PHTLS 10th Edition Exam Questions and Verified Answers 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download PHTLS 10th Edition Exam Questions and Verified Answers 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PHTLS 10th Edition Exam Questions and Verified Answers 2024 1. Which of the following requires you to develop a plan of action, initiate the plan, reassess the plan as care for the patient moves forward, and adjust the plan as the patient's condition or circumstances change? A. Principles of PHTLS B. The Golden Period C. The XABCDE assessment D. Critical thinking process Question 1: D To help achieve the PHTLS goals, you will apply your critical thinking skills in the field. Critical thinking in medicine is a process in which the healthcare practitioner assesses the situation, the patient, and the resources available and uses the information to decide on and provide the best care for the patient. 2. When using the XABCDE assessment, which of the following takes precedence over all other actions? A. Controlling severe bleeding from a limb or other compressible site B. Airway stabilization and assessing circulatory status C. Exposing the body to allow a thorough evaluation D. Ensuring adequate breathing Question 2: A The "X" placed before "ABCDE" in the primary survey refers to the need to address exsanguinating hemorrhage immediately after establishing scene safety and before addressing airway. Severe exsanguinating hemorrhage, particularly arterial bleeding, has the potential to lead to loss of total or near total blood volume in a relatively short period of time. 3. Which of the following is the basis on which a patient's chance of survival is maximized? A. Preferences B. Phases C. Arterial bleeding D. Road rash Question 2: B Venous bleeding typically results in a steady flow of dark red blood. 3. What is the best way to control the bleeding? A. Direct pressure B. Elevation of the arm above the heart C. Tourniquet D. Occlusive dressing Question 3: A With venous bleeds, direct pressure is usually sufficient to stop the flow. 4. The patient is wearing long sleeves, and you are having trouble visualizing the wound. What should you do? A. Cut the cloth away from the site until the entire wound site is visible. B. Leave the clothing in place. Put gauze over the wound. C. Remove the patient's shirt. D. Cut through the slash on the sleeve, and use the material as a makeshift tourniquet. Question 4: A Clothing can be quickly removed by cutting. You cannot treat what you cannot see. 1. You are called to the scene of an explosion and fire at a chemical plant where you find multiple casualties. Triage has begun. Your first patient is a 40-year-old man who was near the source of the explosion. He is unconscious and has extensive injuries. You note gurgling respirations. Why should you use the trauma jaw thrust maneuver first when dealing with a trauma patient? A. It's an easy technique that always works to open the airway. B. It allows you to open the airway with little or no movement of the head and cervical spine. C. Other techniques and interventions don't work as well. D. It can relieve a variety of anatomic airway obstructions in patients who are breathing spontaneously. Question 1: B Manual maneuvers like the trauma jaw thrust or chin lift are always the first airway maneuver you should make when treating a trauma patient. In patients with suspected head, neck, or facial trauma, the cervical spine is maintained in a neutral in-line position. The trauma jaw thrust maneuver allows you to open the airway with little or no movement of the head and cervical spine. 2. The patient becomes apneic. You suspect he has a cervical injury. Which type of airway should you use? A. Supraglottic airway B. Blind nasotracheal intubation C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Surgical airway Question 2: A The supraglottic airway's greatest advantage is that it can be inserted independent of the patient's position, which may be especially important in trauma patients with high suspicion of cervical injury. 3. Why might it be more difficult to deal with an airway obstruction in a child? A. Children have longer tracheas. B. Children have larger heads and tongues so there is a greater potential for airway obstruction. C. Children have smaller heads, so there is less room to clear the 2. You have determined that you are going to need to perform orotracheal intubation on a 50-year-old male motor vehicle crash (MVC) critically injured trauma patient due to prolonged transport time. What do you need to do first? A. Preoxygenate to maximize oxygen saturation. B. Place the patient in a "sniffing"position. C. Clear the mouth of any obstructions. D. Prepare the patient for immediate transport. Question 2: A Before insertion of any invasive airway, the patient is preoxygenated with a high concentration of oxygen using a simple airway adjunct or manual airway procedure. 3. You are oxygenating a pediatric patient using a properly fitted oxygen mask and the "squeeze-release-release" timing technique. As you watch for the rise and fall of the chest, you check end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) monitoring aiming to maintain what level? A. Between 40 and 45 mm Hg B. Between 30 and 35 mm Hg C. Between 35 and 40 mm Hg D. The level is irrelevant because capnography is inaccurate in pediatric patients. Question 3: C The proper level to maintain is between 35 and 40 mm Hg. 4. What is one reason to use capnography as part of your patient reassessment? A. To get accurate readings for blood pressure B. To assure proper ET tube placement C. To measure arterial blood saturation D. To ensure proper placement for needle decompression Question 4: B Capnography can monitor proper endotracheal tube placement. It doesn't read blood pressure, so it cannot beused to determine if a patient is hypotensive. Pulse oximetry, not capnography, measures arterial blood saturation. Capnography is not useful in needle decompression. 1. Your partner is compressing the bleeding site of a male patient who was stabbed multiple times in the left chest. The bleeding seems to be controlled, yet the patient becomes combative. He is pale and is breathing rapidly, yet states that he "can't breathe" and feels that he is about to die. Your next step in patient management is to: A. start assisted ventilation. B. give high-flow oxygen. C. decompress the left chest. D. give a 250-mL fluid bolus. Question 1: C After X come A and B. You can quickly auscultate the lungs (pneumothorax is almost certain with multiple stabs in the chest) and decompress the chest. Decompressing a tension pneumothorax is the quickest way to treat shock. 2. The patient's respiration improves markedly, but he remains confused. He has an absent radial pulse, and his carotid pulse is fast and thready. Your partner asks if he can let the compression go to put in an IV. How should you respond? A. "Oh yes, that's a great idea!" B. "Yes, but we have to immobilize him first" C. "Take a blood pressure first to see if he needs an IV." D. "No, keep the pressure and let's get out of here!" Question 2: D This patient is likely in decompensated shock with internal bleeding, increased confusion. Staff reports she fell out of her wheelchair earlier in the week but didn't appear to be hurt; however, she's become increasingly disoriented over the last day or so. Vital signs show: BP 110/90; heartrate 118 and irregularly regular; ventilation rate 20 and slightly labored; SpO2 93% on room air. She is taking warfarin for a clotting issue. Which of the following should you suspect? A. Cerebral contusion B. Epidural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Subdural hematoma Question 1: D The patient's age, use of a blood thinner, and the fact she fell recently point to a subdural hematoma. 2. Upon examination, you find the patient responsive to your presence, although she is clearly confused. Motor response shows reduced pain response but normal flexion. What's her GCS score? A. 15 B. 12 C. 10 D. 8 Question 2: B Eye opening: 4; verbal response: 4; motor response: 4 = 12 3. What does the GCS score indicate? A. Mild TBI B. Moderate TBI C. Severe TBI D. No TBI Question 3: B A total GCS score of 13 to 15 likely indicates a mild TBI whereas a score of 9 to 12 is indicative of moderate TBI. A GCS score of 3 to 8 suggests severe TBI. 4. When you examine the patient's pupils, you notice the right one is dilated significantly and her motor response on the left is delayed. What does this suggest? A. Coup-countercoup injury B. Hyphema C. Hypoxia D. Uncal herniation Question 4: D When the medial portion of the temporal lobe (uncus) is pushed toward the tentorium and puts pressure on the brain stem, herniation compresses CN III, the motor tract, and the reticular activating system on the same side, resulting in a dilated or blown pupil on the same side, motor weakness on the opposite side, and respiratory dysfunction, progressing to coma. 5. Which of the following signs would be most concerning at this point? A. A drop in systolic blood pressure to 88 mm Hg B. SpO₂ of 93% C. A field GCS motor score of 4 D. Hemiplegia on the left side Question 5: A A systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mm Hg indicates secondary brain injury. Her SpO2 is > 90%, and a motor score of 4 is not as concerning. 6. According to the Monro-Kellie doctrine, what happens to the brain when it is still in a compensated state after a TBI? A. CSF, ICP, heart rate, and blood pressure are still within normal injury, and the state of her helmet indicates possible spinal compression/flexion, so you should immobilize the patient. 3. When securing a patient to a backboard, which body part should you secure first? A. Head B. Torso C. Legs D. Pelvis Question 3: B When immobilizing a patient, you should secure the torso first, then the head, the legs, and the pelvis. 4. What type of padding should you provide for this patient? A. Use compressible padding under the shoulders and torso to prevent hyperflexion. B. Use firm padding between the back of the head and the backboard to prevent hyperextension. C. Do not use any padding. It can cause extension or flexion in the neck. D. No padding needed, but to avoid decreased venous return you should tip the backboard to a left lateral position. Question 4: B Because the patient is an adult, you should use firm padding between the back of the head and the backboard to prevent hyperextension. You would pad a child's shoulder and torso to prevent hyperflexion, and you would tip the backboard for a pregnant patient to prevent decreased venous return. 5. While attempting to lay the patient supine for spinal motion restriction she becomes increasingly distressed and complains of shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. The fractured clavicle appears to move distally and increases the difficulty of breathing as the patient lies back. What should you do? A. Tip the backboard to a left lateral position. B. Raise the back of the stretcher. C. Let her sit up in a position of comfort. D. Administer morphine. Question 5: B Because laying the patient supine increases the risk of airway/ventilation problems, raising the back of the stretchers slightly fundamentally maintains spinal alignment while reducing the ventilation issues. 1. You and your partner are responding to a call for a 2-year-old patient with a burn injury to the hand. He has a visible burn to the left hand, ending at the level above the wrist, red color, and wet in appearance. What type of burn do you suspect the patient has sustained? A. Superficial (first degree) B. Partial thickness (second degree) C. Full thickness (third degree) D. Subdermal (fourth degree) Question 1: B Scald burns are the most common burns seen in the pediatric population ages 1 to 5 years. Scalds are partial thickness burns. The dermal layer is damaged, and blisters are present or popped. It is also the most painful type of burn. 2. The patient's care giver is a babysitter who reports the child was crawling on the counter and placed his hand in a pot of water that was boiling on the stove. She is applying ice to the burn and the child is shivering. What is your next step? A. Administer analgesia for pain. B. Cover the patient with a blanket to stop the shivering. hypovolemic shock, but cannot determine the source. What does this finding most likely indicate? A. Hemothorax B. Intra-abdominal bleed C. Blunt cardiac injury D. Diaphragmatic rupture Question 2: B The most reliable indicator of an intraabdominal bleed is the presence of hypovolemic shock from an unexplained source. 3. You are transporting a 37-year-old male patient with a suspected intraabdominal bleed. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg (MAP 57), and his skin is pale and diaphoretic. How will you manage fluid resuscitation for this patient? A. Aggressively administer IV fluids to compensate for internal blood loss. B. Do not administer IV fluids to patients with intra-abdominal bleeding. C. Obtain the patient's medical records and resuscitate to his normal blood pressure reading. D. Carefully administer IV fluids to raise the patient's systolic blood pressure to between 80 and 90 mm Hg. Question 3: D Abdominal trauma represents one of the key situations in which a balanced resuscitation is indicated. Aggressive administration of IV fluid may elevate the patient's blood pressure to levels that will disrupt any clot that has formed and result in recurrence of bleeding that had ceased because of blood clotting and hypotension. Prehospital care practitioners must achieve a delicate balance: maintain a blood pressure that provides perfusion to vital organs without restoring blood pressure to elevated or even normal ranges, which may reinitiate bleeding sites in the abdomen or pelvis. In the absence of TBI, the target systolic blood pressure is 80 to 90 mm Hg (mean arte