PMHNP ANCC REVIEW QUESTIONS, Quizzes of Advanced Education

Download PMHNP ANCC REVIEW QUESTIONS and more Quizzes Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! PMHNP ANCC REVIEW QUESTIONS The purpose of the American Nurses Association's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice is to a. Define the role and actions for the NP b. Establish the legal authority for the prescription of psychotropic medications c. Define the legal statutes of the role of the PMHNP d. Define the differences between the physician role and the NP role - A. The ANAs Psych-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice defines the role and actions of the nurse practitioner. D. Information reduces incidence of disease. - Primary prevention care practices are an essential aspect of the PMHNP role. Which of the following is the best example of a primary prevention care strategy for community behavioral health? a. Aftercare program for chronically mentally ill clients recently discharged from the hospital b. Court-ordered counseling for abusive parents c. 24-hour crisis hotlines d. Parenting skills classes for pregnant adolescents The trend in legal rulings on cases involving mental illness over the past 25 years has been to a. Encourage juries to find defendants not guilty by reason of insanity b. Protect the person's freedoms or rights when he or she is committed to a mental hospital c. Place increasing trust in mental health professionals to make good and ethical decisions d. Decrease the "red tape" associated with commitments so that commitments are faster and easier - B. Identifies the trend of ensuring the protection of individual civil liberties for psychiatric clients. Mr. Smithers, an involuntarily hospitalized patient experiencing psychotic symptoms, refuses to take any of his ordered medication because he believes "Jesus Christ told me I am the prophet and must fast for a year." Your actions should be based on your knowledge of which of the following? a. Psychiatric clients cannot refuse treatment b. Psychiatric clients do not always know what is good for them c. Psychiatric clients can refuse treatment d. Psychiatric clients cannot be trusted to make good healthcare decisions and, therefore, the nurse's best clinical judgment should guide actions - C. As with any client, psychiatric clients can refuse treatment unless a legal process resulting in involuntary commitment or mandatory court order for treatment has been obtained. Which of the following statements best reflects the difference between the nurse-client (N-C) relationship and a social relationship? a. In the N-C relationship, the primary focus is on the client and the client's needs. b. Goals in the N-C relationship are deliberately left vague and unspoken so that the client can work on any issue. c. In the N-C relationship, the nurse is solely responsible for making the relationship work. d. In the N-C relationship, there is no place for social interaction. - A. Social relationships are mutual interpersonal relationships in which the needs of both parties are addressed. The N-C relationship is most concerned with meeting the needs of the client. A community has an unusually high incidence of depression and drug use among the teenage population. The public health nurses decide to address this problem, in part, by modifying the environment and strengthening the capacities of families to prevent the development of new cases of depression and drug use. What is this is an example of? a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Protective factorial prevention - A. This action focuses on interventions designed to reduce the incidence of new cases of disease. Mrs. Kemp is voluntarily admitted to the hospital. After 24 hours, she states she wishes to leave because "this place can't help me." The best nursing action that reflects the legal right of this client is a. Discharge the client b. Explain that the client cannot leave until you can complete further assessment c. Allow the client to leave but have her sign forms stating she is leaving against medical advice d. Immediately start the paperwork to commit the client and to allow you to treat her against her wishes - B. Almost every state allows for a brief for a period detainment to assess a client for dangerousness to self or others before allowing the client to leave a hospital setting, even if the admission was voluntary. a. To alert us to harm and danger b. To alert us to problems c. Used to resolve a conflict d. Used to protect the id - C. Defense mechanisms are a function of the ego used to resolve a conflict. One of the health care changes that has occurred as a result of the affordable care act (ACA) is that doctors/hospitals/clinic groups or health systems are coming together and assuming the responsibility for quality care to large groups of individuals insured by Medicare. The health care clinics/systems doctors or hospitals that join together are called which of the following? a. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) b. Preferred Provider Network (PPO) c. Accountable Care Organization (ACO) d. Individual Health Plan (IHP) - C. ACO's are groups of doctors or other health care providers who voluntarily come together and assume the care provided to Medicare patients. Health care economics is concerned with making decisions so the benefits outweigh the cost of resource utilization. What are two concepts that healthcare economics is concerned with in regard to fair distribution of resources and allocation? a. Equity and efficiency b. Cost and benefits c. Opportunity and waste d. Affordable and quality - A. Health care efficiency is making risk and benefit decision about how care resources are allocated and equity is ensuring that there is a fair distribution of the resources. What four elements need to be present for a malpractice lawsuit to be filed? a. Beneficence, Non-Maleficence, Truthfulness, and Justice b. Duty of care, Breach of standard of care, Injury, and Injury must be related to breach of the standard of care c. Abandonment, Breach of care, Violation of ethics, and Reimbursement for poor care d. Breach of standard of care, Injury, Deceit, and Malpractice - B. The four elements that must be satisfied for malpractice to have occurred are a duty of care between clinician and patient, breach of standard of care, an injury to the patient, and the patient's injury must be related to the clinician's breach of care. Mary is a Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) who is working in a hospitalist role. Mary has encountered over five incidences in which attending psychiatrists and medical residents have been demeaning to nursing staff and not answering calls in the middle of the night or telling the nursing staff to write orders and the MD would sign off in the a.m. Mary is concerned about errors and wants to improve quality, reduce errors to promote safety. What concept is Mary employing? a. Bullying b. Abuse c. Civil Disobedience d. Just Culture - D. The ANA has a position statement that nurses are responsible for developing health care settings that include just culture initiatives understanding that human error can cause error and harm by creating an open and fair environment. The role of neurotransmitters in the central nervous system is to function as a. A communication medium b. A gatekeeper for transmissions c. A building block for amino acids d. An agent to break down enzymes - A. Neurotransmitters in the central nervous system function as a communication medium. Serotonin is produced in which of the following locations: a. Locus ceruleus b. Nucleus basalis c. Raphe nuclei d. Substantia nigra - C. Serotonin is produced in the raphe nuclei. Dopamine is produced in which of the following locations: a. Locus ceruleus b. Nucleus basalis c. Raphe nuclei d. Substantia nigra - D. Dopamine is produced in the substantia nigra. A client presents with complaints of changes in appetite, feeling fatigued, problems with sleep-rest cycle, and changes in libido. What is the neuroanatomical area of the brain that is responsible for the normal regulation of these functions? a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Limbic system d. Hippocampus - B. Appetite, sleep, and libido are regulated by the hypothalamus. In considering whether to order an MRI of the head for a client, which of the following would be a contraindication to this diagnostic test? a. Prosthetic limb b. History of head trauma c. Pacemaker d. Pregnancy - C. A client with a pacemaker should not receive an MRI of the head. The primary excitatory neurotransmitter is a. GABA b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Glutamate - D. Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter. A client who is experiencing difficulties with working memory, planning and prioritizing, insight into his problems, and impulse control presents for assessment. In planning his care, the PMHNP should apply his or her knowledge that these symptoms represent problems with the a. Frontal lobe b. Temporal lobe c. Parietal lobe d. Occipital lobe - A. Problems with working memory, planning and prioritizing, insight into problems, and impulse control indicate a problem in the frontal lobe. d. Remain silent - B. This response is the most therapeutic, allowing the client to further clarify and express feelings. Mrs. Shea has come to the mental health center seeking treatment for depression. She has a history of a suicide attempt by overdose 1 month ago. She was started on imipramine (tricyclic antidepressant [TCA]) after that event but stopped taking the medication 1 week later because it "did no good." The PMHNP meets with Mrs. Shea to plan care with her. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action? a. Asking Mrs. Shea how to help her b. Providing client teaching about the long time frame for TCAs to work c. Contracting with Mrs. Shea for 6 sessions of individual therapy d. Providing Mrs. Shea with feedback about how suicide might affect her family - A. Asking the client how to help is an aspect of assessment—all other answers are aspects of interventions, which are not initial actions of the PMHNP. In completing the PMHNP assessment for the Mrs. Shea, the most appropriate lab test for the PMHNP to order at this time is a. CBC b. TSH c. Liver function tests d. Electrolyte panel - C. Client overdosed and then was placed on a medication that affects the liver. The PMHNP needs to assess the client's liver function as an aspect of care planning for her. A client comes into the clinic with a longstanding history of depression and chronic renal failure. He is on an antidepressant and a diuretic and complains of increased depression, mild confusion, irritability, and overall apathy from being too tired to do anything. The best initial PMHNP action to take at this time is a. Increase his dose of antidepressant medication to better capture symptoms b. Change him to another antidepressant for better symptom control c. Augment his antidepressant with an atypical antipsychotic medication d. Order a comprehensive metabolic panel - D. Client symptoms are consistent with electrolyte imbalance and a physical cause of his symptoms must be ruled out first. Sarah presents for her initial intake appointment with complaints of depression. She is being treated for hypertension and asthma by her primary care provider. Knowing that certain medications can cause or exacerbate depression, you obtain a complete medication history. Which of the following medications is known to exacerbate or cause depression? a. Omeprazole b. Propranolol c. Levothyroxine d. Clarithromycin - B. Beta blockers can cause or exacerbate depression. When treating older adults, you should keep in mind that they are more sensitive to issues of drug toxicity because of which of the following reasons? a. Decreased body fat b. Increased liver capacity c. Decreased protein binding d. Increased muscle concentration - C. Older adults usually have decreased protein levels. Most psychotropic medications are highly protein-bound. It is the unbound (free) concentration of the drug that is active; the bound concentration of the drug is inert. Thus, with decreased protein available for binding, more free (active) drug remains in the body, which then predisposes older adults to toxicity. Which known teratogenic effects can be caused by the common psychotropic medications divalproex and lithium? a. Divalproex—Epstein anomaly; lithium—cleft palate b. Divalproex—spina bifida; lithium—Epstein anomaly c. Divalproex—limb malformations; lithium—seizure disorder d. Divalproex—mental retardation; lithium—spina bifida - B. Divalproex can cause spina bifida and lithium can cause Epstein's anomaly. The study of what the body does to drugs is called a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacology c. Pharmacokinetics d. Distribution - C. Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to drugs. Your client Sam is being treated for panic disorder with agoraphobia. He currently is being prescribed paroxetine (Paxil CR, 37.5 mg q.d.) and clonazepam (Klonopin, 0.5 mg q.d., p.r.n.). He has been on clonazepam for 2 years and admits to needing 4 pills to achieve the same effect that 1 pill initially produced. This is possibly an example of which process? a. Kindling b. Addiction c. Tolerance d. Potency - C. Tolerance means needing more to achieve the same effect. Why is group therapy beneficial? a. It assists the client to focus on self b. It lacks theoretical frameworks c. It enables participants to acquire therapeutic factors d. It is always time limited - D. Group therapy is beneficial because it increases social skills, is cost- effective, and enables participants to acquire the curative factors. Which of the following is the best rationale for using cognitive behavioral therapy? a. Recognize and change his or her automatic thoughts b. See reality as you see it c. Change his or her reality by changing his or her environment d. Recognize and accept that automatic thoughts suggest delusional thinking - A. Cognitive behavioral therapy helps clients recognize and change their automatic thoughts. When working with a dysfunctional family, you find that the father, Jim, worries excessively and is resistant to change. You give Jim a paradoxical directive to worry extremely well for 1 hour per day, knowing that he will likely be noncompliant, and thus change will occur. With this technique, you are using which type of therapy? a. Experiential therapy b. Structural therapy c. Strategic therapy Jason misses several appointments. The PMHNP notes she feels resentful toward Jason and is struggling with how to respond to Jason when he finally comes in for his appointment. Which of the following demonstrates a therapeutic response? a. "Jason, since you have missed several appointments, we are closing your case." b. "Jason, it's pretty clear to me that you don't want to be here." c. "Jason, you are ambivalent about seeking treatment." d. "Jason, help me understand what's going on so we can figure out how to proceed." - D. Although the PMHNP's resentment is in response to actual behavior by Jason (his missing several appointments), clarifiying what is going on for him, his expectations for treatment and the PMHNP's (and the clinic's) expectations in a non-judgemental manner will help to develop a therapeutic alliance. Which is true about pharmacologic treatment of anxiety in older adults? a. Course of treatment is generally shorter than for younger adults. b. Drugs that are highly oxidized are more unpredictable than drugs that are mostly conjugated. c. The therapeutic dose of SSRIs is generally lower than for young adults. d. Highly lipophilic drugs have a more linear elimination in older adults. - B. Liver enzyme functioning (among other things) diminishes as we age. All of the other statements are false. A client returns for a follow-up appointment 3 weeks after starting on fluoxetine 20 mg. During this appointment you notice that her speech is a little rapid, in marked contrast to the psychomotor retardation and paucity of spontaneous speech she displayed on her first visit. Instead of looking at the floor, she now makes normal eye contact. Her affect has gone from constricted to expansive. She continues to have difficulty sleeping, but her energy has improved and she states she feels "so much better!" What should you conclude about the shift in the client's presentation? a. She is experiencing the activating side effects of fluoxetine. b. She is becoming euthymic. c. She is becoming hypomanic. d. She is in a mixed state. - C. In this case, you see a shifting set of symptoms, the most important being her expansive mood and statement "so much better" that indicates she has gone beyond euthymia. Mr. D. is a 35-year-old, married, high-tech industry executive who is referred to the PMHNP for "insomnia." Mr. D. reports that he falls asleep quickly, but has difficulty staying asleep. He wakes up several times during the night, and believes he tosses and turns even when he is sleeping. He wakes up feeling exhausted and drinks "a pot of coffee" to stay awake and concentrate during his long work day. He drinks 1 glass of wine most evenings. He denies any illicit substance use. He denies any symptoms of a mood or anxiety disorder, but is feeling increasingly frustrated and concerned about his sleep. Which of the following is the most likely contributing factor to Mr. D.'s ongoing middle insomnia? a. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) b. Caffeine dependence c. Alcohol withdrawal d. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - A. OSA is the only plausible possibility if the rest of the information given by the client is accurate. OSA causes clients to have frequent awakenings and a sense that they are not sleeping deeply ("tossing and turning") that is caused by apnea. The client should be assessed further for snoring and awareness of apnea. Although the client states he drinks a lot of coffee, this is driven by his sleep issues. Drinking 1 glass of wine in the evening would not cause the degree of sleep pathology he is exhibiting. Other than diminishing concentration that is consistent with sleep deprivation, there are no other signs and symptoms of ADHD. Tina is a 54-year-old single white woman who has been a Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner for over 20 years. She is considering making application to a Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) program but states "if a DNP is required to practice I'll get grandfathered in, no need for me to go back to school." Following the 2008 License, Accreditation, Certification, and Education (LACE) Consensus Model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Regulation, which statement is correct? a. Tina is correct: if the DNP becomes a requirement, she will be grandfathered in and obtain a DNP degree. b. The DNP is an academic terminal degree and there will not be an opportunity for Tina to be grandfathered in a DNP. c. Tina will be grandfathered in and obtain a DNP only if her state requires a DNP to practice as an APRN. d. The DNP is a certification and Tina will have to take an examination to be grandfathered in to obtain a DN - B. APRNs are not grandfathered into an academic degree; degrees must be earned from accredited academic institutions. Tim is a board-certified Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) working in a busy community mental health center (CMHC). He is currently seeing a client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder who has comorbid hypertension and diabetes. During the visit, Tim takes the client's blood pressure and her reading is 160/94 mm Hg. The client denies any headaches, nausea, chest pain, or shortness of breath. The client states "I can't afford all these medications so I haven't seen my doctor in 7 months and I am out of all my blood pressure and sugar medications, can you give me some?" What is Tim's most appropriate action? a. Call the pharmacy to find out what medications the client is taking and refill for 1 month to cover until she can get in to see his primary care provider. b. Tell the client he cannot refill her medications and inform her to go to the emergency room should she develop any signs or symptoms of an - C. It is not within the scope of practice of a PMHNP to treat hypertension. Coordination of care to ensure the client does not run out of medication is the appropriate course of action. The chief nursing officer of a large behavioral health system approached the PMHNP to discuss the new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) behavioral health measures and specifications. The PMHNP is asked to do a retrospective chart review of all hospital discharge clients who received a follow-up visit within 7 days of discharge and within 30 days of discharge. The PMHNP has been asked to engage in which of the following? a. Needs assessment project b. Plan, do, study, act project c. A task that is outside of the PMHNP's scope of practice d. Quality improvement initiativ - D. Engaging in a project to assess whether a standard of care was met is a quality improvement project. A PMHNP who is working on the consult liaison service is referred to a patient in the medical intensive care unit by the attending hospitalist. The consult note read "Evaluate the patient for competency to make independent medical decisions and consent for a surgical procedure." Based on the scope of practice of a PMHNP, which response would be most appropriate? a. Complete the patient assessment and write up the findings in the patient's medical record. b. Complete a patient assessment, including the mini mental status examination and family collateral data to determine competency. c. Call the hospitalist and provide education that competency is a legal concept and explain that you can assess the patient for the capacity to make medical decisions. b. "While the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends the vaccine, every parent has the right to choose and if you do not think Tim needs this vaccine, as his parent yo - A. When family members or clients ask questions about illnesses and treatment, it is the PMHNP's responsibility to provide data and then assess understanding and meaning. As a PMHNP working in a crisis evaluation center, you are aware that the initial focus of a crisis assessment is on which of the following? a. Client's past diagnosis and medication trials b. Psychosocial history and supports c. Safety of the client and others d. Current living situation and coping skil - C. In a crisis, the first assessment should be safety of the client and those near the client. When conducting a neurological examination on a client, the PMHNP asks the client to hold out her arms and stick out her tongue while assessing for tremors. Which cranial nerve is being assessed? a. Glossopharyngeal b. Vagus c. Trigeminal d. Hypoglossal - D. The tongue is controlled by the hypoglossal cranial nerve. A 20-year-old Asian man who was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia comes to your office for a follow-up appointment. During the assessment, he talks about his experience in the group home, thinking that the television is sending him messages through news anchors during the 10 p.m. evening news. What symptom is the client describing? a. Paranoia b. Illusions c. Ideas of reference d. Neologisms - C. Ideas of reference are misinterpretations of incidents and events that one believes have a direct personal reference to oneself. You are working with a family: mother, father, and two biological children. Sam, the father, is very rigid and controlling, which seems to be out of fear that something might happen to his family. He worries daily and it affects his family relationships. You give Sam a paradoxical directive and instruct him to intensely worry about everything he can think of for 1 hour a day. Using a paradoxical directive is part of which therapy? a. Experimental b. Structural c. Strategic d. Cognitive - C. Paradoxical directives may be used in strategic family therapy. As a PMHNP working in an outpatient addiction clinic, you often refer your clients to community AA and NA meetings. Using Yalom's therapeutic factors, you are aware that peer-led groups can inspire and encourage other group participants. Which therapeutic factor is instilled in AA and NA group members? a. Hope b. Altruism c. Catharsis d. Existential factors - A. Working in support groups such as AA and NA, hearing stories of others who had similar struggles, instills hope. Which of the following client statements best describes imitative behavior as a therapeutic factor in group therapy? a. Group members talk over one another so the loudest person is heard b. Group members begin to model aspects of other members of the group and group leaders c. Group members discuss past situations when they were bullied and felt ashamed d. Group leaders take charge of the group and redirect members when they monopolize the group - B. As group progresses the leader is less active and the members of the group take over and begin to model other members and the leaders. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) draws on cognitive theory and behavioral theory, along with other theories. Elements of behavioral theory in DBT include which of the following? a. Skills training and exposure b. Examination of feelings and relating feelings to visceral sensations c. Working through the transference with the therapist d. Cognitive interpretation of past traumatic experiences - A. DBT focuses on cognitive and behavioral techniques, mindfulness including meditation, and emotional regulation. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) affirms dialectical thinking, which involves examining and discussing opposing ideas to find the truth. This philosophy is a supportive principle of DBT training. The central dialectical pattern emphasized in DBT involves the tension between: a. Radical acceptance and change b. Cue exposure and block avoidance c. Problem avoidance and problem-solving d. Crisis survival and acceptance - A. DBT emphasis acceptance of the current reality of what is and the ability to engage in personal change. Samantha is a 26-year-old partnered woman who works full time as a teacher. She is in a long-term relationship with Mary and they are getting along well, and doing well financially. They have two children, ages 2 and 6. Samantha is seeing the PMHNP to address her concerns that she is feeling down and sad for no reason and states, "I know my life is going well but I just don't feel happy. I have always worried a lot and have been sad most of my life." As a PMHNP trained in transactional analysis (TA), you understand that personality is multifaceted and wonder if which of the following is affecting her ability to experience happiness: a. She had long periods of separation from her primary caregiver as a child and now has a difficult time accepting and receiving love and experiencing happiness b. She likely had a traumatic event in her childhood and her thoughts and feelings related to the event are locked together in h - B. According to TA, when a person is traumatized the thoughts and feelings get tied together and the process of therapy is to unlock the two. You have been working with a 54-year-old man who has been treated for schizophrenia since age 19. He has limited social interactions, likes to be alone, and has never dated nor had a desire to date. His symptoms are best explained by which of the following? a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Lack of personal hygiene c. Negative symptoms d. Positive symptoms - C. Negative symptoms include flat affect, alogia, avolition, poor attention, and anhedonia. In the case study, the symptoms are avolition and anhedonia. a. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors b. Symptom-targeted pharmacologic treatments c. Nonpharmacologic supportive care d. Antiretroviral therapy - D. All persons with AIDS should be treated with antiretroviral therapy. Those who develop dementia complex should have those symptoms treated with appropriate pharmacological or nonpharmacological interventions. As a PMHNP working on the consult liaison team, you know the importance of preventing delirium due to which of the following? a. Risk of 1-year mortality rate b. Risk of harm to the client and staff c. Risk of unremitting psychosis d. Risk of aspiration - A. Studies have identified high rates of mortality post hospitalization for delirium so the best treatment is prevention. When working with a 26-year-old, Mike, who presents for treatment of cannabis use and gambling, you use motivational interviewing techniques. As a PMHNP, you are familiar with the core counseling skills used in motivational interviewing. Mike made the following statement: "I don't know why I came here in the first place but I thought maybe some medication would help me." You respond by saying, "You're feeling confused about the process" and Mike replies, "I never thought I'd need to come to a place like this." You respond, "You kept your appointment today and I appreciate the courage it took for you to come here." What two motivational interviewing techniques are used in this interaction? a. Interrupting and reassurance b. Affirming and reflecting c. Open-ended questions and summarizing d. Clarification and data collection - B. When a person is in contemplation stage, interventions should be affirming and reflecting. You are a PMHNP working in a hospitalist role on an acute inpatient psychiatric unit at a local hospital. As you make rounds, the registered nurse informs you that a 32-year-old client who was admitted for alcohol detox has a score of 17 on the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol. What phase of withdrawal is this client in? a. Mild withdrawal b. Moderate withdrawal c. Severe withdrawal d. Delirium tremens - B. CIWA cut off scores are as follows: 0-9, absent or very mild withdrawal; 10-15, mild withdrawal; 16-20, moderate withdrawal; and 21-67, severe withdrawal. A client who has been addicted to opioids has not used in 15 days. During your medication management visit, the client states, "I'm going to die from not having my Opanas. You need to give me something now." The PMHNP's best response is: a. "I know you are feeling very uncomfortable and we need to get you to the emergency room immediately to prevent a seizure." b. "I know you are feeling very uncomfortable, let's take your vital signs and talk about a trial on Catapres to treat your withdrawal symptoms." c. "You have been using Opana for a long time and it is going to take several months for the withdrawal to end. In the meantime, I will see you weekly." d. "There is no treatment for opioid withdrawal; you will have to wait it out." - B. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can be treated with central alpha agonists. Signs and symptoms of cannabis intoxication include: a. Increase sensitivity to external stimuli b. Enhanced motor skills c. Fast passage of time d. Lower heart rate - A. Persons intoxicated on cannabis exhibit distorted perceptions, increase relaxation and sensitivity, and loss of coordination. Which defense mechanisms are commonly used by persons with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? a. Rationalization, isolation, and intellectualization b. Projection, distortion, and hypochondriasis c. Regression, somatization, and dissociation d. Sexualization, displacement, and reaction formation - A. Persons with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder use defense mechanisms of rationalization, isolation of affect, and intellectualization to make sense of their behavior. You have been working with Cody, a 30-year-old single man, in weekly individual psychotherapy for 3 weeks. At the start of session 4 he says, "I noticed when I came in that your usual parking spot has a new car in it with temporary tags, and it's a BMW. Nice car." What is the best response from the PMHNP psychotherapist to Cody? a. "Thanks for noticing, it is a nice car." b. "How do you know what spot I park in?" c. "I noticed you drive a BMW as well, how do you like your car?" d. "Sounds like having expensive things is important to you." - D. In a therapy relationship, the therapist should try to understand the meaning of a client's statement rather than engage in social conversations. When working in individual psychotherapy with a client who has a personality disorder, what are the primary treatment goals? a. Change the client's personality structure and make him or her more adaptable in everyday life. b. Reparent the client, following Bowlby's theoretical framework. c. Allow the client to reprocess his or her childhood trauma because all clients with personality disorders have a history of severe abuse. d. Assist the client in changing dysfunctional interpersonal relationships and use of immature defense mechanisms. - D. Persons with personality disorders have a pervasive maladaptive pattern of behavior and the goal of therapy is to slowly shift how they relate in the world and begin to use higher-order defenses. For a client who has paranoid personality disorder, what are the best treatment strategies? a. Confront negative and misinterpreted thoughts and feelings. b. Deflate grandiose thoughts. c. Engage the client in detailed and emotional responses and dialog. d. Do not challenge negative views or recollections of events. - D. Persons with fixed false beliefs should not be challenged. John, a client with paranoid personality disorder, states the following: "I noticed there is a red light in the upper corner of your door and it has been going on and off during our sessions. Are you recording me?" What is the PMHNP best response? a. "No, it would be illegal for me to record you, and that is not a camera it's just a red light."