PHTLS Pre & Post Test PHTLS Post Test 9th PHTLS Pre & Post Test Questions With 100% Correc, Exams of Nursing

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PHTLS Pre & Post Test PHTLS Post Test 9th PHTLS Pre & Post Test Questions With 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both temporarily and permanently, is known as: - Correct AnswerCavitation The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is: - Correct Answer Velocity of the bodies involved In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: - Correct AnswerThese solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall? - Correct Answer3 times the height of the patient The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the __________ phase. - Correct AnswerPrimary phase During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E in ABCDE stands for _________? - Correct AnswerExpose/Environment The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient outcome is the __________? - Correct AnswerGolden period (hour) In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of time it should take to identify and manage immediate threats to life, prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is _________? - Correct Answer10 minutes In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal immobilization device indicated? - Correct AnswerNone of the above Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? - Correct AnswerPrior to being removed from the vehicle Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? - Correct AnswerTidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? - Correct AnswerNone of the above When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: - Correct Answer1:4 Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? - Correct AnswerAll of the above Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway - Correct AnswerInsertion of an oropharyngeal airway Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? - Correct AnswerStab wound to the chest Which of the following is the preferred site for needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? - Correct Answer2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib Which of the following is the mechanism by which pulmonary contusion interferes with oxygenation? - Correct AnswerBlood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung Your patient is a 55 year old male who was struck in the right side of the chest with a piece of steel pipe. He presents with uncooperative behavior, his skin is pale and moist, the ventilatory rate is 32, there is a weak radial pulse of 112, and breath sounds are decreased on the right side. The trachea is midline and jugular veins are flat while the A patient who withdraws from painful stimuli, opens eyes on verbal command, and cannot speak because of intubation has a Glasgow Coma Scale of which of the following: - Correct Answer8T (E-3, V-T, M-4) The earliest site for intraosseous infusion is: - Correct AnswerAnterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity Which of the following behaviors is the most reliable indication of confusion in the elderly patient - Correct AnswerInability to recall his/her name In the elderly trauma patient a high index of suspicion for shock should occur beginning when the systolic blood pressure is less than: - Correct AnswerC. 120 mmHg In an adult patient, blood loss into the tissue from a fractured femur may be as much as which of the following? - Correct Answer1000 2000 mL Delayed death due to trauma is usually a result of: - Correct AnswerBiochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation A regional resource center with a full spectrum of trauma services from prevention to rehabilitation which serves as the leader in trauma care for a geographical region is - Correct AnswerLevel I trauma center Which of the following patients is not indicated for spinal immobilization? - Correct AnswerPatient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15 The premise of PHTLS is that: - Correct AnswerEMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base Which of the following warrants classification of a patient as a critical trauma patient? - Correct AnswerPreexisting major medical problem Which of the following is the foundation of effective trauma care? - Correct AnswerThe ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life-threatening injuries You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a vehicle struck a tree. Which is the best indicator of potential injury? - Correct AnswerSpeed of the vehicle The potential for death or serious injury is greatest in which of the following motor vehicle collisions? - Correct AnswerEjection from vehicle Bilateral femur fractures are most often associated with which type of motorcycle crash? - Correct AnswerHead-on impact Which is the preferred fluid for resuscitation of hemorrhagic shock in the prehospital setting? - Correct AnswerLactated Ringer's Which is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in the trauma patient? - Correct AnswerTongue Which is the preferred adjunct device for verifying placement of an endotracheal tube in a patient with a perfusing rhythm? - Correct AnswerEnd-tidal CO2 monitoring (capnography) Which is the most important reason to maintain an open airway in the trauma - Correct AnswerPrevents hypoxemia and hypercarbia Essential airway skills include manual clearing of the airway, manual maneuvers, suctioning and which of the following? - Correct AnswerOropharyngeal airway Your patient is a middle aged male who crashed his motorcycle. He is unresponsive. After opening the airway using a modified jaw thrust, you note the patient has respirations at a rate of 6. Auscultation reveals breath sounds are absent on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next intervention? - Correct AnswerBegin ventilation with a BVM Which best describes shock? - Correct AnswerGeneralized inadequate tissue perfusion Your patient has a deep laceration to his antecubital fossa with significant bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial action? - Correct AnswerApply direct pressure Hypotension of unknown etiology in a trauma patient should be assumed to result from which of the following? - Correct AnswerBlood loss Which assessment is most beneficial in differentiating hemorrhagic shock from neurogenic shock in the prehospital setting? - Correct AnswerSkin The body initially compensates for blood loss through activation of which of the following? - Correct AnswerSympathetic nervous system Medication used by trauma patients for pre-existing conditions may cause which of the following? - Correct AnswerBeta blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss The target blood pressure for a trauma patient with suspected intraabdominal hemorrhage is which of the following? - Correct Answer80 - 90 mm Hg Which best explains the mechanism by which gas exchange is impaired in pulmonary contusion? - Correct AnswerBlood in the alveoli Which of the following is a key finding that differentiates cardiac tamponade from tension pneumothorax? - Correct AnswerEqual breath sounds Your patient is a 20 year old male who struck his head on a teammate's knee while diving to catch a football. He was not wearing a helmet. He demonstrates decerebrate posturing and has a GCS score of 4. His heart rate is 58, blood pressure 180/102 and his left pupil is dilated. What is the best ventilation rate to use when managing this patient? - Correct Answer20 breaths per minute A 20 year old female was ejected from her vehicle during a high speed roll-over motor vehicle collision. She has significant bleeding from a large laceration. Your initial assessment reveals a GCS score of 7, systolic blood pressure of 70 mm Hg and pupils that are equal but respond sluggishly to light. After establishing two large bore IV lines, you should titrate the infusion rate to achieve a target blood pressure of at least - Correct Answer90 mm Hg. Which of the following is the preferred prehospital wound management for a patient with a 36% body surface area flame burn? - Correct AnswerDry sterile dressings The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following? A. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, asks repeatedly what happened, complains of a headache, has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20. B. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is lying prone on the landing between two flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20. C. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, pale and diaphoretic, complains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain. BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20. D. None of the above - Correct AnswerD. None of the above Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard D. Enroute to the trauma center - Correct AnswerB. Prior to being removed from the vehicle Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute - Correct AnswerD. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. End-tidal capnometry C. Syringe aspiration D. None of the above - Correct AnswerD. None of the above When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:2 D. 2:2 - Correct AnswerA. 1:4 Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? A. Gastric distention B. Pneumothorax C. Inability to feel lung compliance D. All of the above - Correct AnswerD. All of the above Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill? A. Needle cricothyroidotomy B. Endotracheal intubation C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation - Correct AnswerC. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? A. Stab wound to the chest B. Fall from a height C. Frontal impact vehicle crash D. Gunshot wound to the chest - Correct AnswerA. Stab wound to the chest Which of the following is the preferred site for needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? A. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over the top of the 5th rib B. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 4th rib C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib D. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 2nd rib - Correct AnswerC. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib Which of the following is the mechanism by which pulmonary contusion interferes with oxygenation? A. Inability to generate negative intrapleural pressure B. Decrease in vital capacity due to collapse of the flail segment C. Increased intrathoracic pressure D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung - Correct AnswerD. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung Your patient is a 55 year old male who was struck in the right side of the chest with a piece of steel pipe. He presents with uncooperative behavior, his skin is pale and moist, the ventilatory rate is 32, there is a weak radial pulse of 112, and breath sounds are decreased on the right side. The trachea is midline and jugular veins are flat while the patient is supine. There is isolated crepitus over the 4th and 5th ribs in the midaxillary line on the patient's right side. Based on the mechanism of injury and the assessment findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Simple pneumothorax C. Pulmonary contusion D. Hemothorax - Correct AnswerD. Hemothorax Deterioration of ventilation and oxygenation after inflation of a PASG in a patient who has sustained a high-pressure compression injury of the abdomen, such as a sudden deceleration with the lap belt placed across the abdomen, most likely represents which of the following injuries? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Ruptured diaphragm C. Ruptured esophagus D. "Paper bag" syndrome of the lungs - Correct AnswerB. Ruptured diaphragm Which of the following is NOT a component of the Fick Principle? A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood B. Oxygenation of red blood cells C. Transportation of red blood cells to the tissues of the body D. Off-loading oxygen from the red blood cells to the tissues - Correct AnswerA. Adequate number of platelets in the blood One of the earliest signs of hypovolemic shock is: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Anxiety D. Reduced urine output - Correct AnswerC. Anxiety Which of the following characterizes the washout phase of shock? A. Systemic acidosis B. Localized tissue acidosis C. Edema D. Reduced capillary blood flow - Correct AnswerA. Systemic acidosis A trauma patient who has fallen 20 feet from an apartment balcony is alert with warm, dry, pink skin, with normal capillary refilling time to the lower extremities, and is hypotensive. The upper extremities are cool, pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following injuries should be suspected? D. Tense swelling of the involved area - Correct AnswerD. Tense swelling of the involved area A traction splint may be used for which of the following injuries? A. Knee dislocation B. Pelvic fractures C. Femur fractures D. All of the above - Correct AnswerC. Femur fractures Which of the following descriptions meets the criteria for transport to a facility with a burn unit? A. A 49 year old female with a partial thickness burn from her elbow to her shoulder B. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest C. A 9 year old make with superficial burns on the backs of both legs D. A 32 year old female with a partial thickness burn about twice the size of her hand on her back - Correct AnswerB. A 25 year old male with an electrical burn across his chest The preferred method of dressing burns in the prehospital setting is: A. Dry sterile dressing B. Moist sterile dressing C. Wet dressings D. Petroleum gauze - Correct AnswerA. Dry sterile dressing In assessing the hypothermic patient in the prehospital setting, the most reliable indicator of the severity of hypothermia is: A. Rectal temperature B. Oral temperature C. Heart rate < 60 D. Presence or absence of shivering - Correct AnswerA. Rectal temperature In the normal child, which general statement is most accurate in comparison with the adult patient? A. Blood pressure is higher, hear rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher B. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is lower, and ventilatory rate is higher C. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher D. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is lowe - Correct AnswerC. Blood pressure is lower, heart rate is higher, and ventilatory rate is higher A patient who withdraws from painful stimuli, opens eyes on verbal command, and cannot speak because of intubation has a Glasgow Coma Scale of which of the following: A. 8 B. 8T C. 7 D. 7T - Correct AnswerB. 8T (E-3, V-T, M-4) The earliest site for intraosseous infusion is: A. Anterior tibia, just above the tibial tuberosity B. Anterior fibula C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity D. Posterior fibula - Correct AnswerC. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity Which of the following behaviors is the most reliable indication of confusion in the elderly trauma patient? A. Inability to recall his/her name B. Inability to recall the day of the week C. Inability to identify his/her present location when out of his/her normal residence D. Focus on repeated retelling of events that occurred years ago - Correct AnswerA. Inability to recall his/her name In the elderly trauma patient a high index of suspicion for shock should occur beginning when the systolic blood pressure is less than: A. 90 mmHg B. 150 mmHg C. 120 mmHg D. 100 mmHg - Correct AnswerC. 120 mmHg In an adult patient, blood loss into the tissue from a fractured femur may be as much as which of the following? A. 150 to 500 mL B. 500 to 1000 mL C. 1000 2000 mL D. 2500 to 5000 mL - Correct AnswerC. 1000 2000 mL Delayed death due to trauma is usually a result of: A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation B. Acute circulatory failure C. Brain injury D. Acute hypoxia - Correct AnswerA. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation A regional resource center with a full spectrum of trauma services from prevention to rehabilitation which serves as the leader in trauma care for a geographical region is a: A. Level IV trauma center B. Level III trauma center C. Level II trauma center D. Level I trauma center - Correct AnswerD. Level I trauma center Which of the following patients is not indicated for spinal immobilization? A. Intoxicated patient in a MVC B. Patient who fell 8 feet and lost consciousness C. Patient complaining of pain on palpation of the neck D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15 - Correct AnswerD. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15 The premise of PHTLS is that: A. EMTs must treat all trauma patient based on protocols B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base C. EMTs must work only under on-line medical direction when caring for trauma patients D. EMTs are capable of working independently of medical direction - Correct AnswerB. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge base Which of the following warrants classification of a patient as a critical trauma patient? A. An extremity fracture B. Preexisting major medical problem C. Bleeding from the nose D. Deployment of air bags in a motor vehicle crash - Correct AnswerB. Preexisting major medical problem Which of the following is the foundation of effective trauma care? A. Protocols permitting invasive airway procedures B. The ability to administer large amounts of crystalloid fluids C) Initiate rapid transport D) Restore blood volume - Correct AnswerB) Apply direct pressure Hypotension of unknown etiology in a trauma patient should be assumed to result from which of the following? A) Blood loss B) Cardiac tamponade C) Spinal injury D) Tension pneumothorax - Correct AnswerA) Blood loss Which assessment is most beneficial in differentiating hemorrhagic shock from neurogenic shock in the prehospital setting? A) Abdomen B) Blood pressure C) Neurologic status D) Skin - Correct AnswerD) Skin The body initially compensates for blood loss through activation of which of the following? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Reticular activating system C) Spinal reflex arcs D) Sympathetic nervous system - Correct AnswerD) Sympathetic nervous system Medication used by trauma patients for pre-existing conditions may cause which of the following? A) Herbal preparations may enhance blood clotting B) Anti-inflammatory agents may enhance blood clotting C) Beta blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss D) Calcium channel blockers may slow the onset of shock - Correct AnswerC) Beta blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss The target blood pressure for a trauma patient with suspected intraabdominal hemorrhage is which of the following? A) 60 - 70mm Hg B) 80 - 90 mm Hg C) 100 - 110 mm Hg D) 120 - 130 mm Hg - Correct AnswerB) 80 - 90 mm Hg Which best explains the mechanism by which gas exchange is impaired in pulmonary contusion? A) Blood in the alveoli B) Collapse of the alveoli C) Compression of the lung tissue D) Partial occlusion of the bronchi - Correct AnswerA) Blood in the alveoli Which of the following is a key finding that differentiates cardiac tamponade from tension pneumothorax? A) Distended jugular veins B) Equal breath sounds C) Hypotension D) Tachycardia - Correct AnswerB) Equal breath sounds Your patient is a 20 year old male who struck his head on a teammate's knee while diving to catch a football. He was not wearing a helmet. He demonstrates decerebrate posturing and has a GCS score of 4. His heart rate is 58, blood pressure 180/102 and his left pupil is dilated. What is the best ventilation rate to use when managing this patient? A) 10 breaths per minute. B) 20 breaths per minute. C) 30 breaths per minute. D) 35 breaths per minute. - Correct AnswerB) 20 breaths per minute A 20 year old female was ejected from her vehicle during a high speed roll-over motor vehicle collision. She has significant bleeding from a large laceration. Your initial assessment reveals a GCS score of 7, systolic blood pressure of 70 mm Hg and pupils that are equal but respond sluggishly to light. After establishing two large bore IV lines, you should titrate the infusion rate to achieve a target blood pressure of at least A) 60 mm Hg. B) 70 mm Hg. C) 80 mm Hg. D) 90 mm Hg. - Correct AnswerD) 90 mm Hg. Which of the following is the preferred prehospital wound management for a patient with a 36% body surface area flame burn? A) Cool moist dressings B) Dry sterile dressings C) Elastic bandages D) Topical ointments - Correct AnswerB) Dry sterile dressings The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following? A) Acute respiratory failure B) Hemorrhage. C) Multiple organ failure. D) Peritonitis - Correct AnswerB) Hemorrhage. An adult male sustained a deep laceration to his distal thigh. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. Direct pressure is not controlling the bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step? A) Apply a topical hemostatic agent and transport B) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops C) Elevate the leg and apply pressure to the femoral artery D) Maintain direct pressure and transport immediately - Correct AnswerB) Apply a tourniquet and tighten it until bleeding stops An 18-year-old female was struck by a car and has sustained an apparent left femur fracture. Communication with her is hampered because she only speaks a foreign language. Which finding, by itself, does not mandate immobilization of the cervical spine? A) Fracture of the femur B) Inability to communicate C) Mechanism of injury D) Tenderness over the cervical spine - Correct AnswerC) Mechanism of injury During the primary survey of a trauma patient, you note that the patient is agitated and confused, and has multiple injuries from an altercation. Which of the following choices is the most appropriate first treatment priority? A) Blood glucose determination B) Correction of possible hypoxia C) Full immobilization to a backboard D) Obtain intravenous access - Correct AnswerB) Correction of possible hypoxia