PHYS 261 Midterm Actual Exam New Latest Version Updated 2023-2024, Exams of Physiology

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PHYS 261 Midterm Actual Exam New Latest

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Which part of the respiratory system has 3 lobes, a horizontal fissure, and an oblique fissure? a. Right Lung b. Left Lung c. Alveoli d. Bronchus e. Diaphragm --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Right Lung What part of the cell allows selective passage of molecules and ions in and out of the cell? a. Nuclear Envelope b. Phospholipid Bilayer c. Microvilli d. Golgi Complex e. Ribosomes --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Phospholipid Bilayer What part of the cell is responsible in creating spindle fibers for mitosis? a. Nuclear Envelope b. Phospholipid Bilayer c. Centrioles d. Golgi Complex e. Ribosomes --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Centrioles Name all the parts of the upper respiratory tract? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Nasal Cavity (Nose/Mouth)

2. Pharynx
3. Larynx
4. *Trachea - some would argue it is. Name all the parts of the lower respiratory tract? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. *Trachea - some would argue it is.
5. Bronchus
6. Bronchioles
7. Lungs
8. Alveoli
9. Diaphragm

Name at least three functions of respiratory system? --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Homeostatic regulation of body pH. b. Assist in vocalization. c. Assist in smelling. d. Air filtration. e. Air ventilation. How to calculate Vital Capacity? a. IRV + TV + ERV b. RV + VC + TV c. TLC + HGTV + CNN d. ERV + IRV e. I know it, I just don't want to tell you. --------- Correct Answer --------- a. IRV + TV + ERV What is the leftover air capacity after expelling ERV? a. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) b. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) c. Tidal Volume (TV) d. Residual Volume (RV) e. Vital Capacity (VC) --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Residual Volume (RV) What is described as the lung volume during normal breathing? a. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) b. Vital Capacity (VC) c. Tidal Volume (TV) d. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) e. Resting Capacity --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Tidal Volume (TV) How to calculate total lung capacity? a. IRV + TV + ERV + RV b. IRV + TV + ERV c. IRV + TV + RV d. TV + ERV + RV e. IRV + TV + CRV + RV --------- Correct Answer --------- a. IRV + TV + ERV + RV Describe what happens during gas exchange 1? --------- Correct Answer --------- When the body inhales the air from the atmosphere in to the lungs AKA ventilation. What is the complete sum of the air volume of the lungs? a. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) b. Vital Capacity (VC) c. Tidal Volume (TV) d. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) e. Resting Capacity --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

What chemical "breaks" the surface tension in the surface of the lungs to allow compliance and elastance? --------- Correct Answer --------- Surfactant Which part of the respiratory system produces surfactants? a. Alveoli Type 1 b. Lungs c. Brochioles d. Alveoli Type II e. Capillaries Type II --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Alveoli Type II Describe Boyle's Law? --------- Correct Answer --------- As volume increases, pressure decreases. As volume decreases, pressure increases. Which part of the respiratory system does 95% of the gas exchange function? a. Alveoli Type 1 b. Lungs c. Brochioles d. Alveoli Type II e. Capillaries Type II --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Alveoli Type 1 What chemical breaks the surface tension in the surface of lungs to allow compliance and elastance? a. Hormones b. Surtacfant c. Epinephrine d. Cyanide e. Surfactant --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Surfactant What happens to the pressure in alveoli during inspiration? a. Increases. b. Stays the same. c. Decreases then sharply decreases. d. Decreases e. Pressure doesn't change. --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Decreases Describe Dalton's Law? --------- Correct Answer --------- The total pressure of a mixture of gasses = The total partial pressures of the gasses individually. What is alveolar ventilation? --------- Correct Answer --------- The amount of air reaching alveoli per minute. If the doctor says that the pressure of the patient's alveoli is increasing, what is probably happening with the patient's respiration? a. The patient is inhaling naturally. b. The patient is hyper ventilating.

c. The patient is exhaling naturally. d. The patient is holding his/her breath. e. The patient has a hole in their lungs. --------- Correct Answer --------- c. The patient is exhaling naturally. How to calculate the alveolar ventilation rate? a. TV-DV b. IRV-TLC c. DV-IRV d. ERV-IRV e. Dalton's Law * TV/DV --------- Correct Answer --------- a. TV-DV (Total Volume - Dead Space Volume) What is the difference between compliance and elastance? --------- Correct Answer ------ --- Compliance = stretchable Elastance = ability to return to resting volume after compliance. What is the difference between high and low compliance? --------- Correct Answer --------

• High compliance = easy to stretch. Low compliance = hard to stretch. What is the name of the test used to measure lung function by measuring air volume inhalation, exhalation, and breathing rate? a. Spirotechics b. Speedometry c. Spiralmetrics d. Spirometry e. Spirology --------- Correct Answer --------- Spirometry How to calculate total pulmonary ventilation? a. Ventilation Rate x Spirometric Volume b. Tidal Volume x Total Volume c. Total Volume x Dalton's Law d. Ventilation Rate x Tidal Volume e. Ventialtion Rate x Resting Capacity --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Ventilation Rate x Tidal Volume What is the movement of air between the atmosphere and lungs? a. Compliance b. Gas exchange c. Respiration d. Perspiration e. Ventilation --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Ventilation What are tiny interconnected sacs in the lungs that serve as the site of gas exchange? a. Adipose

b. Capillaries c. Brochioles d. Alveoli e. Lipids --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Alveoli Name any of the following that spirometry is meant to measure? a. Air volume inhalation b. Air volume exhalation c. Breathing Rate d. Dead Space Volume e. Alveoli Rate --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Air volume inhalation b. Air volume exhalation c. Breathing Rate Which of the following describes blood flow? a. Ventilation b. Respiration c. Hydration d. Perfusion e. Perspiration --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Perfusion Oxygen transport and removal of carbon dioxide is the function of which of the following? a. Leukocytes b. Thrombocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Erythofranklincytes e. Lukeskywalkercytes --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Erythrocytes Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? a. Assist in smelling. b. Ventilation c. Air Filtration b. Perfusion d. Assist in speech e. Homeostatic regulation of body pH. --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Perfusion What is the term describing inhaled air after normal inspiration? a. Tidal Volume (TV) b. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) c. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) d. Residual Volume (RV) e. Vital Capacity (VC) --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) What is gas exchange 2?

a. The exchange of gasses through alveoli. b. The exchange of gasses through cells. c. During ventilation. d. The exchange of gasses through flatulence. e. The exchange of gasses through perspiration. --------- Correct Answer --------- a. The exchange of gasses through alveoli. The exchange of gasses during cellular respiration is known as which of the following? a. Gas exchange 1 b. Gas exchange 2 c. Gas exchange 3 d. Gas exchange 4 e. Gas exchange 5 --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Gas exchange 3 What creates natural pressure gradients in the body? a. Lungs b. Neurons c. Muscles d. Heart e. Red Blood Cells --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Muscles What is bulk flow? a. Air flow from the head to the feet. b. Blood pressure. c. Air flow from regions of high to low pressure. d. The natural movement of lipids. e. Resistance of air from low to high pressure. --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Air flow from regions of high to low pressure. Describe the air pathway starting from the external environment. --------- Correct Answer --------- Nose/Mouth > pharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchus > bronchioles > alveoli Which of the following is paired incorrectly? a. Leukocytes = WBC b. Thrombocytes = Platelets c. Erythrocytes = RBC d. Leukocytes = RBC e. Midi-chlorians = The Force --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Leukocytes = RBC Describe the basic steps of blood clotting? --------- Correct Answer --------- Wound exposes collagen (or rough tissues) - > exposed collagen binds and activates nearby platelets - > platelet factors released - > factors attract more platelets - > platelets aggregate until wound closes and covers exposed collagen (or rough tissues). What is hemostasis? a. Blood destruction

b. Blood genesis c. Blood clotting d. Blood diffusion e. Blood letting --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Blood clotting What is the term describing blood becoming overly saturated to the point of bursting? a. Hemoglysis b. Consternation c. Crenation d. Hemolysis e. Homophobic --------- Correct Answer --------- Hemolysis Which protein in plasma is the smallest but of the greatest quantity? a. Transferins b. Monocytes c. Albumins d. Globulins e. Fabrinogens --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Albumins Which protein in plasma assists in iron transport? a. Transferins b. Monocytes c. Albumins d. Globulins e. Fabrinogens --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Transferins What is the term describing blood becoming underinflated? a. Hemoglysis b. Consternation c. Crenation d. Hemolysis e. Homophobic --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Crenation If a blood cell is said to be in crenation, it is also which of the following? a. Hypertonic b. Hyperglaciated c. Hyperactivated d. Isotonic e. Hypotonic --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Hypertonic If a blood cell is said to be in hemolysis, it is also which of the following? a. Hypertonic b. Hypoglaciated c. Hyperactivated d. Isotonic e. Hypotonic --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Hypotonic

What is the percentage of plasma in whole blood? a. 55% b. 50% c. 45% d. 60% e. 75% --------- Correct Answer --------- a. 55% What are the components of plasma and their percentages? --------- Correct Answer ----- ---- 92% Water 7% Proteins 1% Solutes Which protein in plasma are also antibodies? a. Transferins b. Monocytes c. Albumins d. Globulins e. Fabrinogens --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Globulins What is contained in solutes in whole blood? --------- Correct Answer --------- Electrolytes, Organic Nutrients, and Organic Wastes. Leukocytes consists of what two major groups? a. Agranulocytes and Monocytes b. Granulocytes and Agranulocytes c. Neutrophils and Basophils d. Monocytes and Lymphocytes e. Granulocytes and Eosinophils --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Granulocytes and Agranulocytes What are two cells that belong with agranulocytes? --------- Correct Answer --------- Monocytes and Leukocytes What are the three cells that belong with granulocytes? --------- Correct Answer --------- Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Basophils Which of the following is known to attack bacteria and are first responders? a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. Naturophils e. Glasophils --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Neutrophils What is hemolysis? --------- Correct Answer --------- The rupture or destruction of red blood cells.

Which protein is large and in plasma that assists in blood clotting? a. Transferins b. Monocytes c. Albumins d. Globulins e. Fabrinogens --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Fabrinogens Which of the following is known to attack allergens and parasites? a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. Naturophils e. Glasophils --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Eosinophils Plasma contains erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets, which are known as what? a. Whole Blood b. Proteins c. Immunity Bodies d. Formed Elements e. Fabrinogens --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Formed Elements What is the process that plasmin breaks down fibrin in blood clots? a. Hemolysis b. Hydrolysis c. Plasmolysis d. Fabrinolysis e. Plasmilysis --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Fabrinolysis Which of the following includes T Cells, B Cells, and NK Cells? a. Monocytes b. Basocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Duocytes e. Eosinocytes --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Lymphocytes What is the percentage of water, proteins, and solutes in plasma? --------- Correct Answer --------- 92%, 7%, and 1%. What is the percentage of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets? --------- Correct Answer --------- 99%, <1%, and <1%. Which of the following includes macrophages, langerhan's cells, microglials, etc? a. Monocytes b. Basocytes c. Lymphocytes

d. Duocytes e. Eosinocytes --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Monocytes What is hematopoiesis? --------- Correct Answer --------- Blood cell formation in bone marrow. What is Erythropoietin (EPO)? --------- Correct Answer --------- A hormone produced and released by the kidney that stimulates the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow. What is thrombopoietin? --------- Correct Answer --------- A hormone produced and released by the liver that stimulates the production of platelets or megakaryoctyes. What is normal hematocrit readings for females? --------- Correct Answer --------- 37 to 47% Name atleast three useful purpose of hematocrit readings? --------- Correct Answer ------ --- 1. Indicate ratio of RBC to whole blood.

2. Indicate packed cell volume.
3. Detect Polycythemia.
4. Detect Anemia. What is normal hematocrit readings for males? --------- Correct Answer --------- 40 to 54% Describe the journey of a red blood cell? --------- Correct Answer --------- Iron ingested - > absorbed by small intestine - > transferrin in plasma transport iron to bone marrow - > bone marrow converts iron to heme to hemoglobin - > red blood cell synthesis - > 120 days life - > spleen destroys RBC - > hemoglobin converted to bilirubin - > bilirubin excreted as urine or feces and iron excess recycled in liver as ferritin or transferrin. How long is the typical life of a healthy red blood cell? --------- Correct Answer --------- 120 days or 4 months What is hematocrit? --------- Correct Answer --------- The ratio of red blood cells to the total volume of whole blood. What are lysosomes and what do they do? --------- Correct Answer --------- Lysosomes are vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes that digests things like food and viral/bacterial particles. What are peroxisomes and what do they do? --------- Correct Answer --------- Vesicles that have enzymes that digest fatty acids and amino acids. What part of the cell synthesizes lipids? a. Nuclear Envelope

b. Phospholipid Bilayer c. Microvilli d. Golgi Complex e. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum What part of the cell synthesizes proteins? a. Nuclear Envelope b. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum c. Microvilli d. Golgi Complex e. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum What part of the cell contains chromatin? a. Nuclear Envelope b. Nucleolus c. Microvilli d. Golgi Complex e. Ribosomes --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Nuclear Envelope What part of the cell contains DNA? a. Nuclear Envelope b. Nucleolus c. Microvilli d. Golgi Complex e. Ribosomes --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Nucleolus What is the golgi apparatus? --------- Correct Answer --------- Flattened stacks that process, package, and deliver proteins and lipids. What are mitochondria? --------- Correct Answer --------- They are organelles that provide energy for the cell. Describe the general steps of protein synthesis? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. In the nucleus, transcription process replicate RNA from DNA with polymerase, magnesium ion, and a high energy source.

2. RNA polymerase causes DNA to unwind creating a single strand of mRNA.
3. Splicing begins when mRNA non coding (introns) and coding proteins (exons) are separated.
4. mRNA exits the nucleus and joins with ribosomes in the cytosol.
5. mRNA binds with ribosomes to initiate protein translation.
6. During translation, pairing of mRNA and tRNA puts newly arrived amino acids into the correct orientation.
7. The amino acid becomes the base in which the protein is free to form different types proteins.

Name the abbreviations of the six anterior pituitary hormones? --------- Correct Answer -- ------- 1. Prolactin (LH)

2. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
3. Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH)
4. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
5. Growth Hormone (GH)
6. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Name all six anterior pituitary hormones? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Prolactin
7. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
8. Adenocorticotrophic Hormone
9. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
10. Growth Hormone
11. Luteinizing Hormone Name the 2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary? --------- Correct Answer ------- -- 1. Oxytocin
12. Antidiuretic Hormone Name the abbreviations of the 2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Oxytocin (OT)
13. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Which hormone stimulates milk production? --------- Correct Answer --------- Prolactin What is luteinizing hormone? --------- Correct Answer --------- A hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates ovulation in females and the synthesis of androgen in males. What is follicle stimulating hormone? --------- Correct Answer --------- A hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland essential for pubertal development of women's ovaries and men's testes. Which hormone increases blood pressure and decreases urine flow? --------- Correct Answer --------- Vasoprassin / Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Which hormone regulates cortisol release? --------- Correct Answer --------- Adenocorticotrophic Hormone Which hormone stimulates body growth and other cellular functions? --------- Correct Answer --------- Growth Hormone What is oxytocin? - -------- Correct Answer --------- A hormone produced by the hypothalamus that influences social, sexual, and maternal behaviors.

Name the three hormone classes? --------- Correct Answer --------- Peptides, Amines, and Steroids Name the receptor locations of peptides, amines and steroids? --------- Correct Answer - -------- Peptides = Cell membrane Steroids = Cytoplasm or Nucleus Amines = Cell membrane or Nucleus Estrogen, androgen, and cortisol are examples of what hormone class? --------- Correct Answer --------- Steroids Name atleast 2 examples of peptides? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Insulin

2. Parathyroid Hormone Melatonin is the product of which hormone class? --------- Correct Answer --------- Amine

• Hydrotrytophan Name atleast 2 examples of amine - catecholamine? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Epinepherine

2. Norepinepherine
3. Cortisol Name atleast 2 examples of thyroid hormones? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Thyroxine
4. Triiodothyronine What is the difference between Cushing's syndrome and Cushing's disease? --------- Correct Answer --------- Cushing's Syndrome - is due to excess and prolonged use of medication containing cortisol resulting to fatty deposits around face, midsection, and fat loss from arms and legs. Cushing's Disease - often due to a tumor forcing over secretion of cortisol resulting to hyperglycemia mimicking diabetes. What is the difference between acromegaly, dwarfism, and Gigantism? --------- Correct Answer --------- Gigantism - excess growth hormone during puberty resulting to excessive growth of limbs. Dwarfism - Extreme growth hormone deficiency during childhood resulting to severe shortening of limbs and other uneven growth. Acromegaly - excess growth hormone during adulthood resulting to lengthening of jaw, coarsening of facial features, and excess growth of hands and feet.

What is the difference between Addison's, Paget's, and Grave's Disease? --------- Correct Answer --------- Addison's - Adrenal cortex damage leading to adrenal insufficiency or hypersecretion of all adrenal steroid hormones. Graves' - Hyperthyroidism resulting to goiter and hypersecretion of T3 and T hormones. Paget's - Genetically linked condition in which osteoclasts are overactive and bone is weakened due to over absorption. Where is amine - catecholamine made? a. Adrenal Medula b. Ribosomes c. Endoplasmic Reticulum d. Liver e. Kidneys --------- Correct Answer --------- a. Adrenal Medula Where is amine - thyroid hormone made? a. Adrenal Medula b. Ribosomes c. Pineal Gland d. Liver e. Thyroid Gland --------- Correct Answer --------- e. Thyroid Gland Where is amine - hydroxytryptophan made? a. Adrenal Medula b. Ribosomes c. Endoplasmic Reticulum d. Pineal Gland e. Kidneys --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Pineal Gland Prohormones are made where? a. Adrenal Medula b. Ribosomes c. Endoplasmic Reticulum d. Pineal Gland e. Kidneys --------- Correct Answer --------- c. Endoplasmic Reticulum Preprohormones are made where? a. Adrenal Medula b. Ribosomes c. Endoplasmic Reticulum d. Pineal Gland e. Kidneys --------- Correct Answer --------- b. Ribosomes

What is homeostasis? --------- Correct Answer --------- Any self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival. What is the initial input of energy required to begin a chemical reaction? a. Genesis Energy b. Chemical Energy c. Kinetic Energy d. Activation Energy e. Potential Energy --------- Correct Answer --------- d. Activation Energy What is the difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions? --------- Correct Answer --------- Exergonic reactions releases energy while endergonic reactions uses energy. What is an enzyme? --------- Correct Answer --------- A substance produced by a living organism that acts as a catalyst to bring about a specific biochemical reaction. What is the CNS and its parts? --------- Correct Answer --------- Central Nervous System

• Brain and Spinal Cord What are the two parts of the nervous system? --------- Correct Answer --------- Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Which part of the peripheral nervous system receives input/sensory signals or monitors somatic and visceral signals? --------- Correct Answer --------- Afferent Portion Which part of the peripheral nervous system sends output/motor signals or regulates somatic and visceral signals? --------- Correct Answer --------- Efferent Portion Where is the HQ of the ANS? --------- Correct Answer --------- Hypothalamus and Thalamus Which part of the PNS directs the ANS? --------- Correct Answer --------- Efferent Portion What are the two parts of the ANS? --------- Correct Answer --------- Sympathetic and Parasympathetic portions Which part of the nervous system makes routine adjustments to respiratory, cardiovascular, digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems? --------- Correct Answer --------- ANS What is the voltage for resting membrane potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- - 70mV

What is the overshoot point and the typical voltage? --------- Correct Answer --------- A stage during the rising phase when cell membrane reverse polarity (the inside of the cell is more positively charged than the outside). +30mV What is the all or none principle? --------- Correct Answer --------- The idea that any stimuli great enough to bring an axon to threshold will produce an equal action potential. Describe the steps of an action potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- 1. Neuron at resting membrane potential. @-70mv

2. Depolarization stimulus received.
3. Membrane depolarizes, Na+ channels opens, K+ channels delayed but begins to open. @-50mv
4. Rapid Na+ entry depolarizes the cell.
5. Cell reaches its potential with Na+ forcing channels to close. @+30mv
6. K+ channels are now fully open, K+ exit the cell. @+30mv
7. Hyperpolarizing result from K+ exit. @-72 to - 74mv
8. K+ channels close.
9. Cell returns to resting membrane potential. @-70mv What inter-cellular ion is essential for action potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- K+ / Potassium What extra-cellular ions are essential for neural action potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- Na+ / Sodum What extra-cellular ions are essential for muscular action potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- Ca+ / Calcium What ion is known to stop neural action potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- Cl- / Chlorides What is the voltage when the cell depolarizes? --------- Correct Answer --------- - 50mV Which cells of the pancreas produces glucagon? --------- Correct Answer --------- Alpha Cells Which cells of the pancreas produces insulin? --------- Correct Answer - -------- Beta Cells What are the percentages of beta and alpha cells in the pancreas? --------- Correct Answer --------- Alpha Cells = 20% Beta Cells = 75% How do alpha cells increase blood sugar? --------- Correct Answer --------- Alpha cells release glucagon. Glucagon directs liver to breakdown glycogen to glucose.

How do beta cells reduce blood sugar? --------- Correct Answer --------- Beta cells release insulin. Insulin directs liver to convert glucose to glycogen. What happens when someone develops Type 1 diabetes? --------- Correct Answer ------- -- Immune system destroys beta cells. The body cannot produce insulin to direct liver to convert glucose to glycogen. Blood sugar increases resulting to increase thirst, frequent urination, extreme hunger, weight loss, fatigue, weakness, and vision damage. What is gluconeogenesis? --------- Correct Answer --------- The formation of glucose by non-glucose precursors such as proteins and fats (lipids/glycerol). What is lipogenesis? --------- Correct Answer --------- The formation of lipids from carbohydrates and proteins. What is glycogenolysis? --------- Correct Answer --------- The breakdown of glycogen into glucose. Describe the importance of the Na+ / K+ pump? --------- Correct Answer --------- The use of active transport to move molecules across a concentration gradient using 3 sodium ions, 2 potassium ions, and ATP. The result is that 3 sodium ions are released outside the cell and 2 potassium ions are placed back in the cell. What is diffusion? --------- Correct Answer --------- The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. What is facilitated diffusion? --------- Correct Answer --------- Movement of specific molecules across cell membranes through protein channels. What is hyperpolarization? --------- Correct Answer --------- Hyperpolarization refers an axon becoming less positively charged. What hormone causes bronchodilation? --------- Correct Answer --------- Epinepherine Platelets are also known as what? --------- Correct Answer --------- Thrombocytes Are you going to get an A on this midterm exam? a. Hellz yeaaah! b. I'm happy with a B. c. Millionaires are C students. d. I do declare that D is delightfully dignified. e. F is for fantastic! --------- Correct Answer --------- Hellz yeaaah! What is the difference between the rising and falling phase of an action potential? --------

• Correct Answer --------- Rising Phase: Cell allows Na+ to flow in to the cell @ - 50mv.

Falling Phase: Cell allows K+ to flow out of the cell @+30mv. What is the difference between excitatory post synaptic potential and Inhibitory postsynaptic potential? --------- Correct Answer --------- Excitatory Post Synaptic Potential: Cell is delpolarized increasing it chance to fire an action potential. Inhibitory Post Synaptic Potential: Cell is hyperpolarized increasing it chance to fire an action potential.