Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANS, Exams of Nursing

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Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 1 ___ ____ is diagnosed by hyperglycemia, low serum bicarbonate, and low pH, with ketonemia and moderate ketonuria. - ansDiabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) ____ disorders occur when the immune system fails to differentiate self from non-self. - ansautoimmune _____ is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. - ansVentilation ______ is defined as a blood glucose of <60 mg/dL, with associated cognitive impairment. - ansHypoglycemia ______ measures expiratory volume in a given time. - ansForced expiratory volume (FEV) _______ failure is caused by conditions that damage the structures within the kidney. - ansIntrarenal _______ is sleep disordered breathing due to the brain not properly signaling the respiratory muscles. - ansCentral sleep apnea ________ utilizes electric impulses to inhibit or stop the abnormal nerve activity that causes tremor and other unwanted movement patterns associated with Parkinson's disease. - ansDeep brain stimulation . Left ventricular hypertrophy is a major risk factor for what other diseases? Name at least 2. - anscoronary heart disease, cardiac dysrhythmias, congestive heart failure, and sudden death. 1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. - anschemotherapy 1. The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include each of the following except: - ansa. Diastolic pressure 2. ______ is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this increases, myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. - ansheart rate 3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? - ansmyocardial infarction 4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? - ansdecreased systemic vascular resistance A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? - ans1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. A 22-year-old competitive gymnast has experienced amenorrhea for the past 5 years. Her PCP is suspecting that she may have premature osteoporosis. Would you expect her RANKL levels to be high, normal, or low? Explain why her levels would be at this level. - ansHer RANKL levels would be higher than normal. Amenorrhea results in lower estrogen levels. Estrogen increases the production of OPG which inhibits RANKL. Lower estrogen levels would lead to lower OPG levels in turn increasing RANKL and osteoclast activity. A 30-year-old man is brought to the ER with a knife wound to the chest. On visual inspection, asymmetry of chest movement during inspiration, displacement of the trachea, and absence of breath sounds on the side of the wound are noted. His neck veins are distended, and his pulse is rapid and thready. What is your initial diagnosis? What type of emergent treatment is necessary? - ans1) tension pneumothorax 2) chest tube A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man's CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why - ans(1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/µL. Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 2 A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor - ansi would explain to her that it is a benign tumor, and that there is nothing to worry about 1 benign tumors grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated; while malignant tumors grow by invading and taking over tissue 2: benign tissue is well differentiated and looks like the tissue of origin, while malignant cells are undifferentiated and are atypical and do not look like the tissues of origin. A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized with a chronic illness characterized by hepatomegaly, distended neck veins, and peripheral edema. Which of the following disorders is the most likely cause of these findings? - ansRight heart failure A 40-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite increased appetite. The history and physical exam show exophthalmos, tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Each of the following lab abnormalities are expected EXCEPT: - ansIncreased TSH A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What are 2 strategies to help him normalize his blood sugars? List 2 other macrovascular complications he is at risk for and how you would screen for them? - ans(1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to control blood glucose levels. Even moderate weight loss of 5-10% of total body weight has been shown to improve glucose control. (2) Hypertension and hyperlipidemia - checking blood pressure and screening with a serum lipid panel. A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed with breast cancer from tissue biopsy following her diagnostic mammography. They are determining if it has spread to the lymph nodes. (1) Explain what the sentinel node is. (2) How will they determine if it has spread to the lymph system? (3) Would a detailed family history of disease be important to obtain? - ansThe sentinel node is the first lymph node to which the primary tumor drains. The extent of disease may be determined through lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymph node biopsy. A radioactive tracer and/or blue dye is injected into the tumor to determine the first lymph node. This lymph node is examined for the presence of cancer cells. Yes, heredity can be a strong risk factor for cancer in some families. A 60-year-old, obese female works out of her home and rarely walks due to the sedentary nature of her job. Give 2 reasons why she is at increased risk for developing OA. - ansShe is a female over the age of 55; she is obese, and she is relatively sedentary which contributes to the decreased nourishment of the joint that comes with weight bearing and range of motion. (*Note - student only needs to provide 2 reasons.) A 68-year-old, white Caucasian female has a DEXA scan at the recommendation of her PCP. Her scan yielded a T-score of -2.6. Interpret the results of her DEXA scan. Develop a treatment plan giving a pharmacologic recommendation if applicable (be specific with name of supplement and/or class of drug), and a non- pharmacologic recommendation. - ansThis T-score indicates osteoporosis. This patient should take a Calcium and Vitamin D supplement. In addition, she should be prescribed one of the following: Estrogen, SERMs, Bisphosphonates, or Calcitonin. She should also participate in regular weight bearing and resistive exercise being careful to choose activities that would not put her at increased risk for falling. A 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 2 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse. Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a non-pharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease. - ansPhase 2 of gout is acute gout arthritis. The goal of treatment in this phase is to control inflammation and pain. Colchicine is a prescription drug that could be used to treat his acute inflammation. NSAIDS can also be used to treat inflammation and manage pain. This patient should be encouraged to lose weight and decrease his alcohol consumption. He should also avoid purine rich foods such as fish, bacon, and liver. (*Note - the student has to provide 1 pharmacologic intervention and 1 non-pharmacologic recommendation.) A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by their spouse at 8 pm. The spouse reports that they were cleaning up after dinner at approximately 6:30 pm, and she noticed that her husband's speech was very unclear. When she asked him what was going on, he said that he didn't know and that the entire right side of his face felt numb. She reports that he is very active, but he has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. - ansThis patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A CT scan and MRI would be needed to determine if a clot was blocking blood flow to the brain tissue and to rule out a hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is found, this patient should receive tPA drugs as they are within the 3-4.5 hour treatment window. A bodybuilder's muscles will display hyperplasia. - ansFalse A decrease in Na+ reabsorption is achieved through the action of which of the following? - ansDiuretics Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 5 are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis common among Mediterranean populations. - ansThalassemias B cells are primarily associated with humoral immunity. - anstrue B lymphocytes normally produce antibodies against host tissues. - ansfalse bacteria - ansbiologic agents Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia - ansfalse Blood tests for tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? - ansFalse, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence. Cell differentiation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. Correct! - ansTrue Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. - ansfalse Chemical agents (poison, alcohol) are examples of which of the following? - ansEtiologic factors Clinical manifestations of cirrhosis include each of the following EXCEPT: - ansPancreatitis Compare and Contrast breathing patterns between NREM and REM sleep (include a discussion on the specific stages of NREM sleep.) - ansIn stages 1 and 2 NREM sleep as well as in REM sleep, breathing is irregular, and brief periods of apnea are often observed (approximately 5-15 seconds.) During stages 3 and 4 of deep sleep, breathing becomes regular. Compare and contrast the blood supply of cortical bone and cancellous bone. - ansCortical bone has a direct blood supply. Nutrient and Perforating arteries form an anastomosis (collateral circulation) that circulates through the bone through the Haversian and Volkmann canals. Cancellous bone does not have a direct blood supply. It receives its blood supply through diffusion from the endosteal bone surface extending outward through the canaliculi. Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. - ansIn dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Complications of gallstones include each of the following EXCEPT: - ansCirrhosis Constipation and a low fiber diet are a major risk factor for developing what disease? - ansdiverticulosis Cortical bone receives its blood supply through the following means except? - ansDiffusion through the endosteal surface of the bone and the canaliculi Cortical nephrons are characterized by the following except: - ansThey originate deep in the cortex Define polyp. Are they benign or malignant? - ansA polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the intestine. A polyp can be benign or malignant Define tertiary prevention and give an example: - ansTertiary prevention occurs after a disease has been diagnosed and clinical intervention is needed to reduce complications or deterioration. One example is the use of certain medications one must take after a heart attack to help reduce the risk of a future event or death. Diffusion - ansThe transfer of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries During inspiration, air is drawn into the lungs and the chest cavity is decreased. - ansfalse Each of the following are characteristics of Crohn disease EXCEPT: - ansBloody diarrhea Each of the following are characteristics of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT: - ansMyxedema Each of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis EXCEPT: - ansGranulomatous lesions Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 6 Each of the following are modifiable behaviors related to stroke except: - ansHypercholesteremia Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? - ansAutosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor Each of the following are TRUE of ARDS except: - ansPresents with decreased respiratory rate Each of the following are true of gout except: - ansA serum uric acid level greater than 6.8 mg/dL without symptoms leads to a diagnosis of gout Each of the following can lead to atelectasis except: - ansThrombus Each of the following disorders are correctly paired with related characteristics except: - ansAtelectasis - decreased respiratory rate Each of the following factors are associated with increased incidence of peptic ulcer EXCEPT: - ansDietary history Each of the following statements are true regarding control over the GFR except: - ansThe RAA responds when blood pressure rises above normal limits. Each of the following statements is true of Parkinson's disease except: - ansIt is characterized by an increase of dopaminergic neurons Each of the following statements is true regarding Alzheimer's disease except: - ansNeurofibrillary tangles are composed of deteriorating nerve pieces that arrange themselves around a sticky protein core called amyloid beta (Aβ) Each of the following statements is true regarding the organization of the nervous system except: - ansThe CNS has an afferent and efferent division Efferent neurons deliver _______ input from the CNS to the periphery. - ansMotor Even after forced expiration, a significant amount of air remains in the lungs. - ansTRUE Excess accumulation of fluid within the interstitial compartment is characteristic of which of the following fluid imbalances? - ansEdema Excess surface tension makes lung inflation harder. - ansTrue Excessive red blood cell destruction would cause what type of jaundice? - ansPrehepatic jaundice Explain how a chemical synapse produces an excitatory or inhibitory signal. - ansThe presynaptic neuron will secrete neurotransmitters which diffuse into the synaptic cleft and bind to excitatory or inhibitory receptors on the postsynaptic membrane eliciting an excitatory or inhibitory signal in one direction. Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. - ansThere are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn't perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Explain the differences in the pathophysiology, symptoms, and whether nitroglycerin and/or rest will relieve symptoms in stable angina, unstable angina, and myocardial infarction. - ansstable angina is when you have angina with exertion, usually will go away with nitro or rest unstable angia is wen you have angina without exetion and it will not go away with rest, its not very constant and very unstable, may ease woth nitro Myocardial infarction is a heart attack, may include SOB, nausea, chest pain, numbness, or an abnormal EKG. this can easy with nitro but most likely the pt will be sent to the cath lab for catherization. Explain the TNM system: - ansT is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. - ansnecrosis is cell death to an organ or tissue with still being apart of a living person. An example of this would be luiquefactive necrosis. this is when the cells die and the catalytic enzymes do not get destroyed after the cells death. This could cause necrosis Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 7 Explain why renal flow is decreased with sympathetic activity. - ansSympathetic activity is referring to the sympathetic nervous system, Fight or flight method. The arterioles in the renal fow respond to this and constrict to decrease renal flow to maintain homeostasis. Whether that would be; making sure enough minerals or water is being absorbed or released. Explain why the oxygen flow rate for people with COPD is normally titrated to maintain the arterial PO2 between 60 and 65 mm Hg. - ansTheir medullary respiratory center has adapted to the elevated CO2 levels and no longer responds to increases in PCO2. Therefore, a decrease in PO2 becomes the stimulus for respiration. If oxygen is given at too high of a rate, it suppresses the stimulus and the respiratory drive. Features of systemic lupus erythematosus include all of the following except - ansExophthalmos Food is converted in the stomach into a creamy mixture called? - anschyme fractures - ansphysical agents Give one function of a membrane potential: - ansGenerate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion Gluconeogenesis, or glucose formation, is promoted by the alpha cells. - ansTrue Haversian canals contain the nerve and blood supply for the osteon. - anstrue High blood pressure is an example of which of the following? - anspathophysiology Histologically, chronic bronchitis would exhibit each of the following except: - ansEnlargement of the airspaces Hormones travel through the bloodstream attached to transport carriers only. - ansFalse how a tool measures what it is intended to measure - ansvalidity how likely the same result will occur if repeated - ansreliability Hypertension is often called "the silent killer." By the time symptoms of hypertension occur, the complications can affect the kidneys, heart, eyes, and blood vessels. What is this term called? - anstarget organ damage hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells - ansTrue Hyperuricemia may be a result of an underproduction of purines. - ansfalse; it is an overproduction of purines hypothermia - ansphysical agents Hypothyroidism is caused by each of the following EXCEPT: - ansThyroid adenoma If someone loses their balance when walking on uneven terrain, explain how tendons and ligaments work to protect the joint and structures within it. - ansThe tendons and ligaments of joints serve in proprioception (the awareness of ones' position in space or movement of the body). When these structures undergo stretch or torsional strain, these proprioceptive nerve fibers will cause a reflexive response to adjust the tension on the muscles (to maintain balance and not fall over) that support the joint protecting the capsule and other joint structures. In the early stages of OA, structural changes would include which of the following? (mark all that apply) - ansEdema in the cartilaginous matrix In the nephron, the mass of capillaries surrounded by an epithelial capsule that opens into a tubule is collectively referred to as the _______. - ansrenal corpuscle Intrapleural pressure is always negative in relation to alveolar pressure in a normal inflated lung. - anstrue is a linear chain of interconnecting neurons located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers, involved with GI motility? - ansMyenteric (Auerbach) plexus is the process of moving nutrients and other materials from the external environment of the GI tract into the internal environment. - ansabsorption Lack of nerve stimulation can cause cells to atrophy - ansTrue lead toxicity - anschemical injury Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 10 The posterior pituitary releases which of the following hormones? Select all that apply. - ansOxytocin, ADH The process of digestion begins in the stomach and finishes in the large intestine. - ansFalse The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as _______. - answasting or Cancer anorexia cachexia syndrome The risk factors for _____ _____ include hyperglycemia, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, obesity, altered platelet function, endothelial dysfunction, elevated fibrinogen levels, and systemic inflammation. - ansMacrovascular complications / disease The T cells that display the host's MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection. - ansFalse The three stages of hemostasis include each of the following except: - ansVascular dilation The time between HIV infection and seroconversion is called what? - ansthe window period Those with prediabetes have an increased risk of atherosclerotic heart disease. - ansTrue Tissue biopsy is of critical importance in what role? - ansDiagnosing the correct cancer and histology. Treatment of irritable bowel syndrome includes each of the following EXCEPT: - ansAnti-diarrheal medication Treatments for gastroesophageal reflux include each of the following EXCEPT: - ansCaffeinated beverages Type 2 diabetes mellitus is associated with each of the following characteristics EXCEPT: - ansBeta cell mass markedly reduced Ventilation - ansThe flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs Vital signs increase during stage 1 of NREM sleep. - ansFalse, vital signs decrease during stage 1 of NREM sleep. Voluntary tongue movements are controlled by which cranial nerve? - ansCN XII. What allows the lymphocyte to differentiate between self and foreign molecules? - ansMajor histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule What are molecular and cellular mechanisms in genes that increase susceptibility to cancer? Select all that apply. - ans1:Lack of cellular senescence 2:Angiogenesis 3:Mutations in growth factor signaling pathways What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? - ansprotooncogenes What are the 2 factors that play a role in the development of autoimmune diseases? - ansgenetics and environmental factors What are the two major causes of microcytic anemias? - ansIron deficiency anemia, Thalassemias What are two important properties that stem cells possess? - ansPotency and self-renewal What are two systemic manifestations of cancer exhibited by cancer patients? - ansWeight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances What cell mediator is the primary cause of vasodilation seen in acute inflammation? - ansHistamine What is now the most common cause of chronic liver disease in the Western world? - ansNonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) What is the recommended calcium intake for premenopausal women? - ans1000 mg. daily What is the source of the hormone that plays a major role in the maintenance of body metabolism and growth and development in children? - ansThyroid What is the term that best describes the following process? Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 11 A transport protein aiding a lipid insoluble or large molecule across the cell membrane that would otherwise not be able to pass through on its own. - ansfacilitated diffusion What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? - ansActive transport What term means "cell eating" and engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter? - ansPhagocytosis What type of cell secretes gastrin? - ansG cells What type of gene is involved in repairing damaged DNA? - ansTumor suppressor gene What type of seizure occurs in 2 phases, involves a loss of consciousness, and lasts approximately 60-90 seconds? - ansTonic-clonic seizure When is the risk for obstructive atelectasis the greatest? What are strategies to decrease the chance for developing atelectasis? - ansThe risk of obstructive atelectasis is increased following surgery. Anesthesia, pain and pain medications, and immobility promote retention of bronchial secretions. Patients are encouraged to frequently cough, deep breath, change positions, hydrate adequately, and ambulate early to prevent atelectasis. When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer? - ansif it is a solid tumor and has clear margins Which are false of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. - ans1: They are found far from the site of energy consumption. 2:They control free radicals. Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. - ans1: Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within 2:Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells 3: Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation Which cell in the blood provides primary hemostasis - ansPlatelets Which cell is NOT part of the adaptive immune response? - ansmonocytes Which cell is the first responder to phagocytose a foreign invader? - ansmonocyte Which cell type is an early responder and the most abundant in the body? - ansNeutrophils Which feature is NOT of adaptive immunity? - ansEpithelium is a defense mechanism Which GI hormone has strong growth hormone-releasing activity and stimulates food intake and digestive function? - ansGhrelin Which GI hormone inhibits gastric acid secretion? - ansSecretin Which immunoglobulin passes immune factors from the mother to the fetus? - ansIgG Which is NOT included in the three principles of blood flow? - ansCompliance Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? - ansit includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? - ansEpithelial Which of the following are potential causes of a sickle crisis in sickle cell anemia? Select all that apply. - ans1: dehydration 2: cold exposure 3: physical exertion Which of the following are TRUE of hemophilia A? Select all that apply. - ansSpontaneous joint bleeding can occur, The PTT is increased Which of the following are true of the cell? Select all that apply. - ans1: Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane 2:Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell 3:Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2022 100%VERIFIED | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+. 12 Which of the following are true regarding syndesmoses? (mark all that apply) - ansThey allow a small degree of movement between them, They are separated by a fibrous disc Which of the following cells contribute to airway inflammation in asthma? Select all that apply. - ansEosinophils, mast cells, neutrophils, Leukotrienes, and lymphocytes Which of the following cells regulate bone growth through the secretion of growth factors and tumor necrosis factor? - ansOsteoblasts Which of the following contribute to joint destruction associated with OA? (mark all that apply) - ansDamaged chondrocytes, Interleukin -1beta, Tumor Necrosis Factor-Alpha, An imbalance of protease and protease inhibitors Which of the following does NOT affect the heart's ability to increase its output? - ansCardiac reserve Which of the following does NOT lead to an increased risk for DVT? Select all that apply. - ansNon-smoker Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine - anstype 1 Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. - anscongestive heart failure, smoking, and post-surgical state Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a classic manifestation of acute inflammation with its corresponding cause? - ansDolor - inflammatory cells infiltrating sensory nerves Which of the following is characteristic of chronic transplant rejection? - ansInvolves humoral immunity Which of the following is false regarding the synovium? - ansThe synovium surrounds the margins of articulation and lines the articulating surfaces of the joint Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing cancer? - ansSunscreen Which of the following is NOT associated with iron deficiency anemia? - ansNormocytic Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? - ansDietary deficiencies are common Which of the following is true of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol? - ansIt is the active form of vitamin D, converted in the kidney Which of the following is true of a test's sensitivity? - ansIf negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease Which of the following is true of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? - ansAngiotensin II increases sodium reabsorption in the kidney by stimulating the secretion of aldosterone Which of the following is/are true regarding acid-base balance? (mark all that apply) - ansAcid-base balance refers to the balance of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood, Venous blood is characterized by a more acidic pH, A higher concentration of OH- ions will increase the pH of the blood Which of the following medications would decrease a person's risk for clotting? Select all that apply. - ans1: Heparin 2: warfarin 3: lovenox Which of the following patients is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis and sustaining a fracture? Explain how you came to your conclusion. Patient A. is a 75-year-old white Caucasian male who has a history of a distal radius fractures at age 65. Patient B. is a 60- year-old African American female who is postmenopausal. She is active and does not have a history of fractures. - ansPatient A is at higher risk. Even though he is a male, he is advanced in age, white Caucasian, and sustained a fracture after the age of 50. Patient B is a postmenopausal female; however, she is active and of African American decent which is associated with high BMD and low rates of fracture.