PHTLS POST TEST 9TH EDITION LATEST VERSION WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIE, Exams of Nursing

Download PHTLS POST TEST 9TH EDITION LATEST VERSION WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 16 PHTLS POST TEST 9TH EDITION LATEST VERSION WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED ANSWERS 1. The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both tem- porarily and permanently, is known as: A. Conization B. Cavitation C. Crepitation D. Contusion: B. Cavitation 2. The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is: A. Mass of the bodies involved B. Velocity of the bodies involved C. Density of the tissues involved D. Surface area of the impact involved: B. Velocity of the bodies involved 3. In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues: C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W 4. With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall? A. 3 times the height of the patient B. 2 times the height of the patient C. 5 times the height of the patient D.1 ½ times the height of the patient: A. 3 times the height of the patient 5. The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the phase. A. Tertiary phase B. Quaternary phase 2 / 16 PHTLS POST TEST 9TH EDITION LATEST VERSION WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED ANSWERS C. Secondary phase D. Primary phase: D. Primary phase pg. 5 is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard D. Enroute to the trauma center: B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle 11. Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute: D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute 12. Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. End-tidal capnometry C. Syringe aspiration D. None of the above: D. None of the above 13. When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:2 D. 2:2: A. 1:4 14. Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? A. Gastric distention B. Pneumothorax C. Inability to feel lung compliance D. All of the above: D. All of the above 15. Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill? pg. 6 A. Needle cricothyroidotomy B. Endotracheal intubation C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation: C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway 16. Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? A. Stab wound to the chest B. Fall from a height C. Frontal impact vehicle crash D. Gunshot wound to the chest: A. Stab wound to the chest 17. Which of the following is the preferred site for needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? A. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over the top of the 5th rib B. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 4th rib C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib D. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 2nd rib: C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib 18. Which of the following is the mechanism by which pulmonary contusion interferes with oxygenation? A. Inability to generate negative intrapleural pressure B. Decrease in vital capacity due to collapse of the flail segment C. Increased intrathoracic pressure D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung: D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung 19. Your patient is a 55 year old male who was struck in the right side of the chest with a piece of steel pipe. He presents with uncooperative behavior, his skin is pale and moist, the ventilatory rate is 32, there is a weak radial pulse of 112, and breath sounds are decreased on the right side. The trachea is midline and jugular veins are flat while the patient is supine. There is isolated crepitus over the 4th and 5th ribs in the midaxillary line on the patient's right side. Based on the mechanism of injury and the assessment findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? 7 / 16 A. Tension pneumothorax pg. 10 C. Fractured pelvis D. Spinal cord injury: D. Spinal cord injury 25. Which of the following is a limitation of prehospital fluid resuscitation of the patient in hemorrhagic shock? A. Inability of fluids to carry oxygen B. Pulmonary edema C. Increased hemorrhage D. All of the above: D. All of the above 26. Which of the following statements regarding signs of intraabdominal injury is NOT true? A. Fresh blood in the abdominal cavity does not cause signs of peritonitis B. A significant amount of blood loss occurs before abdominal distention can be noticed C. Substantial intraabdominal hemorrhage always causes tenderness and abdominal rigidity D. Signs and symptoms of shock greater than can be explained by other injuries is a reliable indicator of intraabdominal injury: C. Substantial intraab- dominal hemorrhage always causes tenderness and abdominal rigidity 27. Which of the following assessment techniques is least useful in the pre- hospital assessment of the patient with suspected intraabdominal trauma? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Inspection D. Scene assessment: B. Auscultation 28. Pregnant trauma patients should be placed on the left side because: A. This prevents seizures due to eclampsia B. This prevents abruption of the placenta C. This prevents compression of the vena cava D. This is the best way to auscultate fetal heart tones: C. This prevents com- pression of the vena cava 29. Survival of the fetus in a trauma situation is most dependent upon which of the following factors? pg. 11 A. Gestational age of the fetus pg. 12 B. Prenatal care C. Immediate cesarean section D. Good resuscitation of the mother: D. Good resuscitation of the mother 30. A patient struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat may sustain a cerebral contusion to which area of the brain? A. Frontal and occipital B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal: B. Occipital (probably too low velocity for Coup & Contre Coup) 31. In the context of the caring for an adult patient with traumatic brain injury who is deteriorating and exhibiting signs of herniation, hyperventilation means ventilating with a BVM and 100% oxygen at a rate of: A. 12 to 16 per minute B. 32 to 40 per minute C. 8 to 12 per minute D.20 per minute: D. 20 32. In the United State, which of the following mechanisms most frequently causes spinal cord injury in adults? A. Shallow water diving B. Vehicle crashes C. Falls D. Pedestrian struck by a vehicle: B. Vehicle crashes 33. Which of the following presentation indicate spinal cord injury? A. Complete loss of sensory and motor function below the site of injury B. Weakness and parethesia in the upper extremities, but normal function in the lower extremities C. Complete loss of function on one side of the body and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side D. All of the above: D. All of the above 34. Of the following, which is the earliest indication of compartment syn- drome? pg. 15 higher B. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is lower, and ventilatory rate is higher pg. 16 C. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher D. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is lowe: C. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher 40. A patient who withdraws from painful stimuli, opens eyes on verbal command, and cannot speak because of intubation has a Glasgow Coma Scale of which of the following: A. 8 B. 8T C. 7 D. 7T: B. 8T (E-3, V-T, M- 4) 41. The earliest site for intraosseous infusion is: A. Anterior tibia, just above the tibial tuberosity B. Anterior fibula C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity D. Posterior fibula: C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity 42. Which of the following behaviors is the most reliable indication of confu- sion in the elderly trauma patient? A. Inability to recall his/her name B. Inability to recall the day of the week C. Inability to identify his/her present location when out of his/her normal residence D. Focus on repeated retelling of events that occurred years ago: A. Inability to recall his/her name 43. In the elderly trauma patient a high index of suspicion for shock should occur beginning when the systolic blood pressure is less than: A. 90 mmHg B. 150 mmHg C. 120 mmHg D. 100 mmHg: C. 120 mmHg 44. In an adult patient, blood loss into the tissue from a fractured femur pg. 17 may be as much as which of the following? A. 150 to 500 mL 20 / A. An extremity fracture B. Preexisting major medical problem C. Bleeding from the nose D. Deployment of air bags in a motor vehicle crash: B. Preexisting major medical problem 50. Which of the following is the foundation of effective trauma care? A. Protocols permitting invasive airway procedures B. The ability to administer large amounts of crystalloid fluids C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life-threatening injuries D. Effective spinal immobilization skills: C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life-threatening injuries 51. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a vehicle struck a tree. Which is the best indicator of potential injury? A. Circumference of the vehicle B. Diameter of the tree C. Mass of the vehicle D. Speed of the vehicle: D. Speed of the vehicle 52. The potential for death or serious injury is greatest in which of the following motor vehicle collisions? A) Down and under B) Ejection from vehicle C) Lateral compression D) Up and over: B) Ejection from vehicle 53. Bilateral femur fractures are most often associated with which type of motorcycle crash? A) Angular impact B) Bike-road impact C) Head-on impact D) Rear impact: C) Head-on impact 54. Which is the preferred fluid for resuscitation of hemorrhagic shock in the prehospital setting? 21 / A) 5% dextrose in water B) 7.5% hypertonic saline C) Hetastarch D) Lactated Ringer's: D) Lactated Ringer's 55. Which is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in the trauma patient? A) Blood B) Teeth C) Tongue D) Vomitus: C) Tongue 56. Which is the preferred adjunct device for verifying placement of an endotracheal tube in a patient with a perfusing rhythm? A) End-tidal CO2 monitoring (capnography) B) Esophageal detector device C) Pulse oximeter D) Stethoscope: A) End-tidal CO2 monitoring (capnography) 57. Which is the most important reason to maintain an open airway in the trauma patient? A) Prevents aspiration and pneumonia B) Prevents hypoxemia and hypercarbia C) Prevents snoring respirations D) Prevents the tongue from blocking the pharynx: B) Prevents hypoxemia and hypercarbia 58. Essential airway skills include manual clearing of the airway, manual maneuvers, suctioning and which of the following? A) Dual lumen airway B) Endotracheal intubation C) Laryngeal mask airway D) Oropharyngeal airway: D) Oropharyngeal airway 59. Your patient is a middle aged male who crashed his motorcycle. He is unresponsive. After opening the airway using a modified jaw thrust, you note the patient has respirations at a rate of 6. Auscultation reveals breath sounds are absent on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next intervention? 22 / A) Apply a non-rebreather mask B) Begin ventilation with a BVM C) Insert an endotracheal tube D) Perform a needle decompression: B) Begin ventilation with a BVM 60. Which best describes shock? A) Decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B) Flushed, dry, hot skin combined with bradycardia C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion D) Low blood pressure combined with tachycardia: C) Generalized inadequate tissue perfusion 61. Your patient has a deep laceration to his antecubital fossa with significant bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial action? A) Apply a tourniquet B) Apply direct pressure C) Initiate rapid transport D) Restore blood volume: B) Apply direct pressure 62. Hypotension of unknown etiology in a trauma patient should be assumed to result from which of the following? A) Blood loss B) Cardiac tamponade C) Spinal injury D) Tension pneumothorax: A) Blood loss 63. Which assessment is most beneficial in differentiating hemorrhagic shock from neurogenic shock in the prehospital setting? A) Abdomen B) Blood pressure C) Neurologic status D) Skin: D) Skin 64. The body initially compensates for blood loss through activation of which of the following? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Reticular activating system