Pediatrics Final Review Exam: Dermatology Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

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1NSG6435 FINAL REVIEW EXAM 202 5 LATEST

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1. What medical term is used to identify inflammation disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus’ with lesion that have indistinct border: - Eczema. - Pityriasis versicolor - Pityriasis rosea - psoriasis
2. DERMATOPHYTE skin infection can be diagnosed from skin scraping and prepared with which solution for microscopic exam: - 10% or 20% potassium hydroxide KOH solution. - Hydrochloric acid - Distilled water - Gram stain
3. ACIRCUMSCRIBED elevated lesion more than 1 cm in diameter in containing clear serous fluid is best described as: - Bullae - Pustule - Vesicle - papule
4. When assessing in children’s hydration status the best place to evaluate skin turgor on an adult is: - on the back of the hand - on the inside of the forearm - just below the clavicle - the fleshy part of the arms and legs -

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4. what is the treatment for strawberry hemangioma? - Support involution. - Cosmetic medical removal - Oral antibiotics - Topical steroids 6 - Which Of The Following causes condylomas acuminata or genital wart: - human papilloma virus (HPV). - Herpes simplex virus (HSV1) - Adenovirus - Chlamydia

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- Bullous Impetigo. - Tinea capitis - Rubella (German measles) - Atopic dermatitis A- patient complaining of hyper Hyperhidrosis should be counseled that - A history and physical need to be completed to rule out any medical etiologies. - There are no therapies for this patient - This is normal occurrences - Bathing in 20% alcohol solution of aluminum chloride hexahydrate(drysol) 13 - Which acne lesions are classified as inflammatory? Please select all that apply: - Pustules - Nodules - Papules - Opened comedones (acne primary sign) 14 - The Family Nurse practitioner inspecting a dark-skinned individual for signs of jaundice, the best place to observe skin color in dark skin individual is: - Sclera of the open Eye. - Nail beds - Palm & soles of the hand and feet - Oral mucosa 15 - During an assessment, the family nurse notes the client’s nails to look at the picture

• what would be a probable diagnosis? Koilonychia, also known as spoon nails - Koilonychia - Nail pitting - Beau’s lines - Finger clubbing 16 - Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis: - Itching

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- Vesicle that burst from crust - Popular rash - High fever 17 - What term is used to identify an inflamed hair root: - Furuncle. - Tinea - Verruca - erysipelas 18 - The family nurse practitioner has made a diagnosis of ONCHOMICOSIS. Which picture would the family nurse practitioner notes while performing physical exam of the patient: - A - B - C - D 19 - Folliculitis is most commonly due to: - Staphylococcal infection. - Contact dermatitis - Dermatophytes ( fungus) - Varicella zoster ( chicken pox) 20 - What is the recommended treatment for rosacea: a. low dose tetracycline

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b. dermatitis c. Psoriasis d. acne 26A young male patient present to the family nurse practitioner office complaining of flulike symptoms a large red spot in the right groin headed in generalized muscle pain these symptoms have persisted for about four to five weeks in taking the history he will be most important to determine whether the patient : a. has a recent insect bite or was potentially exposed to insects such as tick b. has been exposed to a person with tuberculosis c. was using new skin care products d. was taking new medication such as vitamins and herbal therapies 27 - What is the cause of molluscum contagiosum a. virus b. bacteria c. rickettsia d. fungi 28.Which of the following would you treat with topical antibiotic No answer except for this pic 29 - missing 30 missing 31 - missing 32 - missing 33 - Clubbing of the nails commonly occurs in patients with chronic respiratory condition the family nurse practitioner access is for this condition by :

- placing nailbed of each index finger together to determine angle of nail plate - evaluating the nail for transverse depression in ridges - determining if there's a diffuse discoloration of the nail bed from decrease oxygenation - placing the patient hands together with palm towards the index finger aligned 34 - Which contagious diseases caused by the each mite - scabies

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- pediculosis - Miliaria - tinea corporis 35 - the treatment choice for Rocky Mountain spotted fever for six year old patient with NKA is the following - doxycycline - amoxicillin - Azithromycin - Chloramphenicol 36 - in latex allergies which immunoglobulin IG is associated with an immediate reaction - IgG - IgA - IgE - IGb 37 - Frequently diaper dermatitis is secondarily infected with which Organism - candida albicans - E coli - proteus spp - Staphylococcus aureus 38 - The history and physical of a patient indicates past occurrences of lichenification ,The family nurse practitioner identifies the characteristic of this lesion as : - rough thickened epidermis accentuated skin margins - dried crusty exit date slightly elevated - keratinized cells shaped in an irregular pattern with exfoliation - loss of epidermis with hollowed out area in dermis exposed 39 - Which type of lesion is referred to as resembling a dewdrop on a rose petal - varicella zoster - rubella - measles - tinea 40 - Which one of the following lesion is found in secondary syphilis? - rough red or reddish Brown spot both on the palm of the hands and the bottom of the feet - painless chancres - there are no visible sign of symptoms of syphilis - it can affect multiple organ system - 41. A patient has a diagnosis of scabies. Which presentation would the family nurse practitioner expect to note on physical exam?

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C) Nodule D) Wheal

44. Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterized which type of psoriasis? A) Plaque B) Bullae C) Vesicle D) Lichen
45. The family nurse practitioner has made a diagnosis of psoria Vulgaris after noticing tiny bleeding points when one of the lesion is scrapped (Auspitz’s sign). Which image is consistent with the clinical presentation of psoriasis? A) C B) A C) B D) D
46. What is true about Human Papilloma Virus (HPV). Please select all that apply: A) Viruses that cause warts. B) Wart viruses are contagious

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C) People with a weakened immune system (the body’s defense system) are prone to get them D) There are a few different types of warts. The type is determined by where it grows on the body and what it looks like. E) Children and teens are prone to get them.

47. The rash in syphilis has the following characteristics: A) Itch rash is a hallmark of syphilis B) Usually does not cause itching C) Always cause itching D) Itch rash is a hallmark of syphilis
48. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus? A) Scales B) Vesicles C) Uticaria D) Plaques
49. Which statements are true regarding a Nevus? A) Nevi are characterized by irregular borders. B) Nevi share a relationship with melanoma. C) Nevi begin to form at the age of 3 to 5 years. D) A nevus is an aggregation of malanocytes E) Nevi always warrant being removed. 50. The Wood’s lamp may be used to evaluate skin lesions. When the light is shone on the patient’s skin, a green-yellow fluorescence indicates: A) Lichenification B) Bacterial colonies C) Keratinized cells D) Prescence of fungi
50. Please select all that apply regarding the following lesion describe as follows “ A pink or flesh-colored bumps on the skin. These bumps can appear anywhere on the skin”. A) People who have a weakened immune system are more prone to have it.

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B) Salmon patch C) Capillary hemangioma D) Café au lait spot

57. A 5 year-old presents to the clinic with diffuse abdominal pain, irritability, and a low- grade fever. The mother states the child has not had a bowel movement since the previous morning. Physical examination reveals umbilical tenderness, guarding, and hypoactive bowel sounds. The family nurse practitioner’s next step is to: A) Refer to physician/ surgeon for further evaluation B) Prescribe pediatric Fleet enemas C) Assess for rebound tenderness and do a rectal exam D) Assess dietary intake for the past 24 hours
58. Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit in the treatment of which of the following disease processes? A) Bacterial sinusitis more 14 days B) Chronic bronchitis C) Acute bronchitis D) Aged-school child with pneumonia
59. A 3 year old child who is enrolled in Head Start is suspected of having developmental delays based on Denver Development II results at two separate clinic visits. What would be the next step in the plan of care? A) Request Head Start complete an independent evaluation B) Discuss interventions to foster development with the parents C) Repeat testing in one year D) Refer the child for a more definitive evaluation
60. A 10 - year-old boy is experiencing problems with wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath about 4 hours after basketball practice. He has normal respirations and only experiences the problems after exercise. He is experiencing no other respiratory problems,

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and the physical findings are within normal limits. What is the treatment of choice for this child? A) Cromolyn sodium (Intal) 2 puffs each morning. B)Theophylline (Theo-24; methylxanthine) 100mg po bid C) Beciomethasone (Beclovent) 2 puffs 3 - 4 times daily D) Albuterol (Ventolin) 2 puffs MDI 20 - 30 minutes before exercise

61. Which of the following is correct in response to a patient's Question concerning possible cause of testicular cancer? A. Balanitis B. Syphilis C. Cryptorchidism D. Gonorrhea
62. A common cause of acute abdominal pain in children under 5 years old is: A. Incarcerated hernias B. Gastroenteritis C. Intussusception D. Appendicitis
63. The family nurse practitioner is preparing to examine the Abdomen of a patient. What is the correct. sequence in which to conduct the exam? A. Percussion, palpitation, auscultation, inspection. B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpitation C. Palpitations, percussion, auscultation, inspection. D. Inspection, Palpitation, percussion, auscultation
64. A family nurse practitioner knows. Normal breath sounds that have a low pitch and soft intensity and that all heard best on inspiration over the posterial long fields are called; A.Vesicular B. Bronchial C. Rhonchial D. Bronchovesicular
    65. Which of the following best measure of toddler's development A. M-Chat

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nurse practitioner is negative for WBC’s. What is the most likely etiologic pathogen for this young child’s gastroenteritis? a. Shigella dysenteriae b. Salmonella c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Rotavirus

72. Missing??????
73. A 3-year-old child with up to date immunizations is brought to the office by his mother with a fairly rapid onset stridor and high-pitched wheeze. In view of this information, what would be the least important condition to consider for the differential diagnosis? a. Croup b. Bacterial tracheitis c. Foreign body aspiration d. Epiglottitis
74. When determining the classification of asthma control in a patient from 12 to 60 years old, who has symptoms less than 2 days per week, no interference with normal activity, reports nighttime awakening 1 time or less per month and using a short acting B2 agonist 3 - 4 times per week, the family nurse practitioner would classify the patient as: a. Well-controlled b. Very poorly controlled c. Not well-controlled d. Out of control
75. A 3-year-old child is seen in the clinic for chronic, relapsing diarrhea. A stool for ova and parasites is obtained and is positive for Giardia. What is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Erythromycin (E-Mycin) c. Ampicillin (Omnipen)
76. Match the description of the skin lesions with the disorder where it is found.
    1. Nevus (flat mole): Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter

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2. Psoriasis or seborrheic and actinic keratosis: Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
3. Varicella (Chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles): Elevated circumscribed superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter
4. Urticaria allergic reaction: Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
5. During examination of a 3-week-old it is noted that the child has irritability when lifted or carried, asymmetrical Moro reflex and spasms along the right sternocleidomastoid. What does this suggest? a. Klippel-Feil syndrome b. Torticollitis c. Sprengel deformity d. Fractured clavicle
6. The family nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about the role of medications in the treatment of asthma. Which statement by the patient would require further teaching? a. “The Salmeterol that I take provides me with long-term control” b. “I need to use my peak-flow meter to self-monitor how I am doing” c. “I do not need to use a spacer with my MDI” d. “My albuterol is my quick-relief mediation”
7. Which of the is a typical presentation of a dislocation in the hip of a child 6 months of older? a. Asymmetry of skin folds b. Negative Trendelensburg sign c. Positive Barlow & Ortolani sign d. Atrophied hip muscles
8. Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of Psoriasis? c. Guttate d. Plaque
9. On a routine physical exam, a patient expresses concern over the observation that one side of his scrotum is larger than the other side. He states it has been getting larger for the past few months and and that the scrotum is smaller in the morning and enlarges through the day. He has felt a heaviness in the scrotum, denies any acute pain. He reports no history

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c. Abdominal pain after eating d. Anorexia and diffuse pain

86. The nurse Practitioner is completing education with parents of a child with Celiac disease. Which of the following foods would be most appropriate? a. Oatmeal or whole grain cereal for breakfast b. Cream of baked bread c. Commercial backed bread d. Boiled rice with Vegetable and butter
87. A male patient presents with symptoms consistent for a torsion. What would be the first priority for this patient? a. Bedrest b. Surgical referral c. Ice d. Scrotal elevation
88. The nurse practitioner has a differential diagnosis of Lyme Disease. Which of the following skin lesion would confirm the diagnosis? a. Erythema migrans b. Koplik spots c. Pustules d. Scales
89. Which of the following would best reflect the physical presentation in a newborn with Down Syndrome? a. Pigeon-breasted chest, Brushfield spots, arachnodactyly b. Hypotonia, large-appearing tongue, small mouth, upward eye slant c. Microcephaly, flattened philtrum, downward eye slant d. Lymphadenopathy, coarctation of the aorta, webbed neck.
90. Fill in the blank: Sickle cell disease is a chromosomal disorder. a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive

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d. X-linked dominant

91. You are the nurse practitioner in the office today. A child comes in with their parent after an injury that occurred this morning. The child had his hand in the door jam of the car and his brother accidentally closed the door on his brother’s hand. The child has multiple open lacerations and cannot move his fingers. You suspect there is a fracture. You examine the patient and decide you are going to a. order an x-ray. b. have your medical assistant prep the patient for a laceration repair. c. send the patient to the ED. d. clean the areas and apply a clean dressing.
92. A nurse practitioner is seeing a pediatric patient in a follow-up visit after the child experience a febrile seizure. Which of the following statements would be the most accurate when educating the parents on febrile seizures? a. The child will be at an increased risk for epilepsy b. The child would benefit from Phenytoin c. The child would benefit from phenobarbital d. The risk for subsequent seizures is 30 - 50%
93. During a routine well-child examination of a 4-year-old, the family nurse practitioner learns that the paternal grandmother has just been diagnosed with active TB. The mother states that the grandmother had stayed in their home for a week during the summer. The child has no signs of TB and has a negative PPD. What action should the family nurse practitioner take? a. Prescribe no medications, but schedule a repeat PPD in 2 months. b. Start combination therapy with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) for 15 months. c. Administer 1 mL gamma globulin IM d. Start isoniazid (INH) therapy for 4 months and then reevaluate