosh. They are on Aricept, Lasix, and Warfarin. What do you do? - Correct Answer-Cont with eval. Aricept is for AD- alzheimer's dementia. Warfarin is a blood thinner which could explain the bruising. Other thinners= Eliquis, Xarelto, Coumadin, Xarelto, Heparin/ Lovenox.

antipyretic means what? - Correct Answer-Tx's fever. (pyretic = hot like pyromaniac). Doesn't tx condition, just lessens fever. Tylenol. Methotrexate is a drug for what? What are SE to watch out for? - Correct Answer-DMARD! Dz modifying antirhumatic drug. Slow/stop rheumatic disease progression. Modify and inhibit pathological effects and immune responses of rheumatic disease. Used mostly in early stages of disease. High incidence of drug toxicity. Examples: Methotrexate, leflunomide, chloroquine. other SE: mouth sores, anemia, bloody/tarry stools What is a neuroleptic? - Correct Answer-Modifies psychotic behavior. What do SSRIs, SNRIs, Tricyclics, MAOIs do? - Correct Answer- Anti depressants.

What is Codeine? SE? - Correct Answer-Narcotic cough suppressant. STRONG cough suppressant. Watch out for dependence issues. What is dexamathazone? - Correct Answer-Corticosteroid! Use with negative head (cathode) for iontophoresis. I SAD. dexamethazone, acetate (Dexter is an Ass), Which CN is responsible for the efferent portion of the pupillary light reflex? For the afferent? What does the trochlear n do for eye movt? - Correct Answer-efferent- CN3. afferent - CN2. trochlear (CN4) - superior oblique. - downward and lateral movts of the eye. Capsular pattern for c spine? - Correct Answer-lat flex and rotation equally limited, ext. Capsular pattern for TMJ. Which side is limited with lateral deviation? - Correct Answer-Capsular pattern: inability to fully open, deviation with opening to INVOLVED side. Decr lateral deviation to the INVOLVED side.

so if R TMJ capsular pattern: open mouth and dev to the R lat dev to L is 15, lat dev to R is 7. (normal lat is 10-15, normal opening is 35-50, normal protrusion is 3-6). Substernal pain that radiates to the neck and upper back; diff swallowing; pain aggrev c movt or coughing and is relieved by leaning forward or sitting upright. Hx of fever, chills, weakness, or heart dz. What is this describing? - Correct Answer-developing pericarditis. What happens if a deep partial burn gets infected? - Correct Answer-It can convert to a full thickness wound. Yikes. Also high risk for hypertroph and keloid scars with deep partial and full thickness. Do you want to screen kids for scoliosis before or during pubescent growth spurt? So ages for M and F? - Correct Answer-Want to screen BEFORE. puberty. Enough time to see if they can be corrected during puberty. So M: 11-13 (puberty (14-17)

F: 9-11 (puberty 12-14) Are grade 3 mobs indic for pain relief? What classific system is that, Maitland or Kaltenborn? - Correct Answer-No. Grade 3- is for stretching tight mm/ capsules, lig. 1=2= decr pain/ guarding, used for improving joint lub/ nutrition. 5= regain normal jt mechanics, (and decr pain). It's Maitland. Kaltenborn= 3 grades. 1- "loosening" - v small, reliefve pain. 2- "tightening" - translat glide, movt takes up slack in tissues, use to help pain, assess jt play, decr guarding. 3- "stretching" - assess end feel, incr movt. To facilitate incr step length on LLE, what modifications would we do? post directed resistance to LLE during swing ant directed resistance to LLE during stance post directed resistance to LLE during stance ant directed resistance to LLE during swing - Correct Answer- post directed resistance to LLE during STANCE.

light resistance to the same side leg during midstance to late stance will facil forw pelvic rotation on that side, enhancing forward movt of the limb c swing. Don't mess with facil in swing phase bc can interfere c stepping. Resist the movt you want to get pt to do it more on their own. C113. Where does NPTE say constipation referred pain presents? - Correct Answer-ant hip, groin, or thigh region. What do the PCL and ACL both limit? What does the medial patello femoral ligament do? - Correct Answer-Both limit IR! ER is limited by MCL and LCL. | MPFL limits lateral translation of patella. Often is disrupted with noncontact twisting MOIs. What joint(s) are usually affected with JRA? (Oligoarticular juvenile RA). - Correct Answer-In some combination, the knees, ankles, wrists, or elbows are most freq affected joints. The hips are usually spared. (so think more than 1 location).

If the ramp is steep, how should someone descend in a WC? - Correct Answer-in a wheelie position. If not steep, just grip hands loosely and control descent. Pt has extensor spasms. They want a chair that can help with pressure relief. What do you recommend? - Correct Answer- tilt in space.keeps form so you don't go into ext. don't do just leg rests/ back recliner bc can go into ext spasms. What back ex should you avoid with a spondylolithesis? - Correct Answer-Ext. Will make it worse and provoke the fx of the pars interarticularis "Scotty dog" (actual fx is the scotty dog= lysis. lithesis is the slippage of one vert on another). When do you expect mm hypertrophy after beginning a strengthening program? 4-5 wks, or 6-8wks - Correct Answer-6-8 wks. Like bone healing! Which of the following tests would be the least effective in assessing ACL ligament integrity? Lachman's test

Anterior drawer test Slocum's test Lateral pivot shift test - Correct Answer-lat pivot shift test. Probs just not as effective bc hard to get pt to do? Slocum's test = Ant lat/ ant medial test of ACL. Rotary instability. What test tests for post med/lat instability of PCL injuries? - Correct Answer-Hueston's. (Slocum = ACL, Hueston= PCL). how are magnesium and thyroid related? - Correct Answer- hypermagnesium correlated with HYPO thyroidism! (hypothyroidism can cause hypermagnesium. The usual "hyper/hyper, hypo/hypo" doesn't apply. Your pt has a L CVA. You are gait training for the first time. What side should you stand on? - Correct Answer-R hemi, & you want to stand on their R. Be guarding patients on their more involved side. (harder to catch if they fall away from you).

The amount of air that is under volitional control. | how much do infants and adults have of tidal volume? - Correct Answer- vital capacity (IRV + TV + ERV). | TV. infant: 20, adults 500. (small lungs!) what are RED FLAG contra-indic for superficial heat? - Correct Answer-decr circulation, DECR SENSATION (e.g. DM pt with altered sensation), DVT (don't want to dislodge it and cause PE), impaired cog fx (not for severe Alz D pt), malignant tumors, tendency toward hemorrhage or edema, v young or v old pts. Your pt had a SCI level L3. After a hard therapy session he experiences soreness and wishes to have an icepack. What do you do? - Correct Answer-Encourage the pt against it, bc don't want icepacks over regenerating peripheral nerves. It will slow things down. (So also GBS, maybe ALS). Can you do US over a cemented shoulder joint? How about using it with a peripheral neuropathy pt on their calves? - Correct Answer-No. Contra-indicated. | No, don't do with impaired sensation. How deep can 1 MHz get? 3 MHz? - Correct Answer-1: 6cm

3: 1-2.5 cm (TMJ, lat epicondyle) Your pt has HTN and spondylolithesis. They ask when more they can be doing for HEP, and they mention a lumbar traction machine they saw on tv. They ask if it can be used/ what settings. What do you tell them? | A diff pt has a disc bulge. Can do you it with them? - Correct Answer-It is contraindicated. Spondys often have pars fractures, and traction is contr with any nearby fracture. Also as a whole, it is a red flag contra to use traction machine with a spinal cord compression too. Their compression has yrs and yrs of structures accomdoated to that position of compression. If they do traction at home unsupervised or even in the clinic, it might lead to something rupturing and breaking and causing something terrible. Don't do it. Also HTN is a red flag contra for traction (can incr c a sympathetic response to therapy). | Disc bulge is an indication for doing it! More acute of a change, more periph/ centraliz focused (not so much on the vertb themselves). p452. Rule of 3 for thoracic spine. - Correct Answer-T1-3: SP even with TPs T4-6: SP 1/2 below TP T7-9: SP 1 full seg below TP T10 1

T11 1/

T12 even Diff between spondylolithesis and disc bulge/ herniation. - Correct Answer-spondy- more of a focus on anatomically WHERE the vertebrae are. (ant forward ontop of bottom. 1- (5=100%). disc bulge/herniation - neuro sx with it (periph, centralization) herniated nucleus at L3 -4 would result in sx presenting more for L3 or for L4? - Correct Answer-For L4. A physical therapist is preparing to perform a bed to chair transfer with a patient who is taking an angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. During this transfer, the physical therapist should monitor the patient for the possibility of what with BP? - Correct Answer-Drop in S and D. OH d/t ACE inhibitor. When you tell your pt to stand up they can't figure it out, but when you put an icecream bar in front of them on a high desk, they stand up and get it. What kind of deficit is this? - Correct

Answer-Ideomotor apraxia. Diff doing things on command, but can do them more instinctively. What stage of AI is a good one for using intermittent compression? - Correct Answer-None, don't do compression with AI bc it incr peripheral vascular resistance. Even if pt has lymphed and AI, and the compression would help lymphed, still don't. where would hiatal hernia refer pain to? Where for inguinal? - Correct Answer-hiatal hernia (above stom) - refer to R pain femoral hernia - refer to lateral pelvic wall inguinal hernia - groin pain umbilical hernia - umbilical ring (in the mid to lower abdomen) What structure is the 1* restraint to ant/inf translation of humerus c overhead activities? - Correct Answer-the Inf GH lig.

What is the double product? aka? measures? - Correct Answer-aka rate pressure product. HR x SBP It measures the myocardial oxygen demand. So how much the demand is on the heart when a pt says he starts to have pain at a certain point in walking. You can take HR and SBP when he has pain and see what the RPP/ double product is for estimating myocardial demand. NOTHING here for subj RPE scale. Your pt is exercising and has a SBP rise from 130 to 228. You also see your pt's DBP go from 80 to 100. Which if either are you concerned about? - Correct Answer- Concerned about both. In a pt with no cardiac hx, SBP > 220 are considered abnormal. DBP changes of 10 greater or lower than resting values are considered abnormal response. No change in DBP is expected, but you get a +/- 10 leeway. Diastolic blood pressure changes of 10 mm Hg or more above or below resting values are considered abnormal responses to exercise. No change in diastolic blood pressure is expected.

4. Systolic blood pressure increases greater than 220 mm Hg are considered abnormal. Is ES contraindicated in malignant CA pts? - Correct Answer- Basically. "Electrical stimulation is contraindicated in the presence of malignancy, because electrical currents may enhance tissue growth, including growth of malignant tissue (p. 259)." What is hypoesthia? What is dysesthia? - Correct Answer-hypoesthia = numbness. decr senation. dysethia= impaired sensation. painful sensations when touched as c CRPS. What does the obturator nerve supply? What position would you need to test it in to see if pt has a fair (3/5) or better? prone, supine, sidely, seated - Correct Answer-adductor mm and part of the ERs.

sidely. adductors = anti g. Pt's unable to feel ____g nylon filament are considered unable to protect their feet from injury and are at risk for ulcers. - Correct Answer-Patients unable to feel a 10-gram nylon filament are considered unable to protect their feet from injury and are at risk of ulceration. What is Whirlpool used for? - Correct Answer-mechanical debridement. Fugel Meyer Assessment is for what pt population? What does it measure? - Correct Answer-For stroke. Measures pertinent IMPAIRMENTS: reflexes (hyper, hypo), synergies (min, mod), ROM restrictions., balance, sensory). What does the sciatic n innervate? What does it branch off into - Correct Answer-innerv HS! Hip extensors (long ones). G max is inf gluteal n. sciatic branches into tibial n (post- to tib post, flexors of the foot), and common peroneal n (lateral). C peroneal splits into

deep fibular (to the TA, EDL, fib TERTIUS (more of a DF anyway) and superficial fib. (fib longus, brevis). see "Peat 1 corrections" for diagram. Pt's with HIV will show what changes in blood work? - Correct Answer-CD4: < 200 viral load >>>. Want a lower viral load. WBC- high would indicate you are fighting an infection (so higher WBC). side bend and rotate to the opposite side occurs at what joints? - Correct Answer-At C1 and C2. (not at OA apparently). OA active ROM = flex/ext (yes joint). What joints do RA affect more commonly? - Correct Answer- Smaller ones generally. Hands, feet, but also HIPS, and SHOULDERs. Not knees generally.

S&S of osteomalcia. - Correct Answer-The dull, aching pain associated with osteomalacia most commonly affects the lower back, pelvis, hips, legs and ribs. The pain is worse when you put pressure on the bones. The pain is rarely relieved completely by rest. Decreased muscle tone and leg weakness can cause a waddling gait and make walking slower and more difficult. ("Rickets" in children. fractures in adults) How would you drain the anterior segments of the lower lobes? - Correct Answer-Lying supine on a bed with pillows under the knees Your pt is dehydrated. What would you expect from their HR and BP? - Correct Answer-Incr HR, decr BP. Think of someone donating. They become dehydrated and their BP drops, and HR spikes to compensate (baroreceptor reflex) Do you want a high or low PSA? Which indicates prostate compromise? - Correct Answer-Want a low PSA. It's a prostate specific ANTIGEN. Don't want antigens.

Your pt has AC joint arthritis. What position is the worst for them? - Correct Answer-horiz adduction, 90* flexion. (e.g. ACT- "Obrien's".) or cross body adduction test. "resisted ext" is another AC test. Ask pt to horiz ABD against your resistance. What is the benefit of the Lachman test over the Ant drawer test when assessing ACL integrity? - Correct Answer-The Lachman position takes off the tension that the HS may be providing (inadvert) during the ant drawer. A meniscal tear can also create a false negative test with the knee in the flexed position for ant drawer. Why is hydrostatic pressure good for pts with LE edema? - Correct Answer-The hydrostatic pressure of deep water exerts equal pressure around the lower extremity that creates a pressure gradient encouraging the proximal flow of fluids, which reduces edema. YEET. Why wouldn't you put a pt having incisional pain with coughing on their right side if they had a left lobectomy? - Correct Answer-Lying on the right side will still leave the left- sided incision unbraced. (manual bracing = helps with

incisional pain). The patient's pain will not be improved in this position. What gland is adrenalin released from during stress? Is growth hormone incr or decr in response to stress? - Correct Answer-From the medulla of the adrenal gland. to release catecholamines, such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine, into the bloodstream. GH is incr in response to stress. From the pituitary. Fukuda/Unterberger Test. How to do this test/ how to interpret? - Correct Answer-Fukuda/ unterberger step test. 50-100 steps in place, EC, arms out to 90. If the patient rotates to one side > 30 they may have a labyrinthine lesion on that side. (not specific/ sensitive tho) Would you be more concerned with causing neuroapraxia for cryotherapy for tennis elbow or golfer's?

Where's another spot to watch for causing this? - Correct Answer-More c tennis elbow (lateral)- bc close to radial a. For medial, you would do ice to common flexor origin that's antereomedial, not post med at the ulnar n. Another big spot = over insertion of LCL bc that's by the common peroneal n. What does the obturator nerve innervate? - Correct Answer- sensory- medial thigh. motor- adductors mainly (add longus, add brevis, magnus, gracilis, pectinus. Also EXTERNAL obturator. inert obturator internus = innerv by the inernal obturator n. Which is more advanced for a diastasis recti? Pelvic tilt with leg slides or hooklying head lifts? - Correct Answer-pelvic tilt with leg slides = more advanced. Do hookly for head lifts initially.

PEAT says the fx of trochlear n =? - Correct Answer-looking inf and medially. (think troch on your nose). If your wet to dry gauze is leaving the periwound macerated, what do you do? - Correct Answer-change to something more absorbent. Not ok to have a mascerated periW tho it happens a lot. It will impair healing. A patient recovering from a cervical spine injury is performing stabilization exercises that focus on the lower cervical and upper thoracic extensor muscles. Which of the following exercises would provide the GREATEST cervical spine protection? - Correct Answer-4In prone position with the upper extremities abducted and laterally (externally) rotated, horizontally abduct the shoulders and adduct the scapulae. Jesus gave us the most protection of our C spine when he was on the cross. Mkay. Who is responsible for DC? - Correct Answer-They are legit talking about social worker. Just basics, don't overthink things.