PRN1725/ PRN 1725 Final Exam (New 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care IV, Exams of Nursing

Download PRN1725/ PRN 1725 Final Exam (New 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care IV and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PRN1725/ PRN 1725 Final Exam (New 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care IV Complete Guide| Questions and Verified Answers| All Modules | 100% Correct| A Grade - Rasmussen QUESTION if any area of the lung remains atelectatic for more than 72 hours, _________ from retained secretions is likely to occur Answer: hypostatic pneumonia QUESTION a ______ _______ _______ in the first 24-48 hrs after surgery often indicates atelectasis Answer: low grade fever QUESTION hypostatic pneumonia Answer: results when lack of movement or of position changes. causes stasis of secretions which becomes a breeding ground for bacteria. QUESTION after surgery, pain level and effectiveness of analgesia should be assessed at least every Answer: 3 hours QUESTION narcotic pain medication should be reduced by half for _____ hours post operative to prevent serious respiratory depression Answer: 8 QUESTION how does protein promote wound healing Answer: provides the amino acids that are the building blocks of tissue and are vital to the healing process QUESTION how does vitamin C promote wound healing Answer: necessary for collagen production, formation of capillaries that bring blood to the healing tissues, and for resistance to infection. QUESTION how does zinc, copper, and iron promote wound healing Answer: assists in formation of collagen QUESTION evisceration Answer: wound completely separates and contents of abdomen cavity protrudes through incision QUESTION patients most at risk for dehiscence or evisceration? Answer: diabetic, obese, malnourished, dehydrated, multiple abdomen traumas, or infected wound. QUESTION an increased heart rate and/or a low blood pressure can indicate Answer: blood loss QUESTION the more time spent in surgery, the greater risk of Answer: hypothermia QUESTION mild reaction symptoms to blood product Answer: rash, itching, flushing QUESTION serious reaction symptoms to blood product Answer: back pain, chills, flank pain, SOB QUESTION normal flora Answer: microorganisms that normally exist in the body and provide natural immunity against certain infections QUESTION the development of an infection is dependent on the interrelationship among the Answer: host, agent, and environment QUESTION pathogen Answer: any microorganism capable of producing disease QUESTION 3 routes for pathogens Answer: airborne, contact, droplet QUESTION 3 categories of bacteria Answer: shape, gram-staining properties, and oxygen requirements. QUESTION aerobic bacteria Answer: bacteria that requires oxygen to live and reproduce QUESTION anaerobic bacteria Answer: bacteria that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen QUESTION antibodies Answer: proteins that fight and destroy antigens QUESTION endotoxins Answer: reduced kidney perfusion, thrombus forms QUESTION why is PV disease a surgical risk Answer: thrombus formation, pressure sores QUESTION why is liver disease a surgical risk factor Answer: interferes with blood clotting QUESTION why is alcohol dependence a surgical risk factor Answer: alters reaction to anesthetics QUESTION why is smoking a surgical risk factor Answer: increased lung secretions, atelectasis and pneumonia QUESTION why is the regular use of certain drugs a surgical risk factor Answer: aspirin, nsaids, and anticoagulants make patient more prone to excessive bleeding. QUESTION what are the 4 goals of anesthesia Answer: prevent pain, adequate muscle reaction, calm fears and anxiety, induce forgetfullness. QUESTION 3 stages of general anesthesia Answer: induction, maintenance, emergence QUESTION what happens during the induction stage of general anesthesia Answer: unconsciousness induced QUESTION what happens during the maintenance stage of general anesthesia Answer: period where procedure occurs QUESTION what happens during the emergence stage of general anesthesia Answer: surgery completed, neuromuscular blocking agents reversed QUESTION potential intraoperative complications Answer: hemorrhage, infection, fluid volume excess or deficit, hypothermia, malignant hyperthermia, and positioning injury QUESTION malignant hyperthermia Answer: inherited disorder, muscle metabolism and heat production increase rapidly in response to surgery stress and some anesthetic agents. QUESTION large incisions increase risk of Answer: infection, heat loss, and bleeding complications. QUESTION atelectasis Answer: collapse of alveoli in lungs QUESTION 3 types of viruses Answer: extracellular parasite, slow growing QUESTION what are the body's 4 defenses against infection? (SNII) Answer: Skin, normal flora, inflammatory response, immune response QUESTION chain of infection Answer: causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, modes of transfer, portal of entry, susceptible host QUESTION the 3 most important aspects of the chain are the interaction between the Answer: agent, host, and mode of transmission QUESTION medical asepsis Answer: reduce microorganisms (clean technique) QUESTION surgical asepsis Answer: eliminates microorganisms (sterile technique) QUESTION 3 classifications of pain Answer: acute, cancer pain, and noncancer pain QUESTION nociceptive pain Answer: associated with pain stimuli from somatic or visceral structures QUESTION somatic Answer: body tissues QUESTION visceral Answer: organs QUESTION 4 pain processes in nociceptive pain Answer: transduction, transmission, perception, modulation QUESTION nociceptive pain- transduction Answer: tissue damage causes the release of substances that stimulate nociceptors and initiate pain sensation QUESTION nociceptive pain- transmission Answer: movement of pain sensation to spinal cord QUESTION nociceptive pain- perception Answer: impulses reach brain and pain is recognized QUESTION nociceptive pain- modulation Answer: neurons in brain send signals back down spinal cord by release of neurotransmitters QUESTION QUESTION Pain evaluation Answer: location, characteristics, quantity, pattern, associated factors, alleviating factors, aggravating factors QUESTION the nurse should check ____ ________ before beginning enteral feeding by xray Answer: tube placement QUESTION for enteral feeding, the nurse should record residual volume every ___ hours or as ordered Answer: 4 QUESTION during an enteral feeding, the head of the bed should be elevated at all times to Answer: 30 degrees QUESTION mouth care should be done every __ to __ hours for patients receiving an enteral feeding Answer: 4-6 QUESTION TPN complications Answer: catheter related mechanical problems, infections, metabolic abnormalities QUESTION What are the 6 QSEN competencies? (PTEQSI) Answer: patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics. QUESTION What QSEN competency? recognizes patient as source of control and full partner in providing compassionate/coordinated care. informed consent, transparency, and choices. Answer: patient-centered care QUESTION What QSEN competency? open communication, mutual respect, shared decision-making. working together, asking questions, clear documentation. Answer: teamwork and collaboration QUESTION What QSEN competency? integrate best current evidence with clinical expertise. 2 person med checks, allowing family to stay with client, providing care that meets cultural needs. Answer: evidence-based practice QUESTION What QSEN competency? use data to monitor outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods. risk management teams, reporting med errors, education on safety risks and reduction. Answer: quality improvement QUESTION What QSEN competency? minimize risk of harm to patients and providers, facility protocols and procedures, following nurse practice act, working within scope. Answer: safety QUESTION What QSEN competency? use info and technology to communicate. manage knowledge, mitigate error, support decision- making, electronic med delivery systems, reconciling records, documentation in patient record. Answer: informatics