Anatomy and Physiology Test Bank, Exams of Nursing

Download Anatomy and Physiology Test Bank and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Portage Learning BIOD 151 Anatomy and Physiology 1 All EXAMS (MODULE 1 - MODULE 7) TEST BANK LATEST UPDATED 2023-2024 A+ MODULE 1 All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism A. Anatomy 2. B. The liver is an example of the organ level of organization in the human body A. Sodium B. The liver C. Mitochondria D. The skeletal system E. Epithelium 3. What is the breakdown of nutrients? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism D. Catabolism 1. List the four basic types of tissues. Epithelium, muscle, connective, and nervous tissue 2. List the three layers of the skin in order from deep to superficial. The deepest layer of the skin should be at the top of your list. To receive credit the layers must be in this order. hypodermis (inner, also called subcutaneous tissue layer) dermis (middle layer) epidermis (outer layer) *MUST be in this order (top to bottom) to receive credit 3. Testosterone contributes to muscle strength and bone mass. Based upon your learning of metabolism, would it be considered an anabolic or catabolic hormone? Explain why. C. Elevation D. Depression E. Abduction A. Flexion (“closing of a joint”) 3. What anatomical action term is used to indicate "movement away from midline"? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Elevation D. Depression E. Abduction E. Abduction Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Describe the position of the epigastric region relative to the umbilical region in anatomical position terms. Use a full sentence for your description. The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region. (OR) The umbilical region is inferior to the epigastric region. 2. Which anatomical action is occurring at the elbow joint, in the direction of the arrow? (Elbow) Flexion - ™ 3. Look at the figure below. The right femur is moved in the direction of the arrow. What anatomical action term best describes this movement? Abduction (The femur is moving away from midline)  Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 2. Using the letters given, match each molecule/item with its typical means of entering a cell. You will need to use some means of entry more than once. Oxygen A. Diffusion Lipid-soluble molecules B. Facilitated diffusion Bacteria C. Endocytosis Polar molecules A. Oxygen A. Lipid-soluble molecules C. Bacteria B. Polar molecules 3. Which one of the following is not true of active transport? A. Active transport occurs against the concentration gradient B. Carrier proteins move particles from greater concentration to lesser C. The sodium-potassium pump is an example D. additional energy is required to drive this process B. Carrier proteins move particles from greater concentration to lesser 4. List the three organelles, in order, involved in the synthesis, transport and shipping of proteins. A. rough ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes B. ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex C. ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi complex D. rough ER, Golgi complex, vacuole B. ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Label the 5 organelles listed below: 3: 4: 5: 7: 8: 3: Nucleolus 4: Nuclear Envelope 5: Mitochondria 7: Lysosome 8: Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) e. Endocytosis is a passive process. It does not require cellular energy expenditure.(T or F) A: T B: T C: F D: T E: F 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) C. Oropharynx D. Both A. and C. B. Nasopharynx 3. Rings of cartilage line much of the respiratory tract. In which of one the following would cartilage NOT be found? A. Trachea B. Larynx C. Bronchi D. Alveoli D. Alveoli Label the following five items from the diagram: Label B- Label D- Label E- Label F- Label G- Label B: Oral Cavity Label D: Epiglottis (not glottis) Label E: Glottis (not epiglottis) Label F: Trachea Label G: Esophagus Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Explain what happens to the soft palate during swallowing. Why? The upward movement of the soft palate prevents food or liquid from entering the nasal passages during swallowing. 2. Explain at least two differences between Type I and Type II alveolar cells. a. Type I form the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli in junction with capillaries. Make up roughly 95% of alveolar epithelial cells. b. Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface to keep the alveoli open. In addition, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells. Make up roughly 5% of alveolar epithelial cells. Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. Negative pressure is used to move air into the lungs. True 2. During exhalation the diaphragm contracts to actively push air out of the lungs. False (during inhalation) 3. During inhalation the rib cage lifts in an upward motion to open and expand the lungs. True (You may find it helpful to draw the respiratory physiology diagram on a piece of scratch paper.) A. Vital Capacity (VC) = ERV+TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV C. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+RV D. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = IRV + TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. Typical respiratory epithelium contains cells where only some of the pseudostratified columnar cells touch the basement membrane. False -all pseudostratified cells touch the basement membrane. 2. The vestibule is the most external portion of the nasal cavity. True 3. The vestibule is lined with typical respiratory epithelium. False- stratified squamous epithelium is found in the vestibule. 4. The fossae is another name for the pleural cavities. False 5. The bronchioles are surrounded by capillaries for gas exchange. False Matching: A. Emphysema B. Cystic Fibrosis C. Pulmonary edema D. Pleurisy The pleural space fills with air, pus or blood. D. Pleurisy This condition results from fluid-filled alveoli. C. Pulmonary edema This condition results in a loss of alveoli. A. Emphysema This hereditary illness results in excess mucus. B. Cystic Fibrosis Answer the following three questions: 1. The pressure of three gases equals 1 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of oxygen (in mmHG) if nitrogen is 300 mmHg and carbon dioxide is 350 mmHg? To receive full credit you must show your work. 110 mmHG 1atm= 760 mmHg 300 mmHg + 350 mmHG + X = 760 mmHg OR: 760 - 300-350= 110 mmHG 2. Why would warming air be beneficial to gas exchange? It would expand the air to make it more available for gas exchange. 3. Explain why incomplete ventilation is important for effective gas exchange. Incomplete ventilation helps to maintain a constant temperature within the lungs. The increased temperature allows for greater gas exchange. The liver produces bile which breaks down fats. If it is not producing bile (or less bile), fats will not be broken down effectively. 2. Explain in detail how the stomach contents enter the small intestine. The pyloric sphincter (valve), located at the base of the stomach, relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass through the opening into the first part of the small intestine. This initiates a reflex that causes the muscles of the sphincter to contract and close the opening temporarily. Then the sphincter relaxes again and allows more chyme to enter. Look carefully at the diagram below. Label the following 5 organs of the digestive system. To receive credit for the intestines you must label the specific region. 3: Stomach 4: Answer the following two questions: Gallbladder 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 9: Appendix (not large intestine) 10: Rectum (not large intestine) 1. A doctor is looking to prescribe a larger dose of a vitamin that would not easily cause vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be the best to prescribe? Explain your answer. A. Water soluble vitamin B. Fat soluble vitamin C. All of the above A. Water soluble vitamin. Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. 2. Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the large intestine. Absorption: In the large intestine water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation: Feces travel to the rectum where it is excreted via the anus. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Answer the following essay question: 1. Name and explain the four main functions performed by the digestive system. The digestive system has four main roles that it performs: ingestion, digestion, absorption, and defecation. Ingestion is when food enters the mouth. True 2. Anabolism combines smaller molecules to make larger molecules. True 3. The nasopharynx is the most superior region of the pharynx. True 4. The pharynx has three types of skeletal muscle: circumferential, longitudinal and oblique. False (It only has two; it does not include an oblique layer) 5. The digestive work of salivary amylase is an example of mechanical digestion. False (Chemical digestion) 1. Label the following three types of raised bumps on the tongue. Describe the purpose of type B. A: Filiform papillae B: Circumvallate papillae C: Fungiform papillae Describe B: Papillae are raised bumps on the tongue. The three types of papillae help to grip food on the tongue: circumvallate, fungiform and filiform. Circumvallate papillae contain taste buds. Answer the following three questions: 1. Which of the following statements is true concerning glycolysis? A. Pyruvic acid are broken down into glucose. B. Two ATP molecules are formed in first breakdown of glucose. C. Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules. D. Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules. B. Two ATP molecules are formed (True) 2. Which of the following statements is true concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown? A. This is also known as proton motive force. B. Fermentation takes place here with oxygen present. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. D. Glucose molecules are formed. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. (True) 3. Which of the following statements is false concerning the Electron Transport System? A. Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration. B. Approximately a total of 34 ATP are formed. Match the five structures with the best description: 1. Uvula: A. Connects mouth to esophagus B. Forms food into a bolus C. Attaches to the lesser omentum D. Stores glycogen and produces urea E. Attached to the soft palate E. Attached to the soft palate 2. Small Intestine: A. First section is called the jejunum B. Contains the LES C. Attaches to the greater omentum D. Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla E. Secretes Vitamin K D. Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla 3. Muscularis externa (layer of tissue): A. Made of two layers of muscle B. Innermost layer C. Secretes mucous D. Contains blood and lymph vessels E. Begins in the mouth A. Made of two layers of muscle 4. Dentin: A. Upper portion of gums B. Outermost layer C. Bone-like substance D. Hard connective tissue E. Contains longitudinal muscle C. Bone-like substance 5. Common Bile Duct A. Contains lymph vessels and nerve B. Joins with the thoracic duct C. Enters the ileum D. Contains secretions from the pancreas E. Contains secretions from the gallbladder E. Contains secretions from the gallbladder MODULE 4 Answer the following five questions: 1. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the function bones? A. Flat bones are long and thin, such as the ulna. B. Long bones have an irregular structure C. The carpals are an example of short bones. D. Vertebrae are an example of sesamoid bone. C. The carpals are an example of short bones. 2. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning bones? A. Bones are not completely smooth surfaces. B. A foramen is a projection for a tendon or ligament attachment. C. A process is an elevation found in bone. D. Bones are a storage site for phosphorus and calcium. B. A foramen is a projection for a tendon or ligament attachment. 3. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the skeletal system? A. The two main divisions of the skeletal system are: lumbar and thoracic. B. The two main divisions of the skeletal system are: axial and appendicular. C. The lumbar division of the skeleton is included in the appendicular skeleton. D. The axial skeleton includes the laryngeal skeleton. E. B. and D. are false F. A. and C are false 2. Label the following vertebrae as: A= Cervical B= Thoracic C= Lumbar B )Thoracic( 3. What is the name of the foramina in the figure below? 1: Foramen ovale 2: Carotid canal 3: External acoustic meatus 1. Label the following bone landmarks: B: Supraspinatus fossa D: Acromion E: Neck H: Answer the following three questions: 1. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the scapula? A. The clavicle connects to the scapula anteriorly near the midline of the human body. B. The medial border of the scapula connects directly to the neck of the scapula. C. The subscapular fossa is located on the anterior side of the scapula. Lateral border I: Inferior angle :. Label the bones in the figure below2 A: Cuboid C: Intermediate cuneiform D: Medial Cuneiform F: Navicular G: Calcaneus Answer the following five questions: 1. Yellow bone marrow: A. is found primarily in long bones. B. is found primarily in short and flat bones. C. is found primarily in newborns, not adults. D. produces red blood cells. A. is found primarily in long bones. 2. The diaphysis of a bone: A. is found at the ends of long bones. B. contains the articular cartilage at joint articulations. C. contains the proximal epiphysis. D. is the center length of a bone. E. both A. and C. D. is the center length of a bone. 3. Compact bone: A. forms the exterior of bones. B. forms the interior of bones. C. is lighter than spongy bone. D. contains numerous bars and plates with irregular spaces. E. both B. and D. A. forms the exterior of bones. 4. Intramembranous ossification is the formation of from A. a growth plate; the center of a bone. B. long bones; hyaline cartilage. C. flat bones; connective tissue. D. a primary ossification center; a cartilaginous disc. : 2. Thumb joint C, F (Synovial, Saddle) 3. Hip joint C, E (Synovial, Ball and socket) 4. Vertebral joint B (Cartilaginous) 5. Cranial joints A (Fibrous) Answer the following three questions: 1. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: Anterior sacroiliac ligament 2. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: MCL (Medial collateral/tibial ligament) 3. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: Acromioclavicular ligament 3. During a muscle contraction which protein myofilament contains cross-bridges? Myosin 4. What is the name of the thick myofilament? Myosin 5. What must occur for a muscle contraction to stop? Calcium ions must be pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum 5. What must occur for a muscle contraction to stop? Contraction stops when nerve impulses no longer stimulate the muscle fiber. Calcium ions return to the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the muscle then relaxes Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple-choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response with the information provided. Label the following five muscles: B: Temporalis C: Orbicularis oculi E: Zygomaticus major G: Buccinator J: Depressor labii inferioris Fill in the following muscle chart (10 blank spaces): Muscle Origin Insertion Action Innervation Flexor digitorum superficialis ------- ---------- 1. 2. Pronator Teres ------- 3. 4. 5. Vastus Medialis Peroneus Brevis 6. 8. --------- - 9. 7. ----------- -------------- 10. 2. Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bring his chin to his chest. He is also having difficulty turning his face from side to side. What muscle is most likely impaired? A. Thyrohyoid B. Semispinalis capitis C. Splenius Capitis D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Scalenes D. Sternocleidomastoid (Bilateral neck flexion, unilateral turns face) 3. A person sustained a back injury to the muscle group closest to the spine. What muscle group was injured? A. Longissimus B. Spinalis C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Iliocostalis E. Rectus abdominis B. Spinalis 4. True or False: When a muscle contracts, the Z lines within a sarcomere come closer together towards the M line. True 5. True or False: The I bands contain thick filaments. False (I bands contain thin filaments) Answer the following five questions: 1. Which muscle contracts to enable the main effort required to stand on your toes? A. Biceps femoris B. Quadriceps C. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis anterior C. Gastrocnemius 2. When gluteus maximus contracts, which bone is pulled posteriorly by this muscle? A. Tibia B. Ilium C. Ulna D. Femur D. Femur 3. When flexor digitorum profundus contracts, what action(s) occurs? A. Wrist flexion B. Elbow flexion C. Flexion of digits 2-5 D. Flexion of digit 1 E. A&D F. B&C E. A&C (Wrist flexion, flexion of digits 2-5) 4. Contraction of results in ? A. obturator externus, spine flexion B. obturator externus, spine extension C. iliacus, hip flexion D. iliacus, hip extension C. iliacus, hip flexion 5. When piriformis contracts, what action(s) will not occur at the hip? A. Internal rotation B. Lateral rotation C. Adduction D. Flexion A: Extensor carpi radialis longus C: Extensor digitorum D: Extensor Carpi Ulnaris F: Abductor pollicis longus H: Extensor indicis I: Extensor pollicis brevis Use the figure to label the following six muscles: D: Peroneus (fibularis) longus E: Soleus F: Tibialis posterior G: Flexor digitorum longus B: Hypothalamus C: Pituitary gland 1. Explain the concept of positive feedback. Give an example of a hormone that works through positive feedback. 1- Positive feedback is the action of a hormone increasing the production of that hormone. (This is the opposite of negative feedback). 2- One example is the action of oxytocin causing the uterus to contract during labor. Oxytocin enhances the effect of the uterus contractions, causing more oxytocin to be released. The positive feedback loop is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus no longer needs to contract, stopping the production of oxytocin. Positive feedback system increases the amount of the hormone that is regulated. An example of a hormone that works through positive feedback is oxytocin. This hormone is involved with childbirth by causing the uterus to contract. As the uterus is contracting, this causes more oxytocin to be released. The feedback is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus does not need to contract. This stops the release of oxytocin. Answer the following five questions: 1. This type of hormone is derived from proteins: A. Peptide hormones B. Catecholamines C. Steroid hormones D. Tyrosine A. Peptide hormones 2. Growth hormone A. is most active during adulthood. B. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. C. underproduction is called acromegaly. D. A &C B. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. 3. Neurosecretory cells are a part of what endocrine organ? A. Thalamus B. Pituitary C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus D. Hypothalamus 4. Which hormone production is decreased with sunlight? A. MSH –melanocyte stimulating hormone B. melatonin C. cortisol D. GH -Growth hormone A. Thyroxin B. Oxytocin C. Prolactin D. B &C E. A&B C. Prolactin 2. Which cells mature in the thymus? A. B cells B. T cells C. Red blood cells D. the islets of Langerhans E. A & B B. T Cells 3. Iodine is needed to produce which hormone/s? A. T3/T4 B. Gonadotropic C. ACTH D. TSH E. A & D A. T3/T4 4. Which of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin? A. Uterine contraction B. Bone growth C. Milk letdown D. Given to aide in childbirth process B. Bone growth 5. Which hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary? A. TSH, MSH, and calcitonin B. ADH, GH, and prolactin C. PTH, TSH, and FH D. ACTH, GH, and prolactin D. ACTH, GH, and prolactin Answer the following question: 1. Explain in detail why the thyroid becomes enlarged during an iodine deficiency? When there is a low level of thyroxin in the blood, the anterior pituitary continues to produce TSH. The thyroid responds by increasing in size and producing a goiter, but this increase in size is ineffective because active thyroxin cannot be produced without iodine. When iodine is lacking in the diet, the thyroid enlarges in what is called a goiter. This occurs because of the relationship with the thyroid and anterior pituitary gland. When the level of Thyroxin (produced by thyroid and contains iodine) is low in the blood, the anterior pituitary gland still produces TSH. The thyroid responds by enlarging and developing a goiter. E. It increases blood pressure C. It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium. 4. If you were calcium deficient, which condition would occur in your body if there was no hormonal compensation? A. Anemia B. Tetany C. Acromegaly D. Jet lag B. Tetany 5. Which of the following is true regarding estrogen? A. Production is highest in childhood. B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. C. It decreases fat storage. D. It causes females to have a narrower pelvis (compared to males). B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. MODULE 7 Answer the following two questions. 1. Identify the region and the layer of skin that is highlighted in blue. (Also indicated by the arrow, below) *NOTE: To receive full credit you must label two regions. Stratum granulosum; Epidermis (Must have both for full credit) 2. A - Identify the sensory cell receptor highlighted in blue, below, also indicated by the arrow. B - What sensory information is detected by this type of receptor? A) Meisner’s corpuscles; B) Detects light touch and vibration (mechanoreceptor ) 3. Langerhans cells A. Assists in immune responses 4. Melanocytes F. Produces a pigment that absorbs UV rays A. Assists in immune responses B. Produces collagen C. Detects light touch D. Detects pain E. Produces a protein to protect the skin F. Produces a pigment that absorbs UV rays Answer the following three questions: 1. A person touches a hot cup of coffee. What type of sensory organ detects this information? Thermoreceptor 2. Merkel cells are embedded in what layer of the skin? Epidermis 3. In your own words, how can the skin be used to determine if a person is dehydrated? A person who is dehydrated has decreased water content in the dermal layer of their skin. A person can be tested for dehydration by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. One indicator of dehydration is when the skin does not recoil back to its normal shape but instead stays “ridged”. Dehydration can be tested in a person by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. If the skin does not recoil back to normal and stays pinched, that is one indication of dehydration. Answer the following two questions: 1. What is th e name and function of th e structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) Arrector pili, a smooth muscle which connects to each hair follicle. It contracts when the body is cold or experiences emotional responses. Answer the following five questions: 1. All of the following are functions of skin except: A. Absorb UV rays B. Produce vitamin C C. Thermoregulation D. Protection for underlying tissues B. Produce vitamin C 2. The thickest region of the dermis is the: A. Reticular 2. What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) Sebaceous gland (oil gland) produces oil (sebum) to protect the skin and hair from drying. Answer the following four questions: 1. This part of a hair contains blood and nervous supply: A. Bulb B. Root C. Shaft D. Keratin A. Bulb 2. Hair is made up of: A. Living epidermal cells converted to collagen B. Dead epidermal cells converted to collagen C. Living epidermal cells converted to keratin D. Dead epidermal cells converted to keratin D. Dead epidermal cells converted to keratin 3. Nails are hard, dead cells which have been converted to A. Keratin B. Collagen C. Calcium D. Corneum A. Keratin 4. The nail is a portion of the nail not visible. A. cuticle B. body C. root D. lunula C. root Answer the following five questions: 1. Why would a person receive a skin graft? (1)Skin grafting decreases recovery time and prevents infection OR (2)If skin has been damaged severely and/or covers a large surface area Skin graft may be required if the skin has been severely damaged or if a burn covers a large area. Skin grafting is a treatment that can be used with burn victims to help in damaged skin recovery. Its when healthy skin is grafted on top of damaged skin. 2. What substance from the blood accumulates to form a clot? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Macrophages D. Platelets D. Platelets 3. Mast cells secrete what chemical? A. Collagen B. Histamine C. Platelets D. Heparin B. Histamine 4. Macrophages A. secrete histamine. B. remove fibroblasts. C. engulf bacteria. D. replace old tissue matrix. C. engulf bacteria. 5. A scar .