PHTLS Post test 9th edition Exam Best Studying Material Questions, Exams of Nursing

Download PHTLS Post test 9th edition Exam Best Studying Material Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PHTLS Post test 9th edition Exam 2023 Questions with Answers PHTLS Post test 9th edition Exam Best Studying Material Questions with Answers from Actual Past 2023- 2024 – Complete Solution 1 / 16 1. The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both tem- porarily and permanently, is known as: A. Conization B. Cavitation C. Crepitation D. Contusion: B. Cavitation 2. The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is: A. Mass of the bodies involved B. Velocity of the bodies involved C. Density of the tissues involved D. Surface area of the impact involved: B. Velocity of the bodies involved 3. In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues: C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W 4. With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall? A. 3 times the height of the patient B. 2 times the height of the patient C. 5 times the height of the patient D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient: A. 3 times the height of the patient 5. The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the phase. A. Tertiary phase B. Quaternary phase C. Secondary phase D. Primary phase: D. Primary phase 4 / 16 is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard D. Enroute to the trauma center: B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle 11. Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute: D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute 12. Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. End-tidal capnometry C. Syringe aspiration D. None of the above: D. None of the above 13. When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:2 D. 2:2: A. 1:4 14. Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? A. Gastric distention B. Pneumothorax C. Inability to feel lung compliance D. All of the above: D. All of the above 15. Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill? 5 / 16 A. Needle cricothyroidotomy B. Endotracheal intubation C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation: C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway 16. Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? A. Stab wound to the chest B. Fall from a height C. Frontal impact vehicle crash D. Gunshot wound to the chest: A. Stab wound to the chest 17. Which of the following is the preferred site for needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? A. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over the top of the 5th rib B. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 4th rib C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib D. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 2nd rib: C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib 18. Which of the following is the mechanism by which pulmonary contusion interferes with oxygenation? A. Inability to generate negative intrapleural pressure B. Decrease in vital capacity due to collapse of the flail segment C. Increased intrathoracic pressure D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung: D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung 19. Your patient is a 55 year old male who was struck in the right side of the chest with a piece of steel pipe. He presents with uncooperative behavior, his skin is pale and moist, the ventilatory rate is 32, there is a weak radial pulse of 112, and breath sounds are decreased on the right side. The trachea is midline and jugular veins are flat while the patient is supine. There is isolated crepitus over the 4th and 5th ribs in the midaxillary line on the patient's right side. Based on the mechanism of injury and the assessment findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? A. Tension pneumothorax 6 / 16 B. Simple pneumothorax C. Pulmonary contusion D. Hemothorax: D. Hemothorax 20. Deterioration of ventilation and oxygenation after inflation of a PASG in a patient who has sustained a high-pressure compression injury of the abdomen, such as a sudden deceleration with the lap belt placed across the abdomen, most likely represents which of the following injuries? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Ruptured diaphragm C. Ruptured esophagus D. "Paper bag" syndrome of the lungs: B. Ruptured diaphragm 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Fick Principle? A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood B. Oxygenation of red blood cells C. Transportation of red blood cells to the tissues of the body D. Off-loading oxygen from the red blood cells to the tissues: A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood 22. One of the earliest signs of hypovolemic shock is: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Anxiety D. Reduced urine output: C. Anxiety 23. Which of the following characterizes the washout phase of shock? A. Systemic acidosis B. Localized tissue acidosis C. Edema D. Reduced capillary blood flow: A. Systemic acidosis 24. A trauma patient who has fallen 20 feet from an apartment balcony is alert with warm, dry, pink skin, with normal capillary refilling time to the lower extremities, and is hypotensive. The upper extremities are cool, pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following injuries should be suspected? A. Aortic dissection B. Liver laceration 9 / 16 B. Loss of pulses C. Loss of feeling in the web space between the thumb and index finger or between the first and second toes D. Tense swelling of the involved area: D. Tense swelling of the involved area 35. A traction splint may be used for which of the following injuries? A. Knee dislocation B. Pelvic fractures C. Femur fractures D. All of the above: C. Femur fractures 36. Which of the following descriptions meets the criteria for transport to a facility with a burn unit? A. A 49 year old female with a partial thickness burn from her elbow to her shoulder B. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest C. A 9 year old make with superficial burns on the backs of both legs D. A 32 year old female with a partial thickness burn about twice the size of her hand on her back: B. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest 37. The preferred method of dressing burns in the prehospital setting is: A. Dry sterile dressing B. Moist sterile dressing C. Wet dressings D. Petroleum gauze: A. Dry sterile dressing 38. In assessing the hypothermic patient in the prehospital setting, the most reliable indicator of the severity of hypothermia is: A. Rectal temperature B. Oral temperature C. Heart rate < 60 D. Presence or absence of shivering: A. Rectal temperature 39. In the normal child, which general statement is most accurate in compar- ison with the adult patient? A. Blood pressure is higher, hear rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher B. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is lower, and ventilatory rate is higher 10 / 16 C. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher D. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is lowe: C. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher 40. A patient who withdraws from painful stimuli, opens eyes on verbal command, and cannot speak because of intubation has a Glasgow Coma Scale of which of the following: A. 8 B. 8T C. 7 D. 7T: B. 8T (E-3, V-T, M-4) 41. The earliest site for intraosseous infusion is: A. Anterior tibia, just above the tibial tuberosity B. Anterior fibula C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity D. Posterior fibula: C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity 42. Which of the following behaviors is the most reliable indication of confu- sion in the elderly trauma patient? A. Inability to recall his/her name B. Inability to recall the day of the week C. Inability to identify his/her present location when out of his/her normal residence D. Focus on repeated retelling of events that occurred years ago: A. Inability to recall his/her name 43. In the elderly trauma patient a high index of suspicion for shock should occur beginning when the systolic blood pressure is less than: A. 90 mmHg B. 150 mmHg C. 120 mmHg D. 100 mmHg: C. 120 mmHg 44. In an adult patient, blood loss into the tissue from a fractured femur may be as much as which of the following? A. 150 to 500 mL 11 / 16 B. 500 to 1000 mL C. 1000 2000 mL D. 2500 to 5000 mL: C. 1000 2000 mL 45. Delayed death due to trauma is usually a result of: A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resusci- tation B. Acute circulatory failure C. Brain injury D. Acute hypoxia: A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation 46. A regional resource center with a full spectrum of trauma services from prevention to rehabilitation which serves as the leader in trauma care for a geographical region is a: A. Level IV trauma center B. Level III trauma center C. Level II trauma center D. Level I trauma center: D. Level I trauma center 47. Which of the following patients is not indicated for spinal immobiliza- tion? A. Intoxicated patient in a MVC B. Patient who fell 8 feet and lost consciousness C. Patient complaining of pain on palpation of the neck D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15: D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15 48. The premise of PHTLS is that: A. EMTs must treat all trauma patient based on protocols B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base C. EMTs must work only under on-line medical direction when caring for trauma patients D. EMTs are capable of working independently of medical direction: B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base 49. Which of the following warrants classification of a patient as a critical trauma patient? 14 / 16 A) Apply a non-rebreather mask B) Begin ventilation with a BVM C) Insert an endotracheal tube D) Perform a needle decompression: B) Begin ventilation with a BVM 60. Which best describes shock? A) Decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B) Flushed, dry, hot skin combined with bradycardia C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion D) Low blood pressure combined with tachycardia: C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion 61. Your patient has a deep laceration to his antecubital fossa with significant bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial action? A) Apply a tourniquet B) Apply direct pressure C) Initiate rapid transport D) Restore blood volume: B) Apply direct pressure 62. Hypotension of unknown etiology in a trauma patient should be assumed to result from which of the following? A) Blood loss B) Cardiac tamponade C) Spinal injury D) Tension pneumothorax: A) Blood loss 63. Which assessment is most beneficial in differentiating hemorrhagic shock from neurogenic shock in the prehospital setting? A) Abdomen B) Blood pressure C) Neurologic status D) Skin: D) Skin 64. The body initially compensates for blood loss through activation of which of the following? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Reticular activating system 15 / 16 C) Spinal reflex arcs D) Sympathetic nervous system: D) Sympathetic nervous system 65. Medication used by trauma patients for pre-existing conditions may cause which of the following? A) Herbal preparations may enhance blood clotting B) Anti-inflammatory agents may enhance blood clotting C) Beta blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss D) Calcium channel blockers may slow the onset of shock: C) Beta blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss 66. The target blood pressure for a trauma patient with suspected intraab- dominal hemorrhage is which of the following? A) 60 - 70mm Hg B) 80 - 90 mm Hg C) 100 - 110 mm Hg D) 120 - 130 mm Hg: B) 80 - 90 mm Hg 67. Which best explains the mechanism by which gas exchange is impaired in pulmonary contusion? A) Blood in the alveoli B) Collapse of the alveoli C) Compression of the lung tissue D) Partial occlusion of the bronchi: A) Blood in the alveoli 68. Which of the following is a key finding that differentiates cardiac tampon- ade from tension pneumothorax? A) Distended jugular veins B) Equal breath sounds C) Hypotension D) Tachycardia: B) Equal breath sounds 69. Your patient is a 20 year old male who struck his head on a teammate's knee while diving to catch a football. He was not wearing a helmet. He demonstrates decerebrate posturing and has a GCS score of 4. His heart rate is 58, blood pressure 180/102 and his left pupil is dilated. What is the best ventilation rate to use when managing this patient? A) 10 breaths per minute. 16 / 16 B) 20 breaths per minute. C) 30 breaths per minute. D) 35 breaths per minute.: B) 20 breaths per minute 70. A 20 year old female was ejected from her vehicle during a high speed roll-over motor vehicle collision. She has significant bleeding from a large laceration. Your initial assessment reveals a GCS score of 7, systolic blood pressure of 70 mm Hg and pupils that are equal but respond sluggishly to light. After establishing two large bore IV lines, you should titrate the infusion rate to achieve a target blood pressure of at least A) 60 mm Hg. B) 70 mm Hg. C) 80 mm Hg. D) 90 mm Hg.: D) 90 mm Hg. 71. Which of the following is the preferred prehospital wound management for a patient with a 36% body surface area flame burn? A) Cool moist dressings B) Dry sterile dressings C) Elastic bandages D) Topical ointments: B) Dry sterile dressings 72. The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following? A) Acute respiratory failure B) Hemorrhage. C) Multiple organ failure. D) Peritonitis: B) Hemorrhage. 73. An adult male sustained a deep laceration to his distal thigh. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. Direct pressure is not controlling the bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step? A) Apply a topical hemostatic agent and transport B) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops C) Elevate the leg and apply pressure to the femoral artery D) Maintain direct pressure and transport immediately: B) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops