Download PHTLS Post Test 9th edition Exam Questions with Answers 2024/2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PHTLS Post Test 9th edition Exam Questions with Answers 2024/2025 1 / 16 1. The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both tem- porarily and permanently, is known as: A. Conization B. Cavitation C. Crepitation D. Contusion: B. Cavitation 2. The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is: A. Mass of the bodies involved B. Velocity of the bodies involved C. Density of the tissues involved D. Surface area of the impact involved: B. Velocity of the bodies involved 3. In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues: C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W 4. With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall? A. 3 times the height of the patient B. 2 times the height of the patient C. 5 times the height of the patient D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient: A. 3 times the height of the patient 5. The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the phase. 4 / 16 vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when 5 / 16 is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard D. Enroute to the trauma center: B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle 11. Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute: D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute 12. Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. End-tidal capnometry C. Syringe aspiration D. None of the above: D. None of the above 13. When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:2 D. 2:2: A. 1:4 14. Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? A. Gastric distention B. Pneumothorax C. Inability to feel lung compliance D. All of the above: D. All of the above 6 / 16 15. Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill? 9 / 16 B. Simple pneumothorax C. Pulmonary contusion D. Hemothorax: D. Hemothorax 20. Deterioration of ventilation and oxygenation after inflation of a PASG in a patient who has sustained a high- pressure compression injury of the abdomen, such as a sudden deceleration with the lap belt placed across the abdomen, most likely represents which of the following injuries? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Ruptured diaphragm C. Ruptured esophagus D. "Paper bag" syndrome of the lungs: B. Ruptured diaphragm 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Fick Principle? A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood B. Oxygenation of red blood cells C. Transportation of red blood cells to the tissues of the body D. Off-loading oxygen from the red blood cells to the tissues: A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood 22. One of the earliest signs of hypovolemic shock is: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Anxiety D. Reduced urine output: C. Anxiety 23. Which of the following characterizes the washout phase of shock? A. Systemic acidosis B. Localized tissue acidosis C. Edema D. Reduced capillary blood flow: A. Systemic acidosis 24. A trauma patient who has fallen 20 feet from an apartment balcony is alert with warm, dry, pink skin, with 10 / normal capillary refilling time to the lower extremities, and is hypotensive. The upper extremities are cool, pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following injuries should be suspected? A. Aortic dissection B. Liver laceration 11 / C. Fractured pelvis D. Spinal cord injury: D. Spinal cord injury 25. Which of the following is a limitation of prehospital fluid resuscitation of the patient in hemorrhagic shock? A. Inability of fluids to carry oxygen B. Pulmonary edema C. Increased hemorrhage D. All of the above: D. All of the above 26. Which of the following statements regarding signs of intraabdominal injury is NOT true? A. Fresh blood in the abdominal cavity does not cause signs of peritonitis B. A significant amount of blood loss occurs before abdominal distention can be noticed C. Substantial intraabdominal hemorrhage always causes tenderness and abdominal rigidity D. Signs and symptoms of shock greater than can be explained by other injuries is a reliable indicator of intraabdominal injury: C. Substantial intraab- dominal hemorrhage always causes tenderness and abdominal rigidity 27. Which of the following assessment techniques is least useful in the pre- hospital assessment of the patient with suspected intraabdominal trauma? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Inspection D. Scene assessment: B. Auscultation 28. Pregnant trauma patients should be placed on the left side because: A. This prevents seizures due to eclampsia B. This prevents abruption of the placenta C. This prevents compression of the vena cava D. This is the best way to auscultate fetal heart tones: C. This prevents com- pression of the vena cava 14 / D. All of the above: D. All of the above 34. Of the following, which is the earliest indication of compartment syn- drome? A. Paralysis of the affected muscles 15 / B. Loss of pulses C. Loss of feeling in the web space between the thumb and index finger or between the first and second toes D. Tense swelling of the involved area: D. Tense swelling of the involved area 35. A traction splint may be used for which of the following injuries? A. Knee dislocation B. Pelvic fractures C. Femur fractures D. All of the above: C. Femur fractures 36. Which of the following descriptions meets the criteria for transport to a facility with a burn unit? A. A 49 year old female with a partial thickness burn from her elbow to her shoulder B. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest C. A 9 year old make with superficial burns on the backs of both legs D. A 32 year old female with a partial thickness burn about twice the size of her hand on her back: B. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest 37. The preferred method of dressing burns in the prehospital setting is: A. Dry sterile dressing B. Moist sterile dressing C. Wet dressings D. Petroleum gauze: A. Dry sterile dressing 38. In assessing the hypothermic patient in the prehospital setting, the most reliable indicator of the severity of hypothermia is: A. Rectal temperature B. Oral temperature C. Heart rate < 60 D. Presence or absence of shivering: A. Rectal temperature 16 / 39. In the normal child, which general statement is most accurate in compar- ison with the adult patient? A. Blood pressure is higher, hear rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher B. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is lower, and ventilatory rate is higher 19 / B. 500 to 1000 mL C. 1000 2000 mL D. 2500 to 5000 mL: C. 1000 2000 mL 45. Delayed death due to trauma is usually a result of: A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resusci- tation B. Acute circulatory failure C. Brain injury D. Acute hypoxia: A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation 46. A regional resource center with a full spectrum of trauma services from prevention to rehabilitation which serves as the leader in trauma care for a geographical region is a: A. Level IV trauma center B. Level III trauma center C. Level II trauma center D. Level I trauma center: D. Level I trauma center 47. Which of the following patients is not indicated for spinal immobiliza- tion? A. Intoxicated patient in a MVC B. Patient who fell 8 feet and lost consciousness C. Patient complaining of pain on palpation of the neck D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15: D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15 48. The premise of PHTLS is that: A. EMTs must treat all trauma patient based on protocols B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base C. EMTs must work only under on-line medical direction when caring for trauma patients D. EMTs are capable of working independently of medical direction: B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base 49. Which of the following warrants classification of a patient 20 / as a critical trauma patient? 21 / A. An extremity fracture B. Preexisting major medical problem C. Bleeding from the nose D. Deployment of air bags in a motor vehicle crash: B. Preexisting major medical problem 50. Which of the following is the foundation of effective trauma care? A. Protocols permitting invasive airway procedures B. The ability to administer large amounts of crystalloid fluids C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life-threatening injuries D. Effective spinal immobilization skills: C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life- threatening injuries 51. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a vehicle struck a tree. Which is the best indicator of potential injury? A. Circumference of the vehicle B. Diameter of the tree C. Mass of the vehicle D. Speed of the vehicle: D. Speed of the vehicle 52. The potential for death or serious injury is greatest in which of the following motor vehicle collisions? A) Down and under B) Ejection from vehicle C) Lateral compression D) Up and over: B) Ejection from vehicle 53. Bilateral femur fractures are most often associated with which type of motorcycle crash? A) Angular impact B) Bike-road impact C) Head-on impact D) Rear impact: C) Head-on impact 24 / rate of 6. Auscultation reveals breath sounds are absent on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next intervention? 25 / A) Apply a non-rebreather mask B) Begin ventilation with a BVM C) Insert an endotracheal tube D) Perform a needle decompression: B) Begin ventilation with a BVM 60. Which best describes shock? A) Decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B) Flushed, dry, hot skin combined with bradycardia C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion D) Low blood pressure combined with tachycardia: C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion 61. Your patient has a deep laceration to his antecubital fossa with significant bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial action? A) Apply a tourniquet B) Apply direct pressure C) Initiate rapid transport D) Restore blood volume: B) Apply direct pressure 62. Hypotension of unknown etiology in a trauma patient should be assumed to result from which of the following? A) Blood loss B) Cardiac tamponade C) Spinal injury D) Tension pneumothorax: A) Blood loss 63. Which assessment is most beneficial in differentiating hemorrhagic shock from neurogenic shock in the prehospital setting? A) Abdomen B) Blood pressure C) Neurologic status D) Skin: D) Skin 64. The body initially compensates for blood loss through activation of which of the following? 26 / A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Reticular activating system 29 / B) 20 breaths per minute. C) 30 breaths per minute. D) 35 breaths per minute.: B) 20 breaths per minute 70. A 20 year old female was ejected from her vehicle during a high speed roll-over motor vehicle collision. She has significant bleeding from a large laceration. Your initial assessment reveals a GCS score of 7, systolic blood pressure of 70 mm Hg and pupils that are equal but respond sluggishly to light. After establishing two large bore IV lines, you should titrate the infusion rate to achieve a target blood pressure of at least A) 60 mm Hg. B) 70 mm Hg. C) 80 mm Hg. D) 90 mm Hg.: D) 90 mm Hg. 71. Which of the following is the preferred prehospital wound management for a patient with a 36% body surface area flame burn? A) Cool moist dressings B) Dry sterile dressings C) Elastic bandages D) Topical ointments: B) Dry sterile dressings 72. The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following? A) Acute respiratory failure B) Hemorrhage. C) Multiple organ failure. D) Peritonitis: B) Hemorrhage. 73. An adult male sustained a deep laceration to his distal thigh. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. Direct pressure is not controlling the bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step? A) Apply a topical hemostatic agent and transport B) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops 30 / C) Elevate the leg and apply pressure to the femoral artery D) Maintain direct pressure and transport immediately: B) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops 31 / 74. An 18-year-old female was struck by a car and has sustained an apparent left femur fracture. Communication with her is hampered because she only speaks a foreign language. Which finding, by itself, does not mandate immo- bilization of the cervical spine? A) Fracture of the femur B) Inability to communicate C) Mechanism of injury D) Tenderness over the cervical spine: C) Mechanism of injury 75. During the primary survey of a trauma patient, you note that the patient is agitated and confused, and has multiple injuries from an altercation. Which of the following choices is the most appropriate first treatment priority? A) Blood glucose determination B) Correction of possible hypoxia C) Full immobilization to a backboard D) Obtain intravenous access: B) Correction of possible hypoxia