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Healthcare Professionals Roles and Exercises for Older Adults and HIV Patients, Exams of Nursing

Various healthcare professionals' roles and exercises for older adults and hiv patients. It covers topics such as gait exercises for occupational therapists, assistive devices for physical therapists, swallowing disorder treatment for speech and language therapists, and medication ordering for case managers. Additionally, it includes caloric intake recommendations, opportunistic infections, metabolic rate diseases, and constipation relief during pregnancy. Furthermore, it addresses positioning during deep breathing and coughing, performance improvement activities, practical nursing licensure vs. Certification, and interventions for clients.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 02/14/2024

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Download Healthcare Professionals Roles and Exercises for Older Adults and HIV Patients and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1. Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member. a. Occupational therapist: Gait exercises b. Physical therapist: The provision of assistive devices to facilitate the activities of daily living c. Speech and language therapist: The treatment of swallowing disorders d. Case manager: Ordering medications and treatments 2. The recommended daily caloric intake for sedentary older men, active adult women and children is a. 2400 calories b. 1600 calories c. 2800 calories d. 2000 calories 3. Select all the possible opportunistic infections that adversely affect HIV/AIDS infected patients. a. Visual losses b. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Wilms’ sarcoma d. Tuberculosis e. Peripheral neuropathy f. Toxoplasma gondii 4. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function? a. Carotid b. Brachial c. Pedal d. Radial 5. Which disease decreases metabolic rate? a. Cancer b. Hypothyroidism c. COPD d. Cardiac failure 6. The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing because this position: a. Is physically more comfortable for the patient b. Helps the patient to support their incision with a pillow c. Loosens respiratory secretions d. Allows the patient to observe their area and relax 7. Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply. a. Intramuscular medication administration b. Central line intravenous medication administration c. Donning gloves in the operating room d. Neonatal bathing e. Foley catheter insertion f. Emptying a urinary drainage bag 8. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities? a. To increase efficiency b. To contain costs c. To improve processes d. To improve policies 9. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is: a. Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience. b. Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not. c. Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not. d. Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years. 10. What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy? a. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables b. Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative c. Lying flat on back when sleeping d. Reduction of iron intake by half or more 11. If a male client experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) that damaged the hypothalamus, the nurse anticipate that the client has problems with: a. Body temperature control. b. Balance and equilibrium c. Visual acuity d. Thinking and reasoning b. A recent driving accident while changing lanes c. Headaches, nausea, and redness of the eyes d. Frequent episodes of double vision 28. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with Parkinson’s crisis? a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b. Ineffective airway clearance c. Impaired urinary elimination d. Risk for injury 29. To encourage adequate nutritional intake for a female client with Alzheimer’s disease, the nurse should: a. Stay with the client and encourage him to eat b. Help the client fill out his menu c. Give the client privacy during meals d. Fill out the menu for the client 30. The nurse is performing a mental status examination on a male client diagnosed with subdural hematoma. This test assesses which of the following? a. Cerebellar function b. Intellectual function c. Cerebral function d. Sensory function 31. Shortly after admission to an acute care facility, a male client with a seizure disorder develop status epilepticus. The physician orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg I.V. stat. How soon can the nurse administer a second dose of diazepam, if needed and prescribed? a. In 30 to 45 seconds b. In 10 to 15 minutes c. In 30 to 45 minutes d. In 1 to 2 hours 32. The nurse is caring for a patient with cervical cancer. The nurse notes that the radium implant has become dislodged. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? a. Stay with the patient and contact the radiology b. Wrap the implant in a blanket and place it behind the lead shield c. Obtain a dosimeter reading on the patient and report it to the physician d. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container 33. The nurse has reviewed the charts of four antepartum women. Which woman is at greater risk for having a child with a cleft lip and palate? a. A 22 year old oriental woman who is having a girl b. A 25 year old native American female who is having a boy c. A 35 year old African American woman who is having a boy d. A 40 year old Caucasian who is having a girl 34. A 22-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the clinic nurse that her child has been asking questions “about sex.” The client asks the nurse what she should tell her 5-year-old son. Which of the following statements, if made by the nurse, is BEST? a. “Answer your son’s questions in a matter-of-fact manner, in words that he will understand.” b. “Buy a book about sex designed for young children and read it with your son.” c. “Tell your son that this subject is complicated, and you will discuss it with him as he gets older.” d. “Have your son touch your abdomen and tell him about your pregnancy.” 35. The nurse is observing a LPN/LVN administer iron dextran (DexFerrum) IM. It is MOST important for the nurse to give which of the following instructions? a. “Massage the injection site for one minute after the injection of the medicine.” b. “Tap out the air bubble prior to administering the medication.” c. “Release the skin prior to withdrawing the needle.” d. “Change the needle after drawing up the medication.” 36. A nurse is caring for clients in the mental health clinic. A women comes to the clinic complaining of insomnia and anorexia. The patient tearfully tells the nurse that she was laid off from a job that she had held for 15 years. Which of the following responses, if made by the nurse, is MOST appropriate? a. “Did your company give you a severance package?” b. “focus on the fact that you have a c. “Losing a job is common nowadays.” d. “Tell me what happened.” 37. The nurse is teaching a 45-year-old woman how to increase the potassium in her diet. The woman says she knows bananas are high in potassium, but she doesn’t like their taste. What foods should the nurse recommend the client include in her diet? a. Potatoes, spinach, raisins b. Rhubarb, tofu, celery c. Carrots, broccoli, yogurt d. Onions, corn, oatmeal 38. A 68-year-old woman diagnosed with thrombocytopenia due to acute lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should assign the patient a. To a private room so she will not infect other patients and health care workers. b. To private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers c. To a semiprivate room so she will have stimulation during her hospitalization d. To a semiprivate room so she will have the opportunity to express her feelings about her illness. 39. The nurse cares for a 46-year-old woman after a traditional cholecystectomy. The patient has a nasogastric tube connected to suction, an IV of D5W infusing into her right arm, and a T-tube and Penrose drain in place. The nurse would be MOST concerned by which of the following findings? a. The systolic blood pressure is 10 mmHg, lower than it was preoperatively b. There is 250 cc of bloody drainage from the t-tube during the first 24 hrs. c. There is 30 cc of Serosanguineous drainage in the Penrose drain during the first 24 hrs. d. The patient experiences a 4 degree temperature elevation the evening after surgery 40. Alcohol, caffeine or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors? a. Social demographic b. Environmental c. Biophysical d. Psychosocial 41. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occurs at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of: a. 1 in 85 births b. 1 in 5400 births c. 1 in 2700 births d. 1 in 540 births 42. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortions? a. Inevitable b. Missed c. Habitual 43. The nurse has received in report that the client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which of the following does the nurse plan to implement? Select all that apply. a. Assess for fever b. Observe for bleeding c. Administer Neulasta d. Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room e. Do not allow his 16 year old son to visit f. Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from his diet. 44. Which of the following findings would alarm the nurse when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who has a platelet count of 17,000/mm3 a. Increasing shortness of breath b. Diminished bilateral breath sounds c. Change in mental status d. Weight gain of 4 pounds in 1 day 45. A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an anti-metabolite drug. Anti-metabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cells. The mechanism of action of anti-metabolites interferes with: a. Cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle b. Normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle c. The chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (Cell cycle-nonspecific). d. One or more stage of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle-nonspecific) 46. The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for? a. Actinic b. Asymmetry c. Arcus d. Assessment 47. When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parental lobe, the nurse expects to assess: a. Short-term memory impairment b. Tactile agnosia c. Seizures d. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia 48. A female client is undergoing tests for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple myeloma include: a. A decreased serum creatinine level b. Hypocalcemia c. Bence Jones protein in the urine d. A low serum protein level