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PMHNP ANCC Exam Questions And Answers

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1. Descriptive Vividness Correct ans - The researcher describes the data gathering process in sufficient detail that the reader can personally experience it. The data collected, often in the form of personal statements, should be quoted directly and extensively, because this is the raw data from the study.
2. Methodological Congruence Correct ans - The researcher presents the philosophical and methodological approach used and cites references to support their approach. The subjects, sampling method, data-gathering and data-analysis strategies, and processes for informed consent are clearly and concisely described.
3. Theoretical Connectedness Correct ans - Any theory developed from the study is clearly stated, logically consistent, reflective of the data, and in accord with other available knowledge.
4. Analytical Precision Correct ans - Is not concerned with statistics and instruments. If refers to the decision-making process by which the researchers synthesize concrete data (words of the subjects) into an abstract that clarifies the meaning and the importance of the study. The last of the 5 criteria is Heuristic Relevance - The researcher clarifies the significance of the study, its applicability to public health or community nursing, and its likely influence on the future research.

5. Phenelzine Correct ans - An MAOI that patients with atypical depression respond particularly well to.
6. Atomoxetine Correct ans - A norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor approved for the treatment of ADHD.
7. Loxapine Correct ans - A typical, tetracyclic antipsychotic with antidepressant properties. Its active metabolite is amoxapine, which is a secondary amine tricyclic antidepressant.
8. HITECH Correct ans - Implementation of EHR for information exchanges and improving population health. This was done by Obama and the ARRA.
9. Suppression Correct ans - The intentional or conscious exclusion of painful or disturbing thoughts or emotions from awareness.
10. A healthy defense mechanism because the client channels conflicting energies into growth-promoting activities.
11. Medications that can induce depression Correct ans - beta blockers, steroids, interferon, Accutane, benzodiazepines, progesterone, some antivirals, and antineoplastic.
12. Medications that can induce mania Correct ans - Steroids, Isoniazid, antidepressants (in people who already have bipolar disorder), and Ant abuse.
13. Madigan Insurance Policies Correct ans - Private insurance policies purchased by elderly individuals to cover some or all of their medical expenses not paid for by Medicare.
14. Medicare Advantage Plan Correct ans - Formerly Medicare + Choice, this created regional Preferred Provider

Organizations (PPOs) and gave Medicare enrollees the option of enrolling in private insurance plans.

15. Medicare + Choice Correct ans - Was a part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 that significantly increase the number of managed care insurance plans available to recipients. This was replaced with the Medicare Advantage Plan in 200.
16. List of the Second Generation (atypical) Antipsychotics (9) Correct ans a. Clairol (clozapine), Zyprexa (olanzapine), Latuda (lurasidone), ziprasidone,
17. Risperdal (risperidone), Nivea Susitna (palperidone), Fan apt (iloperidone), Seroquel (quetiapine), Saphris (asenapine),
18. List of First Generation (typical) Antipsychotics (10) Correct ans - Haldol (haloperidol), Prolix in (Fluphenazine), Navane (thiothixene), and Thomasine
19. (chlorpromazine), Lusitania (clozapine), Malarial (thioridazine), Trillion
20. (perphenazine), Oral (pimozide), Solana amisulpride), Stellazine (trifluoperazine)
21. List the 6 common benzodiazepines in order from shortest to longest half-life
22. Correct ans - Xanax (alprazolam): 6-10 hrs
23. Serax (oxazepam): 8 hrs
24. Ativan (lorazepam): 12-18 hrs
25. Klonopin (clonazepam): 30-40 hrs
26. Valium (diazepam): 100 hrs
27. Librium (chlordiazepoxide): 36-200 hrs

28. List of SNRIs (6) Correct ans - Cymbalta (duloxetine), Pristiq
29. (desvenlafaxine), Effexor (venlafaxine), Fetzima (levomilnacipran), Savella (milnacipran), Strattera (atomoxetine)
30. Action of Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) Correct ans - They target serotonin, norepinephrine, and histamine- receptors
31. List the Tricyclic Antidepressants (9) Correct ans - Pamela
32. (nortriptyline), Elavil (amitriptyline), amoxapine (no branded), Anafranil
33. (clomipramine), Norpramin (desipramine), Tofranil (imipramine), Vivactil (protriptyline), Sinequan/Splendor (doxepin), Surmounted (imipramine)
34. FINISH acronym for SSRI withdrawal Correct ans - Flu-like symptoms Irritability
35. Nausea
36. Imbalance/instability/incoordination/dizzy (motor)
37. Sensory disturbances
38. Headache, hyper arousal (anxiety/agitation)
39. Signs of NMS (Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome) Correct ans - Initial
40. Symptoms: altered sensorium, hyperreflexia, fever
41. Then signs of autonomic instability: extreme muscle rigidity, hypotension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, tachypnea, hyperthermia, coma, death. Check for increased WBCs (leukocytosis)/LFTs/CPK

42. Signs of Lithium toxicity Correct ans - Confusion, diplopia, nausea/diarrhea, ataxia, lethargy, fatigue, clumsiness, weakness, muscle cramping, severe tremor, blurred vision, nystagmus, increased DTRs, altered mental status, cardiac dysrhythmias
43. Signs of Serotonin Syndrome Correct ans - agitation, restlessness, rapid heart rate, blood pressure elevation, headache, sweating, shivering, goose bumps, myoclonic jerking and loss of coordination, confusion, fevers, unconsciousness, seizures
44. Medications that can increase lithium level Correct ans - NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors (-perils), ARBs (-Spartans), tetracycline’s, metronidazole
45. Medications that can decrease lithium level Correct ans - potassium sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, theophylline
46. Clairol - monitoring considerations Correct ans - Monitor ANC (absolute neutrophil count); pt. needs an ANC of at least 1500 to start clozaril therapy; watch for Benign Ethnic Neutropenia (BED); Monitor ANC weekly x6 months, every 2 weeks x6 months, then monthly if ANC is at least 1500.
47. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for PCP & methadone Correct ans - Nyquil, OTC cough meds
48. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for heroin & morphine Correct ans - rifampin, fluoroquinolones
49. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for cocaine Correct ans NSAIDs, amoxicillin, and most antibiotics

50. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for amphetamines Correct ans - Prozac, Wilburton, Trazodone, Nefazodone, Sudafed, OTC decongestants.
51. Schizophrenia Prevalence:
52. Non-twin siblings of a schizophrenic parent
53. Dizygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent
54. Monozygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent Correct ans - 8%
55. 12%
56. 47%
57. Birth defects caused by benzodiazepines Correct ans - Cleft palate, floppy baby syndrome
58. Birth defects caused by carbamazepine Correct ans - Neural tube defects
59. Birth defects caused by Depakote Correct ans - Neural tube defects (spine bifida), cleft palate, atrial-sepal defects, long-term developmental deficits
60. CYP450 Inhibitors Correct ans - bupropion, clomipramine, cimetidine, clarithromycin, fluoroquinolones, grapefruit, ketoconazole, nefazodone, SSRIs
61. CYP450 Inducers Correct ans - carbamazepine, nicotine, Hypercom (St. John's worth), phenytoin, phenobarbital
62. Normal lab value for AST (aspartate aminotransferase) Correct ans - 5-
63. Normal lab value for ALT (alanine aminotransferase) Correct ans - 5-

64. Normal lab value for Alkaline Phosphatase Correct ans - 44-147; male be increased in gallbladder disease & with bone injury /rapid bone growth
65. Creative Kinase (normal range) Correct ans - <240. Measures muscle injury (heart, brain, and skeletal). Increased in MI (CK-MO), myositis, NMS
66. BUN (normal range) Correct ans - 10-20.
67. Creatinine Correct ans - 0.4-0.8 or less than 1.
68. Normal GFR Correct ans - >90 mL/min. If a patient is on psychotropic, as long as their GRF is >60, no dose adjustments need to be made.
69. What is the best measure of kidney function? Correct ans
    • GFR (glomerular filtration rate)
70. Normal Plate Count Correct ans - 140,000-340,
71. Normal hemoglobin value for males and females Correct ans - Males:
72. 13.5-
73. Females: 12.5-
74. Normal MCV (mean corpuscular volume) value Correct ans
    • 78-
75. Normal TSH Range Correct ans - 0.4-
76. Normal Free T4 range Correct ans - 10-
77. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for codeine Correct ans poppy seeds
78. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for benzodiazepines Correct ans - Zoloft
79. Gamma glut amyl trans peptidase (GGT) normal range Correct ans - 1038

80. Drug Category A and examples Correct ans - Controlled studies show no risk
81. Vitamins within RDA, insulin, thyroxin
82. Drug Category B and examples Correct ans - No evidence of risk in humans
83. Buspirone, zolpidem, clozapine, lurasidone
84. Beta-lactam antimicrobials (PCNs, cephalosporins, select
85. macrocodes, azithromycin, erythromycin), acetaminophen, ibuprofen (1st & 2nd trimesters)
86. Drug Category C and examples Correct ans - Risk cannot be ruled out bupropion, lamotrigine, SSRIs (except paroxetine), TCAs, duloxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, venlafaxine, aripiprazole, Haldol, ziprasidone, risperidone
87. Drug Category D and examples Correct ans - Positive evidence of risk paroxetine, valproate, carbamazepine, lithium alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam, and oxazepam
88. ACE Inhibitors (-perils), ARBs (-Spartans), ibuprofen (3rd trimester), tetracycline’s
89. Drug Category X and examples Correct ans - Absolutely
90. Contraindicated in pregnancy
91. Accutane, misoprostol, thalidomide, flurazepam, temazepam, triazolam
92. Types of inferential statistics Correct ans - p-value, Pearson's r correlation, t-test,ANOVA
93. T-test Correct ans - Compares whether the means of two groups are statistically different

94. ANOVA Correct ans - tests the differences of 3 or more groups
95. Pearson's r correlation Correct ans - tests the relationship between 2 variables
96. HLB-B*1502 Correct ans - Allele that some Asian’s have which makes them unable to metabolize carbamazepine, increasing their risk for Steven’s Johnson syndrome which can lead to toxic epithelial necrosis. Asians must be tests for this gene prior to beginning therapy.
97. TIGER Correct ans - technology competencies for NPs to improve access to quality & patient experience
98. Who is covered by Medicare? Correct ans - Adults > who have worked at least 4 quarters and paid Medicare taxes End stage renal disease those who need a kidney transplant those with ALS
99. Some younger people with disabilities
100. Those receiving SSDI
101. Who is covered by Medicaid? Correct ans - Low-income children
102. Low-income pregnant women
103. Elderly & disable individuals who qualify for the supplemental security income program
104. HAM-D (Hamilton Depression Scale) Correct ans - 17- questions. Each question with 3-5 possible responses that increase in severity.
105. 0-7 normal i. or = 20 moderately severe depression

106. BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) Correct ans - 21 questions, scores range 0-63.
107. 0-13: minimal depression
108. 14-19: mild depression
109. 20-28: moderate depression
110. 29-63: severe depression
111. Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) Correct ans - 10 questions. > or = possible depression
112. SLUMS (St. Louis University Mental Status Exam) Correct ans - HS Education:
113. Normal: 27-
114. MCI: 20-
115. Dementia: 1-
116. Less than HS education:
117. Normal: 20-
118. MCI: 14-
119. Dementia: 1-
120. CIWA Correct ans - Very mild: 0-
121. Mild: 10-
122. Moderate: 16-
123. Severe: 21-
124. PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire 9) Correct ans - 9 questions
125. 1-4 minimal depression
126. 5-9 mild depression
127. 10-14 moderate depression
128. 15-19 moderately severe depression
129. 20-27 severe depression

130. MADRS (Montgomery Samberg Depression Rating Scale) Correct ans - 10 questions
131. 44= very severe
132. 31= severe
133. 25= moderate
134. 15= mild
135. 7= recovered
136. Mini-cog Correct ans - Screens for cognitive impairment. 3-item recall with a clock-drawing test (CDT). 0/3 word recall=cognitive impairment
137. 1-2 word recall and abnormal CDT=cognitive impairment
138. 1-2 word recall and normal CDT= no cognitive impairment
139. 3/3 word recall= negative screen for dementia
140. MMSE (Mini mental status exam) Correct ans - Screens for cognitive impairment and used to follow cognitive function over time. High education may score falsely high. 30-point questionnaire:
141. Intact 25-
142. Mild 21-
143. Moderate 10-
144. Severe < or =
145. Mocha (Montreal Cognitive Assessment) Correct ans - Screens for mild cognitive decline. 30-point questionnaire. > or = 26 considered normal
146. Which therapy uses straight-forward directives, paradoxical directives, and reframing-belief systems? Correct ans - Strategic Therapy

147. Which therapy uses miracle questions, exception-finding questions, and scaling questions? Correct ans - Solutions- Focused Therapy
148. Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to have a manic episode: men or women? Correct ans - Men
149. Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to present with mixed episodes: men or women? Correct ans - Women
150. Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to have rapid cycling: men or women? Correct ans - Women
151. Who with bipolar disorder is more likely to have comorbid alcohol used disorder and eating disorders: men or women? Correct ans - Women
152. Schedule II Drugs Correct ans - morphine, codeine, fentanyl, methadone, Percocet, oxycontin, Deluded, amphetamines, methylphenidate.
153. Schedule III Drugs Correct ans - Appetite suppressants, butalbital, testosterone, suboxone
154. Schedule IV Drugs Correct ans - benzodiazepines, Ambien, Lonest, Provigil, Unveil, phenobarbital, dextropropoxyphene (Darvon), and pentazocine (Tailwind)
155. Schedule V Drugs Correct ans - buprenorphine, cheritussin (Robitussin) with codeine, promethazine (Phenergan) with codeine, diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil)
156. Role of hypothalamus Correct ans - homeostasis; basic needs (eating drinking, temperature regulation, sleep-wake cycle).
157. Braine stem reponsibility and parts Correct ans - Pons, Midbrain, medulla oblongata

158. Regulates BP, respirations, level of arousal, and digestions. Relays information to the cerebellum
159. Thalamus Correct ans - transmits sensory information to the cerebrum. influences affect, mood, and body movements associated with strong emotions.
160. Kohlberg Correct ans - Stages of Moral Development
161. 6 Domains in Diagnosing Neurocognitive Disorders Correct ans - 1.
162. Complex Attention
163. 2. Executive Function
164. 3. Learning Memory
165. 4. Language
166. 5. Perceptual Motor Ability
167. 6. Social cognition
168. Mesolimbic Pathway Correct ans - Responsible for POSITIVE symptoms of schizophrenia
169. all antipsychotics block DA receptors (specifically D2) in this pathway
170. Excess DA in this pathway leads to + symptoms (psychosis)
171. Reward-oriented
172. Associated with mood disorders, psychoses, and drug abuse
173. Neocortical Pathway Correct ans - Responsible for NEGATIVE symptoms of schizophrenia, cognition, planning and behavior.
174. Nigrostriatal Pathways Correct ans - Responsible for voluntary and involuntary movements. Insufficient DA in this pathway is implicated in Parkinson's disease.

175. Tuberoinfundibular Pathway Correct ans - Responsible for prolactin production. Extends to the pituitary gland where prolactin is regulated.
176. Otto Kornberg Correct ans - Psychoanalytic therapy with antisocial and borderline personality disorders.
177. Carl Rogers Correct ans - Humanistic approach; unconditional positive regard; described the individual as an energy field existing within the universe
178. 4 focuses of IPT (interpersonal therapy) Correct ans - 1. Complicated bereavement
179. 2. Role Dispute
180. 3. Role Transition
181. 4. Interpersonal Deficits
182. Maslow's Hierarchy Correct ans - 1. Physiologic Needs (food, water, warmth, rest) 2.Safety/security
183. 3. Belongingness and love
184. 4. Esteem
185. 5. Self-actualization (achieving one's full potential)
186. 6. Self-transcendence
187. Erikson's Stages of Development Correct ans - 1. Trust vs Mistrust
188. 2. Autonomy vs. Shame/Doubt
189. 3. Initiative vs. Guilt
190. 4. Industry vs. Inferiority
191. 5. Identity vs. Role Confusion
192. 6. Intimacy vs. Isolation
193. 7. Generativist vs. Stagnation
194. 8. Integrity vs. Despair

195. Trust vs. Mistrust Correct ans - Age: infancy to 1 yr
196. Mastery: Ability to form meaningful relationships, hope about the future, and trust in others
197. Failure: Poor relationships, lack of future hope, suspicious of others
198. Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt Correct ans - Age: 1-
199. Mastery: self-control, self-esteem, willpower
200. Failure: Poor self-control, low self-esteem, self-doubt, lack of independence
201. Initiative vs Guilt Correct ans - Age: 3-
202. Mastery: self-directed behavior, goal formation, sense of purpose
203. Failure: lack of self-initiated behavior, lack of goal orientation
204. Industry vs Inferiority Correct ans - Age: 7-
205. Mastery: Ability to work, sense of competence & achievement Failure: Sense of inferiority, difficulty working and learning
206. Identity vs Role Confusion Correct ans - Age: 12-
207. Mastery: Personal sense of identity
208. Failure: identity confusion, poor self-identification in group settings
209. Intimacy vs Isolation Correct ans - Age: 20-
210. Mastery: committed relationships, capacity to love
211. Failure: Emotional isolation, and egocentrism
212. Generativity vs Stagnation Correct ans - Age: 35-
213. Mastery: ability to give time and talents to others and ability to care for others
214. Failure: self-absorption, inability to grow-change as a person, inability to care for others

215. Integrity vs Despair Correct ans - age 65+
216. Mastery: fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face heath, insight and balanced perspective on life's events
217. Failure: biternes, sense of dissatisfaction with life, despair over impending death.
218. Piaget Stages Correct ans - 1. Sensorimotor
219. 2. Pre-operational
220. 3. Concrete Operational
221. 4. Formal Operational
222. Sensorimotor Stage Correct ans - 0-2 years
223. Infants develop object permanence (the realization that people exist even when they cannot be seen)
224. Pre-operational Correct ans - 3-6 years
225. Egocentrism prominent during this stage. Children develop language, symbolic thinking.
226. Concrete Operational Correct ans - 7-11 years
227. Development of logical thought, but it is still more concrete than abstract. Developing the understanding of the concept of conservation.
228. Formal Operational Correct ans - 12+ years
229. Development of hypothetical-deductive reasoning, may have an imaginary audience, personal fable, propositional thinking
230. Freud Stages Correct ans - 1. Oral 0-18 months
231. 2. Anal 18 mos-2 years
232. 3. Phallic 3-6 years
233. 4. Latency 7-11 years
234. 5. Genital 12+ years
235. Oral Stage Correct ans - Age: 0-18 mos

236. Activities: put everything in their mouth. sucking, chewing, feeding, crying
237. Failure: schizophrenia, paranoia, substance abuse
238. Anal Stage Correct ans - Age: 18 mos - 2 years
239. Activities: fixated on toilet training and sphincter control, activities of expulsion and retention Failure: depressive disorders
240. Phallic Stage Correct ans - Age: 3-6 years
241. Activities: Exhibitionism, masturbation with focus on Oedipal Conflict, sexual fantasies about opposite sex parent, castration anxiety (males), hear of loss of maternal love (females) Failure: Sexual identity disorders
242. Latency Stage Correct ans - Age: 7-11 years
243. Activities: peer relationships, learning, motor skills development, socialization
244. Failure: inability to form social relationships
245. Genital Stage Correct ans - Age: 12+ years
246. Activities: integration and synthesis of behaviors from early stages, primary genital-based sexuality
247. Failure: Sexual perversion disorders
248. Durham vs the United States (1954) Correct ans - Origin of the insanity defense. Determined than an individual is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of mental illness.
249. O'connor vs Donaldson (1976) Correct ans - Ruled that harmless mentally ill patients cannot be conned against their will. Determined that the presence of a mental illness alone cannot justify involuntary hospitalization.

250. Rennie vs Klein (1979) Correct ans - Determined that patients may have the right to refuse any treatment and use an appeal process.
251. Roger vs Oken (1981) Correct ans - Patient has a right to refuse treatment but a guardian can consent to treatment for them
252. Ford vs Wainwright (1986) Correct ans - Established a person's competence to be executed. :
253. Person must understand retributive element of punishment
254. Person must be in the best place to make peace with his or her religion.
255. Cranial Nerve I Correct ans - Olfactory
256. Sensory
257. Smell; tested by having patient smell common things like coffee ground through each nare while occluding the opposite nare (eyes must be closed)
258. Cranial Nerve II Correct ans - Optic
259. Sensory
260. Sight; tested using Snellen chart. Also, examiner views optic disc with ophthalmoscope, peripheral vision with confrontation test
261. Cranial Nerve III Correct ans - Oculomotor
262. Motor
263. Extra ocular movements, tested with CNs IV and VII. Pupils and corneal light reflex. Check for PERRLA
264. Cranial Nerve IV Correct ans - Trochlear
265. Motor

266. Extra ocular movements, tested with CNs III and VII. Innervates superior oblique muscle, turns eyes down and laterally (out)
267. Cranial Nerve V Correct ans - Trigeminal
268. Both
269. Sensation of touch and pain on the face. Movement of facial muscles (chewing). Specifically, have patient clench down and palpate the master muscle for tone. Cotton wisp test, and poke with pins with eyes closed on face.
270. Cranial Nerve VI Correct ans - Abduces
271. Motor
272. Extra ocular movements, tested with CNs III and IV. Turns eyes laterally (outwards)
273. Cranial Nerve VII Correct ans - Facial
274. Both
275. Facial expressions. Sensation on face. Saliva and tears secretion. Taste (identify sugar, vinegar, and salt with eyes closed). Movement of facial muscles: frown, smile, raise eyebrows, and puff out cheeks
276. Cranial Nerve VIII Correct ans - Acoustic (vestibulocochlear) Sensory
277. Hearing: Weber and Rinse test, Whisper Test. Audiometer. Equilibrium, sensation.
278. Cranial Nerve IX Correct ans - Glossopharyngeal
279. Both
280. Taste on anterior 2/3 tongue. Tongue movement. Test with vague nerve.
281. Cranial Nerve X Correct ans - Valgus
282. Both

283. Carotid blood pressure regulation, lower HR, gag reflex (put tongue depressor on back of tongue), taste, stimulated digestive organs. Test with glossopharyngeal nerve). Check for elevation of uvula by having pt. open mouth, say "ash".
284. Cranial Nerve XI Correct ans - Spinal Accessory
285. Motor
286. Move face against examiners hand (test SCM), and shrug shoulders against examiner (trapezius muscle). Also controls swallowing. Have them sip water.
287. Cranial Nerve XII Correct ans - Hypoglossal
288. Motor (tongue movement)
289. Stick out tongue and wiggle side to side; protrude tongue and check for involuntary movements.
290. Patient's Access to Responsible Care Alliance Correct ans - A coalition of organizations that represent the interests of millions of patients & nonphysical healthcare providers.
291. Pharmacodynamics Correct ans - What the drug does to the body (target sites for drug actions). Examples: receptors, ion channels, enzymes, carrier proteins.
292. Tran’s theoretical Model Stages of Changes Correct ans -
293. Precontemplation contemplation preparation action maintenance termination
294. Excitatory Response Correct ans - Depolarization. Involves opening of sodium & calcium channels so these ion channels can enter the cell.
295. Inhibitory Response Correct ans - Repolarization. Involved the opening of chloride channels so chloride can enter the cell & potassium can leave the cell.

296. Schedule I Drugs Correct ans - Heroin, Marijuana
297. Who developed motivational interview (MI)? Correct ans

- William Miller and Stephen Rollick 

298. Minchin Correct ans - Developed Structural Family Therapy.vFamily is an organization/structure; learn each member's likes and goals to change the family structure.
299. Bowen Correct ans - Developed family systems therapy. Individual’s problem behavior may serve a purpose as having a unique role in their family unit. The goal of this therapy is homeostasis.
300. Gonzalez-Jaime’s and Turnbull Plaza developed what? Correct ans - "mirror psychotherapy" for patients with adjustment disorder and depressed mood secondary have having a myocardial infarction.
301. Nightingale's view of the nurse's role Correct ans - The nurse is the provider of fresh-air, light, cleanliness, warmth, quiet, and nutrition.
302. Who was interpersonal therapy (ITP) developed by? Correct ans - Myrna Weismann and Gerald Kerman
303. Amoxapine Correct ans - The active metabolite of clozapine.
304. What does Medicare Part A cover? Correct ans - hospitalizations (for up to 90 days)
305. skilled nursing facility admission (up to 100 days) Hospice (up to 6 months for terminally ill patient) some home health care
306. p-value Correct ans - level of significance. describes probability of a particular result occurring by chance alone.

307. Third generation Antipsychotics list and mechanism of action Correct ans - MOA: partial dopamine receptor agonist and blocks 5HT2A. There are only 3: Result, Graylag, and Ability
308. Second generation antipsychotics mechanism of action Correct ans - Blocks dopamine everywhere, blocks 5HT2A, decreasing side effects of the dopamine blockade.
309. valproic acid (normal/therapeutic level) Correct ans - 50- 120 mcg/mL
310. What does Medicare part B cover? Correct ans - ambulatory practitioner services (outpatient); physical/occupational/speech therapies; medical equipment; diagnostic tests; some preventative care: pap smears, mammograms, influenza and pneumonia vaccines, screenings for diabetes/glaucoma/cardiovascular disease/prostate and colorectal cancer.
311. What does Medicare part 3 cover? Correct ans - optional coverage for beneficiaries who can choose to receive all of their health care services through one of the providers covered under the Medical Advantage Plan.
312. What does Medicare part D cover? Correct ans - Optional coverage for outpatient pharmaceuticals (think D for DRUG).
313. Medical savings account Correct ans - a healthcare reform plan that allows individuals to establish tax-free savings funds to finance their medical care
314. Pharmacokinetics Correct ans - What the body does to the drug. Types include: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion.

315. Cerebellum Correct ans - coordinates balance, posture, movement, memory, impulse control, cognition, language
316. Hippocampus Correct ans - involved in memory and converting short-term memory into long term memory; learning
317. Amygdala Correct ans - regulates basic powerful emotions: fear, rage, sexual desire
318. Bowl by Correct ans - attachment theory: kids who come from parents with highly expressed emotions and unresolved losses tend to develop disorganized attachment characterized by not feeling safe with their caregivers & an inability to feel soothing comfort
319. antagonistic effect Correct ans - drug binds to receptors and activates a biological response
320. inverse agonist Correct ans - drug causes the opposite effect of an agonist
321. partial agonistic effect Correct ans - drug does not fully activate the receptors
322. antagonistic effect Correct ans - drug binds to the receptor but does not activate a biological response.
323. carbamazepine and lamotrigine drug-drug interaction Correct ans - when taken together, carbamazepine will cause an increase in lamotrigine levels in the blood(up to 200% increase)
324. First generation antipsychotics mechanism of action Correct ans - blocks dopamine everywhere.