PNUR 124 QUIZLET QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2023-2024 UPDATE FOR A RESULTS, Exams of Nursing

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PNUR 124 QUIZLET QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED

SOLUTIONS 2023-2024 UPDATE FOR A RESULTS

Week 10: Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances

1. The nurse is caring for a client with deficient fluid volume caused by a massive burn injury. Which of the following assessment data will be of greatest concern to the nurse? a. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. b. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the last 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum. 2. The nurse is caring for a client recently admitted with small cell carcinoma of the lung and the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following assessments should the nurse carefully monitor? a. Increased total urinary output b. Elevation of serum hematocrit c. Decreased serum sodium level d. Rapid and unexpected weight loss 3. The nurse is evaluating the fluid balance for a client admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which of the following assessments is the most accurate to evaluate volume status in this client? a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Presence of edema d. Hourly urine output 4. The nurse is caring for an alert and oriented older-adult client with a history of dehydration. Which of the following information should the home health nurse teach the client as to when to increase fluid intake? a. In the late evening hours b. If the oral mucosa feels dry c. When the client feels thirsty d. As soon as changes in level of consciousness (LOC) occur 5. The nurse is caring for a client who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension. Which of the following assessment data would the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Personality changes b. Frequent loose stools c. Facial muscle spasms d. Lower extremity weakness 6. The nurse is teaching a client about spironolactone as a diuretic. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. "I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day." b. "I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake."

c. "I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods." d. "I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast."

7. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with hyponatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate implementing? a. Restrict client's oral free water intake. b. Avoid use of electrolyte-containing drinks. c. Infuse a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline. d. Administer vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH). 8. The nurse is caring for a client with severe hypokalemia and is preparing to administer intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) 40 mmol as prescribed by the health care provider. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 20 mEq/hour. c. Give the KCl only through a central venous line. d. Add no more than 40 mEq/L to a litre of IV fluid. 9. The nurse is caring for a client who has required prolonged mechanical ventilation and has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mmol/L. Which of the following interpretations would the nurse document? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis 10. The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis and has rapid, deep respirations. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement? a. Notify the client's health care provider. b. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam. c. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2-4 L/min. d. Encourage the client to take deep, slow breaths. 11. The home health nurse is visiting an older-adult client who has a low serum protein level. Which of the following assessment areas should the nurse assess? a. Pallor b. Edema c. Confusion d. Restlessness 12. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. During administration of the solution, which of the following assessments is a priority for the nurse to monitor? a. Lung sounds b. Urinary output c. Peripheral pulses d. Peripheral edema

13. The nurse is caring for a client who has a low serum total protein level and is taking protein supplements. Which of the following data indicate that the client's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Good skin turgor c. Absence of peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg 14. The nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mmol/L. Which of the following interpretations would the nurse document? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis 15. The nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving diuretic therapy and is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mmol/L. Of the following medications that the client has been taking at home, which of the following would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Oral digoxin 0.25 mg daily b. Ibuprofen 400 mg every 6 hours c. Metoprolol 12.5 mg orally daily d. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening 16. The nurse is caring for a client with hypercalcemia. Which of the following actions would be included in the client's nursing care plan? a. Maintain the client on bed rest. b. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours. c. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. d. Encourage fluid intake up to 3 000 mL every day. 17. The nurse is teaching a client with renal failure about a low phosphate diet. Which of the following foods would the nurse teach the client to restrict? a. Dairy products b. High-fat foods c. Fruits and juices d. Green, leafy vegetables 18. The nurse is caring for a client in the outpatient clinic who has a decreased serum magnesium level. Which of the following assessment areas should the nurse include in the health history? a. Daily alcohol intake b. Intake of dietary protein c. Multivitamin/mineral use d. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives

19. The nurse is preparing a client for an intravenous infusion of 50% dextrose and the client asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter must be inserted. Which of the following explanations is the basis for the nurse's response? a. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the client has a central line. b. There is a decreased risk for infection when 50% dextrose is infused through a central line. c. The 50% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. d. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. 20. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings who has developed nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia. Which of the following laboratory results is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. K+ 3.4 mmol/L b. Ca+2 1.95 mmol/L c. Na+ 128 mmol/L d. PO4-3 1.55 mmol/L 21. The nurse is assessing a client with increased extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality. Which of the following assessment areas is the priority assessment for the nurse to obtain? a. Skin turgor b. Heart sounds c. Mental status d. Capillary refill 22. The nurse is caring for a client with a CVAD who suddenly develops chest pain, hypotension, and tachycardia. Which of the following positions should the nurse immediately put the client in? a. Prone b. High Fowler's c. Left lateral with head down d. Sims 23. The nurse is caring for a client postoperative after a thyroidectomy and the client states "I have a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which of the following data is priority for the nurse to assess? a. An elevated serum potassium level b. The presence of Chvostek's sign c. A decreased thyroid hormone level d. Bleeding on the client's dressing 24. The nurse is caring for a client with advanced lung cancer who has been admitted to the emergency department with urinary retention caused by renal calculi. Which of the following laboratory values will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 3.45 mmol/L.

c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mmol/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

25. The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a pregnant client with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulphate. Which of the following findings is most important to report to the health care provider immediately? a. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased. b. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent. c. The client has been sleeping most of the day. d. The client reports feeling "sick to my stomach." 26. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The client's serum sodium level is 123 mmol/L. Which of the following prescribed therapies would the nurse question? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hour. b. Administer IV morphine sulphate 4 mg every 4 hours PRN. c. Give IV metoclopramide 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea. d. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium drops to less than 128 mmol/L. Week 11: Diabetes 1. The nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus who asks the nurse what "type 2" means in relation to diabetes. Which of the following statements by the nurse about type 2 diabetes is correct? a. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in clients with type 2 diabetes. b. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes. c. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when the client is admitted with a hyperglycemic coma. d. Changes in diet and exercise may be sufficient to control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes. 2. The nurse is assessing a client for diabetes at a clinic who has a fasting plasma glucose level of 6. mmol/L. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Self-monitoring of blood glucose. b. Use of low doses of regular insulin. c. Lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose. d. Effects of oral hypoglycemic medications. 3. Which of the following actions by a client with type 1 diabetes indicates that the nurse should implement teaching about exercise and glucose control? a. The client always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise. b. The client goes for a vigorous walk when the glucose is 11.1 mmol/L. c. The client has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride. d. The client increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine. 4. The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing the onset of symptoms of type 1 diabetes. Which of the following questions is best for the nurse to ask? a. "Have you lost any weight lately?" b. "How long have you felt anorexic?"

c. "Is your urine unusually dark coloured?" d. "Do you crave fluids containing sugar?"

5. To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for a client with type 2 diabetes who is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic, which of the following tests will the nurse plan to schedule for the client? a. Urine dipstick for glucose b. Oral glucose tolerance test c. Fasting blood glucose level d. Glycosylated hemoglobin level 6. The nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements. Which of the following client goals is most important? a. The client will have a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. b. The client will have a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss. c. The client will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day. d. The client will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet. 7. A client who has type 1 diabetes plans to take a swimming class daily at 1:00 P.M. Which of the following instructions should the nurse teach to the client? a. Check glucose level before, during, and after swimming. b. Delay eating the noon meal until after the swimming class. c. Increase the morning dose of neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. d. Time the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming. 8. The nurse is caring for a client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes who has received diet instruction. Which of the following client statements indicate a need for additional instruction? a. "I may have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan." b. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin." c. "I may eat whatever I want, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories." d. "I will eat meals as scheduled, even if I am not hungry, to prevent hypoglycemia." 9. Which of the following actions is most important for the nurse to take in order to assist a client with diabetes to engage in moderate daily exercise? a. Remind the client that exercise will improve self-esteem. b. Determine what type of exercise activities the client enjoys. c. Give the client a list of activities that are moderate in intensity. d. Teach the client about the effects of exercise on glucose level. 10. The nurse is teaching the client to administer a dose of 10 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for additional instruction? a. "I need to rotate injection sites among my arms, legs, and abdomen each day." b. "I will buy the 0.5 mL syringes because the line markings will be easier to see." c. "I should draw up the regular insulin first after injecting air into the NPH bottle." d. "I do not need to aspirate the plunger to check for blood before injecting insulin."

11. 11. After the nurse has finished teaching a client about self-administration of the prescribed aspart insulin, which of the following client actions indicate good understanding of the teaching? a. The client avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area. b. The client cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration. c. The client places the insulin back in the freezer after administering the prescribed insulin dose. d. The client pushes the plunger down and immediately removes the syringe from the injection site. 12. The nurse is caring for a client who received aspart insulin at 8:00 A.M. Which of the following times is most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia? a. 9:00 A.M. b. 11:30 A.M. c. 4:00 P.M. d. 8:00 P.M. 13. Which of the following client actions indicate a good understanding of the nurse's teaching about the use of an insulin pump? a. The client changes the site for the insertion site every week. b. The client programs the pump to deliver an insulin bolus after eating. c. The client takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning. d. The client states that diet will be less flexible when using the insulin pump. 14. The nurse is teaching about meal coverage to a client with diabetes who has just started on intensive insulin therapy. Which of the following types of insulin should the nurse discuss with the client? a. Glargine b. Lispro c. Detemir d. NPH 15. Which of the following information should the nurse include when teaching a client who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide? a. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas. b. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. c. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low. d. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media. 16. The nurse has completed teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about taking gliclazide. Which of the following client statements indicate a need for additional teaching? a. "Other medications besides the gliclazide may affect my blood sugar." b. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take just the usual dose of medication." c. "When I become ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "My diabetes is not as likely to cause complications as if I needed to take insulin." 17. A client with type 2 diabetes that is well-controlled with metformin develops an allergic rash to an antibiotic and the health care provider prescribes prednisone. Which of the following information should the nurse anticipate while the client is taking the prednisone?

a. A diet higher in calories b. Administration of insulin c. Development of acute hypoglycemia d. Appearance of a rash caused by metformin-prednisone interactions.

18. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who received 34 units of NPH insulin at 7:00A.M. and is away from the nursing unit, awaiting diagnostic testing when lunch trays are distributed. Which of the following actions is best to prevent hypoglycemia? a. Save the lunch tray to be provided upon the client's return to the unit. b. Call the diagnostic testing area and ask that a 5% dextrose IV be started. c. Ensure that the client drinks a glass of orange juice at noon in the diagnostic testing area. d. Request that the client be returned to the unit to eat lunch if testing will not be completed promptly. 19. The nurse is assessing a client's technique of self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) as part of diabetes management. Which of the following actions indicate a need for further teaching? a. Washes the puncture site using soap and warm water. b. Chooses a puncture site in the centre of the finger pad. c. Hangs the arm down for a minute before puncturing the site. d. Says the result of 6.1 mmol/L indicates good blood sugar control. 20. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first when teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about home management of the disease? a. Ask the client's family to participate in the diabetes education program. b. Assess the client's perception of what it means to have diabetes mellitus. c. Demonstrate how to check glucose using capillary blood glucose monitoring. d. Discuss the need for the client to participate actively in diabetes management. 21. A diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS) is made for a client with type 2 diabetes who is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? a. Give 50% dextrose as a bolus b. Insert a large-bore IV catheter c. Initiate oxygen by nasal cannula d. Administer glargine insulin 22. A client with type 1 diabetes who is on glargine and lispro insulin has called the clinic to report symptoms of a sore throat, cough, fever, and blood glucose level of 11.7 mmol/L. Which of the following information should the nurse tell the client? a. Use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms of infection are resolved. b. Monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. c. Decrease intake of carbohydrates until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. d. Limit intake of calorie-containing liquids until the glucose is less than 6.7 mmol/L. 23. The health care provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a client whose 7:00 A.M. blood glucose is 12.2 mmol/L. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

a. Check the client's blood glucose at 3:00 A.M. b. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin. c. Educate about the need to increase the rapid-acting insulin dose. d. Remind the client about the need to avoid snacking at bedtime.

24. The nurse administers intramuscular glucagon to a client who is unresponsive for treatment of hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after the client regains consciousness? a. Assess the client for symptoms of hyperglycemia. b. Give the client a snack of crackers and peanut butter. c. Have the client drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. d. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours. 25. Which of the following questions by the nurse will help identify autonomic neuropathy in a client with diabetes? a. "Have you observed any recent skin changes?" b. "Do you notice any bloating feeling after eating?" c. "Do you need to increase your insulin dosage when you are stressed?" d. "Have you noticed any painful new ulcerations or sores on your feet?" 26. The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes who has sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs and peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following information will the nurse include in client teaching? a. Choose flat-soled leather shoes. b. Set heating pads on a low temperature. c. Buy callus remover for corns or calluses. d. Soak the feet in warm water for an hour every day. 27. The nurse obtains the following information about a client before administration of metformin. Which of the following findings indicate a need to contact the health care provider before giving the metformin? a. The client's blood glucose level is 9.2 mmol/L. b. The client's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 21.4 mmol/L. c. The client is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour. d. The client has gained 1 kg since yesterday. 28. Amitriptyline is prescribed for a diabetic client who has burning foot pain at night. Which of the following information should the nurse include when teaching the client about the new medication? a. Amitriptyline will decrease the depression caused by your foot pain. b. Amitriptyline will correct some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain. c. Amitriptyline will improve sleep and make you less aware of nighttime pain. d. Amitriptyline will help prevent the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. 29. The nurse is admitting a client with type 2 diabetes for an outpatient coronary arteriogram. Which of the following information obtained by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider before the procedure? a. The client's admission blood glucose is 7.1 mmol/L. b. The client's most recent Hb A1C was 6.5%.

c. The client took the prescribed metformin today. d. The client took the prescribed captopril this morning.

30. The home health nurse is providing teaching to a client and family about how to use glargine and regular insulin safely. Which of the following actions by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful? a. The client administers the glargine 30-45 minutes before eating each meal. b. The client's family fills the syringes weekly and stores them in the refrigerator. c. The client draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe. d. The client disposes of the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks. 31. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes who rides a bicycle to work every day about morning administration of insulin. Which of the following sites should the nurse tell the client to use to administer the morning insulin? a. Arm b. Thigh c. Buttock d. Abdomen 32. Which of the following information about a client who receives rosiglitazone is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider? a. The client's blood pressure is 154/92. b. The client has a history of emphysema. c. The client's noon blood glucose is 4.7 mmol/L. d. The client has chest pressure when ambulating. 33. The nurse is preparing to assess a client who is pregnant and has no personal history of diabetes but does have a parent with diabetes. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take on this initial prenatal visit? a. Teach about appropriate use of regular insulin. b. Discuss the need for a fasting blood glucose level. c. Schedule an oral glucose tolerance test for the twenty-fourth week of pregnancy. d. Provide education about increased risk for fetal problems with gestational diabetes. 34. The nurse is admitting a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) who has a serum potassium level of 2.9 mmol/L. Which of the following actions prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse take first? a. Infuse regular insulin at 20 units/hour. b. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer IV potassium supplements. d. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels 35. The nurse is admitting a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer regular IV insulin 30 units. b. Infuse 1 L of normal saline per hour. c. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push. d. Start an infusion of regular insulin at 50 units/hour.

36. The nurse is assessing a client who is recovering from an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis and the client reports feeling anxious, nervous, and sweaty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously. b. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. c. Have the client drink 120 mL of orange juice. d. Give the scheduled dose of lispro insulin. 37. Which of the following client teaching information is most important for the nurse to communicate to a client with gestational diabetes? a. Delivery will not affect blood glucose levels. b. Exercise should be avoided in the last month of pregnancy. c. Monitoring of blood glucose can stop as soon as the baby is delivered. d. A postpartum OGTT will be done at 2 months. 38. Which of the following laboratory values, noted by the nurse when reviewing the chart of a hospitalized client with diabetes, indicates the need for rapid assessment of the client? a. Hb A1C of 5.8% b. Noon blood glucose of 2.9 mmol/L c. Hb A1Cof 6.9% d. Fasting blood glucose of 7.2 mmol/L 39. Which of the following hormones are considered as counter-regulatory hormones? (Select all that apply.) a. Glucagon b. Insulin c. Epinephrine d. Growth hormone e. Cortisol Week 12: Neurological Disorders 1. A patient with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory insufficiency and severe weakness. When is a diagnosis of cholinergic crisis made? a. The patient's respiration is impaired because of muscle weakness. b. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) increases muscle weakness. c. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) results in improved muscle contractility. d. EMG reveals decreased response to repeated stimulation of muscles. 2. During care of a patient in myasthenic crisis, maintenance of what is the nurse's first priority for the patient? a. Mobility b. Nutrition c. Respiratory function d. Verbal communication 3. When providing care for a patient with ALS, the nurse recognizes what as one of the most distressing problems experienced by the patient? a. Painful spasticity of the face and extremities

b. Retention of cognitive function with total degeneration of motor function c. Uncontrollable writhing and twisting movements of the face, limbs, and body d. Knowledge that there is a 50% chance the disease has been passed to any offspring

4. In providing care for patients with chronic, progressive neurologic disease, what is the major goal of treatment that the nurse works toward? a. Meet the patient's personal care needs. b. Return the patient to normal neurologic function. c. Maximize neurologic functioning for as long as possible. d. Prevent the development of additional chronic diseases. 5. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should a. assess for the presence of chest pain. b. inquire about urinary tract problems. c. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration. d. ask the patient about any increase in libido. 6. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects." d. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy." 7. Which action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder? a. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake. b. Teach the patient how to use the Credé method. c. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only. d. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day. 8. A 73-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to bradykinesia. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting. b. Suggest that the patient rock from side to side to initiate leg movement. c. Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet. d. Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward. 9. The nurse advises a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) to a. perform physically demanding activities early in the day. b. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments. c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy. d. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception. 10. A 64-year-old patient who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

a. Assist with active range of motion (ROM). b. Observe for agitation and paranoia. c. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms. d. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

11. A 76-year-old patient is being treated with carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Shuffling gait b. Tremor at rest c. Cogwheel rigidity of limbs d. Uncontrolled head movement 12. When a 74-year-old patient is seen in the health clinic with new development of a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor, the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. oral corticosteroids. b. antiparkinsonian drugs. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. 13. Which nursing diagnosis is of highest priority for a patient with Parkinson's disease who is unable to move the facial muscles? a. Activity intolerance b. Self-care deficit: toileting c. Ineffective self-health management d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements 14. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make regarding a patient with myasthenia gravis? a. Pupil size b. Grip strength c. Respiratory effort d. Level of consciousness 15. Following a thymectomy, a 62-year-old male patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug. d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone). 16. A patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Which nursing interventions will be included in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Use an elevated toilet seat. b. Cut patient's food into small pieces. c. Provide high-protein foods at each meal.

d. Place an armchair at the patient's bedside. e. Observe for sudden exacerbation of symptoms.

17. During the diagnosis and long-term management of a seizure disorder, what should the nurse recognize as one of the major needs of the patient? a. Managing the complicated drug regimen of seizure control b. Coping with the effects of negative social attitudes toward epilepsy c. Adjusting to the very restricted lifestyle required by a diagnosis of epilepsy d. Learning to minimize the effect of the condition in order to obtain employment 18. A patient at the clinic for a routine health examination mentions that she is exhausted because her legs bother her so much at night that she cannot sleep. The nurse questions the patient further about her leg symptoms with what knowledge about restless legs syndrome? a. The condition can be readily diagnosed with EMG. b. Other more serious nervous system dysfunctions may be present. c. Dopaminergic agents are often effective in managing the symptoms. d. Symptoms can be controlled by vigorous exercise of the legs during the day. 19. A 38-year-old woman has newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks the nurse what is going to happen to her. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "You will have either periods of attacks and remissions or progression of nerve damage over time." b. "You need to plan for a continuous loss of movement, sensory functions, and mental capabilities." c. "You will most likely have a steady course of chronic progressive nerve damage that will change your personality." d. "It is common for people with MS to have an acute attack of weakness and then not to have any other symptoms for years." 20. During assessment of a patient admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of MS, what should the nurse expect to find? a. Tremors, dysphasia, and ptosis b. Bowel and bladder incontinence and loss of memory c. Motor impairment, visual disturbances, and paresthesias d. Excessive involuntary movements, hearing loss, and ataxia 21. The nurse explains to a patient newly diagnosed with MS that the diagnosis is made primarily by a. spinal x-ray findings. b. T-cell analysis of the blood. c. analysis of cerebrospinal fluid. d. history and clinical manifestations. 22. A patient with MS has a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit related to muscle spasticity and neuromuscular deficits. In providing care for the patient, what is most important for the nurse to do? a. Teach the family members how to care adequately for the patient's needs. b. Encourage the patient to maintain social interactions to prevent social isolation. c. Promote the use of assistive devices so the patient can participate in self-care activities. d. Perform all activities of daily living (ADLs) for the patient to conserve the patient's energy.

23. A patient with newly diagnosed MS has been hospitalized for evaluation and initial treatment of the disease. Following discharge teaching, the nurse realizes that additional instruction is needed when the patient says what? a. "It is important for me to avoid exposure to people with upper respiratory infections." b. "When I begin to feel better, I should stop taking the prednisone to prevent side effects." c. "I plan to use vitamin supplements and a high-protein diet to help manage my condition." d. "I must plan with my family how we are going to manage my care if I become more incapacitated." 24. The classic triad of manifestations associated with Parkinson's disease is tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. What is a consequence related to rigidity? a. Shuffling gait b. Impaired handwriting c. Lack of postural stability d. Muscle soreness and pain 25. A patient with a tremor is being evaluated for Parkinson's disease. The nurse explains to the patient that Parkinson's disease can be confirmed by a. CT and MRI scans. b. relief of symptoms with administration of dopaminergic agents. c. the presence of tremors that increase during voluntary movement. d. cerebral angiogram that reveals the presence of cerebral atherosclerosis. 26. Which observation of the patient made by the nurse is most indicative of Parkinson's disease? a. Large, embellished handwriting b. Weakness of one leg resulting in a limping walk c. Difficulty rising from a chair and beginning to walk d. Onset of muscle spasms occurring with voluntary movement 27. A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on levodopa. What should the nurse explain about this drug? a. It stimulates dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia. b. It promotes the release of dopamine from brain neurons. c. It is a precursor of dopamine that is converted to dopamine in the brain. d. It prevents the excessive breakdown of dopamine in the peripheral tissues. 28. To reduce the risk for falls in the patient with Parkinson's disease, what should the nurse teach the patient to do? a. Use an elevated toilet seat. b. Use a walker or cane for support. c. Consciously lift the toes when stepping. d. Rock side to side to initiate leg movements. 29. A patient with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory insufficiency and severe weakness. When is a diagnosis of cholinergic crisis made? a. The patient's respiration is impaired because of muscle weakness. b. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) increases muscle weakness.

c. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) results in improved muscle contractility. d. EMG reveals decreased response to repeated stimulation of muscles.

30. During care of a patient in myasthenic crisis, maintenance of what is the nurse's first priority for the patient? a. Mobility b. Nutrition c. Respiratory function d. Verbal communication 31. When providing care for a patient with ALS, the nurse recognizes what as one of the most distressing problems experienced by the patient? a. Painful spasticity of the face and extremities b. Retention of cognitive function with total degeneration of motor function c. Uncontrollable writhing and twisting movements of the face, limbs, and body d. Knowledge that there is a 50% chance the disease has been passed to any offspring 32. In providing care for patients with chronic, progressive neurologic disease, what is the major goal of treatment that the nurse works toward? a. Meet the patient's personal care needs. b. Return the patient to normal neurologic function. c. Maximize neurologic functioning for as long as possible. d. Prevent the development of additional chronic diseases. 33. A patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for A. an aura or focal seizure. B. nystagmus or confusion. C. abdominal pain or cramping. D. irregular pulse or palpitations. 34. Which measure should the nurse prioritize when providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Vigilant infection control and adherence to standard precautions B. Careful monitoring of neurologic assessment and frequent reorientation C. Maintenance of a calorie count and hourly assessment of intake and output D. Assessment of blood pressure and monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension 35. A male patient with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease (PD) has been admitted recently to a long-term care facility. Which action should the health care team take in order to promote adequate nutrition for this patient? A. Provide multivitamins with each meal. B. Provide a diet that is low in complex carbohydrates and high in protein. C. Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day that are easy to chew and swallow. D. Provide the patient with a minced or pureed diet that is high in potassium and low in sodium. 36. Which nursing diagnosis is likely to be a priority in the care of a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG)?

A. Acute confusion B. Bowel incontinence C. Activity intolerance D. Disturbed sleep pattern

37. A 50-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What nursing intervention is most important to help prevent a common cause of death for patients with ALS? A. Reduce fat intake. B. Reduce the risk of aspiration. C. Decrease injury related to falls. D. Decrease pain secondary to muscle weakness. 38. When establishing a diagnosis of MS, the nurse should teach the patient about what diagnostic studies (select all that apply)? A. EEG B. CT scan C. Carotid duplex scan D. Evoked response testing E. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis 39. The nurse is caring for a group of patients on a medical unit. After receiving report, which patient should the nurse see first? A. A 42-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis who was admitted with sepsis B. A 72-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease who has aspiration pneumonia C. A 38-year-old patient with myasthenia gravis who declined prescribed medications D. A 45-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis who refuses enteral feedings 40. The nurse observes a 74-year-old man with Parkinson's disease rocking side to side while sitting in the chair. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Provide the patient with diversional activities. B. Document the activity in the patient's health record. C. Take the patient's blood pressure sitting and standing. D. Ask if the patient is feeling either anxious or depressed. 41. A 65-year-old woman was just diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The priority nursing intervention is a. searching the Internet for educational videos. b. evaluating the home for environmental safety. c. promoting physical exercise and a well-balanced diet. d. designing an exercise program to strengthen and stretch specific muscles. 42. Social effects of a chronic neurologic disease include (select all that apply) a. divorce. b. job loss. c. depression. d. role changes. e. loss of self-esteem.

43. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly diagnosed patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Which statement would be appropriate to include in the teaching? a. "ALS results from an excess chemical in the brain, and the symptoms can be controlled with medication." b. "Even though the symptoms you are experiencing are severe, most people recover with treatment." c. "You need to consider advance directives now, since you will lose cognitive function as the disease progresses." d. "This is a progressing disease that eventually results in permanent paralysis, though you will not lose any cognitive function." 44. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily b. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery c. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication d. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives Week 13: Delirium 1. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing delirium? a. A 50-year-old woman with cholecystitis b. A 19-year-old man with a fractured femur c. A 42-year-old woman having an elective hysterectomy d. A 78-year-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to congestive heart failure 2. Which of the following symptoms are the hallmarks of delirium? a. Inattention, fluctuating course, hyperactivity, and altered level of consciousness b. Disorganized thinking, insidious onset, inattention, and altered level of consciousness c. Acute onset, fluctuating course, memory loss, and altered level of consciousness d. Acute onset, fluctuating course, inattention or disorganized thinking, and altered level of consciousness 3. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes dementia? a. Syndrome that results only in memory loss b. Disease associated with abrupt changes in behaviour c. Disease that is always due to reduced blood flow to the brain d. Syndrome characterized by cognitive dysfunction and loss of memory 4. Which of the following is associated with vascular dementia? a. Transient ischemic attacks b. Bacterial or viral infection of neuronal tissue c. Cognitive changes secondary to cerebral ischemia d. Abrupt changes in cognitive function that are irreversible 5. On which of the following findings is the clinical diagnosis of dementia based? a. Brain biopsy b. Electroencephalography c. Patient history and cognitive assessment d. Computed tomography or MRI

6. Which statement(s) accurately describe(s) mild cognitive impairment? (Select all that apply) a. Always progresses to AD b. Caused by variety of factors and may progress to AD c. Should be aggressively treated with acetylcholinesterase drugs d. Caused by vascular infarcts that, if treated, will delay progression to AD e. Client is usually not aware that there is a problem with his or her memory 7. What is a major goal of treatment for the client with dementia? a. Maintain safety b. Maintain or increase body weight c. Return to a higher level of self-care d. Enhance functional ability over time Ch.25, 26, 27, & 28 Lewis Respiratory Flashcards | Quizlet Lewis Chapter 8 Pain Flashcards | Quizlet Lewis Ch. 11 - Inflammation and Wound Healing Flashcards | Quizlet The nurse assesses a patient's surgical wound on the first postoperative day and notes redness and warmth around the incision. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Obtain wound cultures. b. Document the assessment. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Assess the wound every 2 hours. A patient with an open leg wound has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 13, 500/μL and a band count of 11%. What action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain wound cultures. b. Start antibiotic therapy. c. Redress the wound with wet-to-dry dressings. d. Continue to monitor the wound for purulent drainage. A patient with a systemic bacterial infection feels cold and has a shaking chill. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect next? a. Skin flushing b. Muscle cramps c. Rising body temperature d. Decreasing blood pressure A young adult patient who is receiving antibiotics for an infected leg wound has a temperature of 101.8° F (38.7° C). Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Apply a cooling blanket. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Give the prescribed PRN aspirin (Ascriptin) 650 mg. d. Check the patient's oral temperature again in 4 hours.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking corticosteroids for 11 months. Which nursing action is most likely to detect early signs of infection in this patient? a. Monitor white blood cell count. b. Check the skin for areas of redness. c. Check the temperature every 2 hours. d. Ask about fatigue or feelings of malaise. A patient arrives in the emergency department with a swollen ankle after an injury incurred while playing soccer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Elevate the ankle above heart level. b. Apply a warm moist pack to the ankle. c. Assess the ankle's range of motion (ROM). d. Assess whether the patient can bear weight on the affected ankle. After receiving a change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. The patient who has multiple black wounds on the feet and ankles b. The newly admitted patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. The patient who has been receiving chemotherapy and has a temperature of 102° F d. The patient who needs to be medicated with multiple analgesics before a scheduled dressing change The patient has inflammation and reports feeling tired, nausea, and anorexia. The nurse explains to the patient that these manifestations are related to inflammation in what way? A) Local response B) Systemic response C) Infectious response D) Acute inflammatory response A patient arrives in the emergency department reporting fever for 24 hours and lower right quadrant abdominal pain. After laboratory studies are performed, what does the nurse determine indicates the patient has a bacterial infection? A) Increased platelet count B) Increased blood urea nitrogen C) Increased number of band neutrophils D) Increased number of segmented myelocytes A patient had abdominal surgery last week and returns to the clinic for follow-up. The nurse assesses thick, white, malodorous drainage. How should the nurse document this drainage? A) Serous B) Purulent C) Fibrinous D) Catarrhal The nurse observes a patient experiencing chills related to an infection. What is the priority action by the nurse? A) Provide a light blanket. B) Encourage a hot shower. C) Monitor temperature every hour. D) Turn up the thermostat in the patient's room.

A nurse is teaching a patient how to promote healing following abdominal surgery. What should be included in the teaching (select all that apply.)? A) Take the antibiotic until the wound feels better. B) Take the analgesic every day to promote adequate rest for healing. D) Take in more fluid, protein, and vitamins C, B, and A to facilitate healing. E) Notify the health care provider of redness, swelling, and increased drainage. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immunocompromised while receiving chemotherapy for advanced breast cancer. What signs and symptoms will the nurse teach the patient to report that may indicate an infection? A) Fever and chills B) Increased blood pressure C) Increased respiratory rate D) General malaise and fatigue A patient is seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle. What initial interventions should the nurse teach the patient for treatment of this soft tissue injury? A) Warm, moist heat and massage B) Rest, ice, compression, and elevation C) Antipyretic and antibiotic drug therapy D) Active movement and exercise to prevent stiffness A patient is ordered to receive acetaminophen 650 mg per rectum every 6 hours as needed for fever greater than 102°F. Which parameter would the nurse monitor, other than temperature, if the patient requires this medication? A) Pain level B) Intake and output C) Oxygen saturation D) Level of consciousness To which patient should the nurse plan to administer round-the-clock antipyretic drugs? A) A 76-yr-old patient with bacterial meningitis and a temperature of 104.2°F B) An 82-yr-old patient after hip replacement surgery and a temperature of 100.4°F C) A 14-yr-old patient with infectious mononucleosis and a temperature of 101.6°F D) A 59-yr-old patient with an acute myocardial infarction and a temperature of 99.8°F A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 103°F. What nursing actions will assist in managing the patient's febrile state? A) Administer aspirin on a scheduled basis around the clock. B) Provide acetaminophen every 4 hours to maintain consistent blood levels. C) Administer acetaminophen when the patient's oral temperature exceeds 103.5°F. D) Provide drug interventions if complementary and alternative therapies have failed. When assessing a patient who is receiving cefazolin for the treatment of a bacterial infection, which data suggest that treatment has been effective? A) White blood cell (WBC) count of 8000/ìL; temperature of 101 F B) White blood cell (WBC) count of 4000/ìL; temperature of 100 F C) White blood cell (WBC) count of 8500/ìL; temperature of 98.4 F D) White blood cell (WBC) count of 16,500/ìL; temperature of 98.8 F The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process? A. Cellular C) Be sure to wash hands after changing the dressing to avoid infection.

B. Vascular C. Healing D. Formation of exudate Fever that accompanies inflammation is most likely caused by A. Increased production and activity of neutrophils B. Massive vasodilation during the vascular response C. Release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF from monocytes D. Activation of the complement system During the healing phase of inflammation, regeneration of cells would be most likely to occur in A. Neurons B. Skeletal muscle C. Lymph glands D. Cardiac muscle Chemotaxis is a mechanism that A. Causes the transformation of monocytes into macrophages B. Slows the blood flow in a damaged area allowing migration of leukocytes into tissue C. Attracts the accumulation of neutrophils and monocytes to an area of injury D. Involves a pathway of chemical processes resulting in cellular lysis A patient with an inflammation has a high eosinophil count. The nurse recognizes that this finding most likely indicates that A. The inflammation has become chronic with persistent tissue damage B. Humoral and cell-mediated immunity is being stimulated C. Tissue damage has been caused by an allergen-antibody reaction D. The inflammatory response has been stimulated by infection First leukocytes to arrive at the site of inflammation. A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Leukocytes D. Basophils A sequential reaction to cell injury. A. Complement system B. Inflammatory response C. Neutrophils D. Infection Interfere with tissue granulation, induce immunosuppressive effects, prevent liberation of lysosomes. A. NSAIDs B. Salicylates C. Brushing your teeth D. Corticosteroids Healing as a result of lost cells being replaced by connective tissue A. Repair B. Regeneration C. Brushing your teeth D. Primary intention

Replacement of lost cells and tissues with cells of the same type. A. Regeneration B. Brushing your teeth C. Repair D. Fibroblasts Cause = swelling and pain. A. Pain B. Loss of function C. Swelling D. Redness E. Heat Cause = fluid shift to interstitial spaces; fluid exudate accumulation. A. Pain B. Loss of function C. Heat D. Redness E. Swelling Cause = change in pH; change in local ionic concentration; nerve stimulation by chemicals; pressure from fluid exudate A. Pain B. Loss of function C. Swelling D. Redness E. Heat Cause = increased metabolism at inflammatory site. A. Swelling B. Loss of function C. Pain D. Redness E. Heat Cause = hyperemia from vasodilation. A. Redness B. Heat C. Swelling D. Pain E. Loss of function Results from rupture or necrosis of blood vessel walls; it consists of RBCs that escape into tissue. (example = hematoma). A. Purulent B. Catarrhal C. Serous D. Hemorrhagic E. Fibrinous Consists of WBCs, microorganisms (dead and alive), liquefied dead cells, and other debris. (example = furuncle, abscess, cellulitis)

A. Catarrhal B. Hemorrhagic C. Purulent D. Serous E. Fibrinous Occurs with increasing vascular permeability and fibrinogen leakage into interstitial spaces. Excessive amounts of fibrin coating tissue surfaces may cause them to adhere. (examples = adhesions) A. Purulent B. Serous C. Catarrhal D. Hemorrhagic E. Fibrinous Results from outpouring of fluid that has low cell and protein content; seen in early stages of inflammation or when injury is mild. (examples = skin blisters, pleural effusion) A. Purulent B. Hemorrhagic C. Serous D. Catarrhal E. Fibrinous Arrive later at the site of injury. Their primary role is related to humoral and cell-mediated immunity. A. Chemotaxis B. Monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes Pain has been defined as "whatever the person experiencing the pain says it is, existing whenever the patient says it does." This definition is problematic for the nurse when caring for which type of patient? a. A patient placed on a ventilator b. A patient with a history of opioid addiction c. A patient with decreased cognitive function d. A patient with pain resulting from severe trauma On the first post operative day following a bowel resection, the patient complains of abdominal and incisional pain rated 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. Post operative orders include morphine (4mg IV q4hr) for pain and may repeat morphine (4mg IV) for breakthrough pain. The nurse determines that it has been only 1 3/4 hours since the last dose of morphine and wants to wait a little longer. What effect does the nurse's action have on the patient? a. Protects the patient from addiction and toxic effects of the drug b. Prevents hastening or causing a patient's death from respiratory dysfunction c. Contributes to unnecessary suffering and physical and psychological dysfunction d. Indicates that the nurse understands the adage of "start low and go slow" in administering analgesics What are the 5 dimensions of pain? Describe

1. Physiological-the genetic, anatomic and physical determinants of pain.
   2. Affective- the emotional response to pain.
   3. Cognitive-the beliefs, attitudes, memories and meaning attributed to pain
   4. Behavioral-observable actions that express or control pain, or changed behavior
   5. Sociocultural-age and gender influences, family and caregiver influence, and culture that influences the pain experience.

Once generated, what may block the transmission of an action potential along a peripheral nerve fiber to the dorsal root of the spinal cord? a. Nothing can stop the action potential along an intact nerve until it reaches the spinal cord b. The action potential must cross several synapses, points at which the impulse may be blocked by drugs c. The transmission may be interrupted by drugs that act on peripheral sodium channels (local anesthetics) d. The nerve fiber produces neurotransmitters that may activate nearby nerve fibers to transmit pain impulses While caring for an unconscious patient, the nurse discovers a stage 2 pressure ulcer on the patient's heel. During the care of the ulcer, what is the nurse's understanding of the patient's perception of pain? a. The patient will have a behavioral response if pain is perceived b. The area should be treated as a painful lesion, using gentle cleansing and dressing c. The area can be thoroughly scrubbed because the patient is not able to perceive pain d. All nociceptive stimuli that are transmitted to the brain result in the perception of pain Name 3 examples of sources of Nociceptive pain?

1. Sunburn
2. Osteoarthritic
3. Pancreatitis Name 4 examples of sources of Neuropathic pain?
4. Poststroke pain
5. Phantom limb pain
6. Trigeminal neuralgia
7. Postmastectomy pain Amitriptyline is prescribed for a patient with chronic pain from fibromyalgia. When the nurse explains that this drug is an antidepressant, the patient states that she is in pain, not depressed. What is the nurse's best response to the patient? a. Antidepressants will improve the patient's attitude and prevent a negative emotional response to the pain b. Chronic pain almost always leads to depression, and the use of this drug will prevent depression from occurring c. Some antidepressant drugs relieve pain by releasing neurotransmitters that prevent pain impulses from reaching the brain d. Certain antidepressant drugs are metabolized in the liver to substances that numb the ends of nerve fibers, preventing the onset of pain A patient with trigeminal neuralgia has moderate to severe burning and shooting pain. In helping the patient to manage the pain, the nurse recognizes what about this type of pain? a. Includes treatment with adjuvant analgesics b. Will be chronic and require long-term treatment c. Responds to small to moderate around the clock doses of oral opioids d. Can be well controlled with salicylates or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) A patient with advanced colorectal cancer has continuous, poorly localized abdominal pain at an intensity of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. How does the nurse teach the patient to use pain medication? a. On an around the clock schedule b. As often as necessary to keep the pain controlled c. By alternating two different types of drugs to prevent tolerance d. When the pain cannot be controlled with distraction or relaxation