Psychiatric Disorders and Treatments, Exams of Nursing

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NURS 307 Final EXAM QUESTIONS

WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

define family studies - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•analyze the occurrence of a disorder in first

degree relatives (biologic parents, siblings, children)

define twin studies - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•analyze the presence or absence of the disorder in

pairs of twins (identical, fraternal)

define concordance rate - CORRECT ANSWER_ -similarity of occurrence

in individuals with similar genetic make-up

define adoption studies - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•compare the risk of illnesses

developing in children raised in different environments

define neuroplasticity - CORRECT ANSWER_ -how function can be restored over time after brain

damage occurs or how individual may react over time to psychotherapy of continuous pharmacotherapy regimen

define plasticity - CORRECT ANSWER_ -the ability of the brain to change its structure and

function in response to internal and external pressures

• nerve signals may be rerouted

• nerve tissues may be regenerated

describe structural neuroimaging - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Allows for visualization of the brain

Ex: CT, MRI

what are the common side effects caused by blocking muscarinic receptors? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -•Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia

(anticholinergic)

describe dopamine - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Excitatory Neurotransmitter

•Involved in cognitive, motor & neuroendocrine functions •Abnormal dopaminergic activity associated with schizophrenia •Dopamine is also the neurotransmitter that stimulated the body's natural feel reward pathways producing pleasure and euphoric sensation under certain conditions •(Judgement, reasoning insight)

describe norepinephrine - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Widely distributed in the peripheral nervous

system •Excitatory neurotransmitters play a major role in mood states. •Decreased NE associated with depression; increased NE associated with mania

describe serotonin - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Involved in regulation of emotion, cognition,

sensory perceptions, sleep, and appetite. •Involved in control of food intake, hormone secretion, sexual behaviour, thermoregulation, and cardiovascular regulation.

describe histamine - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Recently identified as a neurotransmitter.

•Blocking produces side effects, such as sedation, weight gain, and hypotension.

what are the most prevalent neurotransmitters? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -amino acids

T/F virtually all neurons in the CNS are activated by excitatory and inhibitory amino acids - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -true

what was the first MAO-i? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -iproniazid

what are the four sites of action for meds? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Receptors

-Ion channels -Enzymes -Carrier proteins

describe benzodiazepines - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Benzodiazepines are used as sedatives,

hypnotics, anxiolytics, anticonvulsants and muscle relaxants •diazepam (Valium); lorazepam (Ativan); triazolam (Halcion)

define potency - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Dose required to produce the desired biologic response

define efficacy - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Ability of a drug to produce a desired response

define toxicity - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•refers to the point at which concentrations of the drug in

the bloodstream become harmful or poisonous to the body.

define high therapeutic index - CORRECT ANSWER_ --there is a wide range between dose at

which the drug begins to take effect and dose that would be considered toxic.

define pharmacokinetics - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•How a drug moves throughout the body to get

to its target receptors and then is eliminated.

define bioavailability - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Amount of drug that reaches systemic circulation

unchanged •Often used to compare one drug to another—usually the higher the bioavailability, the better

which metabolic enzyme is most responsible for drug metabolism? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -

Cytochrome P-

where is most metabolism carried out? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -liver

T/F psychiatric drugs must pass through the blood-brain barrier - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

what factors affect distribution of a drug? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Amount of blood flow or

perfusion within the tissue how lipophilic ("fat-loving") the drug is; plasma protein binding; and anatomic barriers, such as the blood-brain barrier, that the drug must cross

define half life - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•refers to the time required for plasma concentrations of

the drug to be reduced by 50%.

describe SSRIs - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- class of compounds typically used as antidepressants in

the treatment of major depressive disorder and anxiety disorders

• believed to increase the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin by inhibiting its re-uptake into the presynaptic cell

what are the phases of drug treatment? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -initiation, stabilization,

maintenance and discontinuation •The amount of drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged is known as the

drug's__________________. - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Bioavailability

define positive symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Excess distortion of normal function

-Hallucination (mostly auditory) -Delusions (disordered thoughts or speech) -Paranoia

define negative symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•A decrease or complete loss to emotional

respond to people and events. -Decrease in speaking (alogia) -Flat emotional levels -Inappropriate social responses to normal social cues

which type of antipsychotic has less side effects - typical or atypical - CORRECT ANSWER_ -

atypical antipsychotics (unconventional)

Define Extrapyramidal symptoms. - CORRECT ANSWER_ -drug-induced movement disorders

such as. akathisia (restlessness), parkinsonism & acute dystonia (involuntary muscle contractions)

Define neuroleptic malignant syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER_ -is a life-threatening idiosyncratic

reaction to antipsychotic drugs characterized by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction

• associated with virtually all neuroleptics, including newer atypical antipsychotics, as well as a variety of other medications that affect central dopaminergic neurotransmission

define tardive dyskinesia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -late-onset extrapyramidal symptom. Involves

repetitive, involuntary facial movements, such as tongue twisting, chewing motions and lip smacking, cheek puffing, and grimacing. You might also experience changes in gait, jerky limb movements, or shrugging.

name some common first generation antipsychotics - CORRECT ANSWER_ -haloperidol,

trifluoperazine, chlorpromazine

name some second generation antipsychotics - CORRECT ANSWER_ -risperidone, olanzapine,

quetiapine, aripiprazole

what are some common side effects of antipsychotic meds? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --

Cardiovascular: orthostatic hypotension -Weight gain: blocking histamine receptor -Endocrine and sexual: block dopamine, interfere with prolactin agranulocytosis

define dystonia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•involuntary muscle spasms, abnormal postures,

oculogyric crisis, torticollis

define akathisia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•inability to sit still, restlessness

define parkinsonism - CORRECT ANSWER_ -rigidity, akinesia (slow movement), tremor, mask-

like face, loss of spontaneous movements

what is the etiology of movement disorders? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Related to dopamine in

the nigrostriatal pathway that increases cholinergic activity

how are movement disorders treated? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Anticholinergic medication for

dystonia, parkinsonism (Artane and Cogentin). -Akathisia does not usually respond to anticholinergic medication. Beta-blockers have best success

what is the common cause of extrapyramidal symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -typical

antipsychotics (ex: haloperidol and fluphenazine)

what are common side effects of lithium carbonate? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•thirst, metallic

taste, increased frequency or urination, fine head-and-hand tremor, drowsiness, and mild diarrhea what medication will be used if lithium does not work for someone with bipolar disorder? -

CORRECT ANSWER_ -carbamazepine (tegretol)

define kindling - CORRECT ANSWER_ -emergence of spontaneous firing of nerve cells in

response to:

• Repeated subthreshold electrical stimulation of selected brain regions (e.g., amygdala) •Stimulation may be subthreshold and work cumulatively to produce a mood swing.

After a while, stimulation of these areas can be brought about by external events, memories, or spontaneously

what are the side effects of carbamazepine (tegretol)? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Dizziness,

drowsiness, tremor, visual disturbances, nausea, and vomiting •Minimized by treating in low doses •Weight gain •Alopecia (hair loss)

most common uncomfortable side effects of tricyclic antidepressants - CORRECT ANSWER_ --

Sedation -Orthostatic hypotension -Anticholinergic (dry mouth, constipation, etc)

name a few SSRIs - CORRECT ANSWER_ -fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, citalopram

what are the side effects of SSRIs - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Headache

•Anxiety •Transient nausea •Vomiting •Diarrhea •Weight gain •Sexual dysfunction

what is the action of MAOIs? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Inhibit the enzyme responsible for the

metabolism of serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine and tyramine

•Increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the CNS

what are the side effects of antianxiety and sedative-hypnotic meds? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --

Sedation and CNS depression -Tolerance and dependence (benzodiazepines)

describe ECT - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Initiate generalized seizures by an electrical current.

•Short-acting anesthetic and muscle relaxant given. •Repeat the procedure two to three times per week. •Produces rapid relief of depressive symptoms. •Side effects: hypo- or hypertension, bradycardia or tachycardia, and minor arrhythmias immediately after.

what are the most often cited reasons for non-adherence? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -side effects of

medications

how can we improve adherence? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -psychoeducation

•Dystonia and parkinsonism are common side effects of which type of medication/treatment? -

CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Antipsychotics

what are the two stages of sleep? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Rapid eye movement (REM)

-Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)

what are the three stages within the non-rapid eye movement stage of sleep? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ --Sleep architecture

-Sleep hypnogram -Sleep efficiency

T/F •During REM sleep, the body often moves. - CORRECT ANSWER_ -false

what are sleep pattern changes throughout the lifespan? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -adolescents:

Slower buildup of homeostatic sleep pressure women: Hormonal changes seen with the menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and menopause can all negatively affect sleep. children: As the child ages, the need for sleep decreases. older adults: Sleep becomes lighter; there is less slow-wave sleep and more superficial sleep

what is the most common primary sleep disorder in older adults? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -

insomnia, sleep disordered breathing, REM sleep behaviour disorder and restless leg syndrome

what are the consequences of inadequate sleep? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Impaired performance

of tasks requiring intense or prolonged attention -Cognitive slowing -Cognitive flexibility -Imagination

what is the nursing management of insomnia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•Nursing and medical

staff need to work together to minimize interruptions to patients' sleep at night. •Nursing stations are usually not soundproofed; nurses need to protect patient privacy and sleep. •Identify the patient's normal sleep routines and facilitate maintaining them where possible. •Examine the medications the patient is taking to see if any might be affecting sleep; assess to see if any usual home medications have not been provided since admission. •Identify and manage barriers to sleep (e.g., pain, excessive fluid and caffeine intake) where possible. •Examine the environment for sources of possible disturbances: reduce alarm levels on equipment where possible; offer earplugs or headphones. •Offer light therapy, relaxation techniques, sleep education, back rubs, bedtime snacks.

T/F Offering bedtime snacks to those suffering from insomnia tends to disrupt sleep. - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -false

what biologic factors predispose someone to chronic insomnia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Genetic

factors -Hyperactivity -Hypervigilance -Increased metabolic rate -Chronically elevated cortisol or reduced melatonin levels

what social factors predispose someone to chronic insomnia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Societal

or bed partner demands -Low income -Family and/or work stressors

what is the most common sleep-related breathing disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -obstructive

sleep apnea

what are biologic risk factors for OSA? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -•increased body mass index

(BMI), genetics, race, and age.

what treatment is available for OSA? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --Continuous positive airway

pressure therapy (CPAP) -Surgical treatments -Oral appliances -Weight loss

define parasuicide - CORRECT ANSWER_ -is self-harm behaviour that may look like suicidal

behaviour, but the individual's motive is not to end their life.

• May relieve certain emotions, or may produce physical pain to mask unbearable psychological pain one is experiencing.

what are common associations with suicide in the older adult population? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -widowhood, social isolation, poor physical health/functioning, loss of independence

which sexe is more likely to complete suicide? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -males, 3x more likely

BUT females are 4x more likely to attempt

what are diagnoses are risk factors for suicide according to the DSM-5? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -

depressive disorder, personality disorder, anorexia nervosa, schizophrenia, and post-traumatic stress disorder

define lethality - CORRECT ANSWER_ -the probability that someone will be successful in their

suicide attempt

when does the first episode of psychosis most often occur in those with schizophrenia? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -adolescence or early adult life

describe the stabilization period of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- symptoms less acute

but may still be present

• treatment is intense
• rehabilitation begins

describe maintenance and recovery periods of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- focus on

recovery to regain previous level of functioning and improve QOL

• family support and involvement extremely important

what is one of the major reasons for relapse in schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -non-

adherence to medication regimen

what are the different types of schizophrenia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -Paranoid (feeling

threatened), Catatonic (disturbed behavior), Disorganized (severe incoherence), Undifferentiated (not sure which one to classify under), residual

define positive symptoms of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- an excess or distortion of

normal functions (ex: delusions or hallucinations)

define negative symptoms of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -a lessening or loss of normal

functions

• flat affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia

define disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -confused speech,

confused thinking and disorganized behaviour

define late-onset schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- diagnostic criteria met after age 45

• most likely include positive symptoms

what are the risk factors for schizophrenia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- stresses in perinatal period

(e.g starvation, poor nutrition, infections)

• obstetrical complications
• genetic and family susceptibilities

what are some predictors for schizophrenia in children? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- delays in the

attainment of speech and motor development

• problems in social adjustment
• poorer academic and cognitive performance

what are comorbid factors of schizophrenia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- depression

• increased substance abuse
• cigarette smoking
• fluid

describe disordered water balance as part of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- prolonged

periods of polydipsia, intermittent hyponatremia, polyuria

• unknown etiology
• goal: prevent water intoxication, promote fluid balance

T/F hyperactivity of te mesolimbic tract relates to positive schizophrenia symptoms - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -true

T/F hyperactivity of the mesocortical tract relates to negative symptoms and cognitive impairment in

those with schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -false, hypoactivity does

describe the new antipsychotics used for treating schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- more

efficacious and safer

• block dopamine and serotonin
• ex: risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole T/F cigarette smoking will induce metabolism of medications metabolized by 1A2 enzymes like

olanzapine and clozapine - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

T/F carbamazepine will induce metabolism of clozapine, quetiapine and ziprasidone (meds metabolized

by 3A4) - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

T/F fluoxetine + paroxetine will inhibit metabolism of risperidone, clozapine and olanzapine (meds

affected by 2D6) - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

what are the nursing interventions if someone has neuroleptic malignant syndrome - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- stop administering offending med

• monitor VS
• reduce body temp if needed
• safety, protect muscles

describe anticholinergic crisis - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- confusion, hallucinations

• if goes untreated, may progress to coma and resp depression
• physostigmine is often used for treatment and diagnosis

how can you promote safety in a schizophrenia patient? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- monitor for

potential aggression

• administer meds as ordered
• reduce enviro stimuli
• individual approaches used for each patient (set limits, help them talk constructively, thorough hx of violence)

define schizoaffective disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- characterized by intervals of intense

symptoms alternating with quiescent periods

• better long term outcome than schizophrenia
• resembles mood disorder group in work function and schizophrenia group in social function

what are the biologic theories suspected to cause schizoaffective disorder? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- neuropathologic changes

• genetic predisposition
• overactivity of dopamine pathways

T/F there are no current behaviour, cognitive or developmental theories to explain schizoaffective

disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

what is the priority of care for schizoaffective disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -suicide

prevention

T/F Schizoaffective disorder is a mild form of schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -false, it is a

condition with the symptoms of schizophrenia accompanied by a mood disorder

what patient education should be provided to those with schizoaffective disorder? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- sleep patterns

• nutrition
• self-care activities

define delusional disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -stable, well-systemized and logical, nonbizarre

delusions that occur in the absence of other psychiatric disorders

define delusions - CORRECT ANSWER_ -fixed false beliefs

Define nonbizarre delusions - CORRECT ANSWER_ -plausible, but still fixed false beliefs

Define schizophreniform disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -like schizophrenia but less than 6

months in duration

define mood - CORRECT ANSWER_ -pervasive and sustained emotion that may have a major

influence on a person's perception of the world

define mood disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -recurrent disturbances or alterations in mood that

cause psychological stress and behavioural impairment

define major depressive disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- depressed mood (loss of interest for

at least 2 weeks)

• hopeless, discouraged
• progressive and recurrent
• mean age of onset is 40 yrs
• suicide is most serious complication

Define dysthymic disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -milder but more chronic than MDD

risk factors for major depressive disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- prior episode of depression

• family hx of depressive disorder
• lack of social support
• stressful life event
• current substance use
  • medical comorbidity
• economic difficulties

what are the goals of interdisciplinary treatment of MDD? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- reduce or

remove symptoms

• improve occupational and psychosocial functioning
• reduce likelihood of relapse

what is priority in care of MDD? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -safety, suicide risk

what meds are used to treat MDD? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- cyclic antidepressants

• SSRIs (fluoxetine, sertraline, citalopram)
• MAOIs (phenelzine, tranylcypromine)
• Atypical antidepressants (buproprion, venlafaxine, mirtazapine)

what are the side effects of tricyclic antidepressants? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -anticholinergic and

antihistaminic

• sedation/drowsiness
• weight gain
• dry mouth
• constipation
• sinus tachycardia

what is important to teach to the patient with MDD? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- if depression goes

untreated or poorly treated, episodes may become more frequent and intense

• important to continue meds
• avoid st. john's wort

central features of mania? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- overactivity

• elevated or irritable mood

• grandiose ideas of self-importance

describe a manic episode - CORRECT ANSWER_ -characterized by abnormally or persistently

elevated expansion or irritable mood for a duration of at least 1 week ex: little sleep, talking fast, racing thoughts, easily distracted, etc

define bipolar I - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- combination of major depression and full mani c

episode

• mixed episodes: alternating between manic and depressive episodes

define bipolar II - CORRECT ANSWER_ -combination of major depression and hypomania (less

severe form of mania)

what are priority issues for bipolar disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- safety from poor

judgment and risk-taking behaviours

• risk for suicide during depressive disorders

what assessments should be performed by the nurse on a patient with bipolar disorder? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- evaluate mania symptoms

• sleep
• irritability and physical exhaustion
• eating habits, weight loss
• lab studies (thyroid), especially reviewing blood levels of lithium carbonate and divalproex sodium***
• hypersexual, risky behaviours
• pharmacologic, alcohol use

describe the four phases of pharmacologic treatment? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- acute: symptom

reduction and stabilization

• continuation: prevention of relapse
• maintenance: sustained remission
• discontinuation: very carefully, if at all

name common mood stabilizers - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- lithium carbonate

• divalproex sodium
• carbamazepine (tegretol)

which phase of pharmacological treatment focuses on preventing relapse? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -continuation

define anxiety - CORRECT ANSWER_ -emotion characterized by the apprehension or dread of a

potentially threatening or uncertain outcome

describe anxiety disorders - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- all share excessive fear or anxiety as their

core symptom

• specific disorder differ in their key features
• panic attacks, obsessions, compulsions

describe generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- persistent and excessive

anxiety and worry about occupational, social and interpersonal situations or events that the individual finds difficult to control

describe obsessive-compulsive disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- severe obsession (repetitive,

intrusive thoughts), compulsions (repetitive, ritualistic behaviours), or both

• obsessions cause anxiety, and the compulsions are in attempt to reduce or eliminate it

describe social phobia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -a marked or intense fear of social situations

• highly sensitive to disapproval or criticism
• poor self-esteem and distorted view of strengths and weaknesses

describe panic disorder (PD) - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- abrupt surges of intense fear or discomfort

that peak within minutes

• characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks and fear of prompting another attach, limits ability to function social, occupationally and interpersonally
• typically accompanied by fear of death

describe a panic attack - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- discrete periods of fear or discomfort (10 to 30

mins)

• physical (palpitations, rapid pulse, trembling, SOB)
• cognitive (disorganized thinking, irrational fears, etc)

define phobias - CORRECT ANSWER_ -persistent, unrealistic fears

define agoraphobia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -fear of open spaces, often co-occurs with PD

T/F there is a substantial genetic predisposition to anxiety disorders - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

what neurotransmitters and neuropeptides are involved in generalized anxiety disorder? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -norepinephrine, serotonin, GABA (most abundant), corticotropin-release hormone,

cholecystokinin

risk factors for anxiety disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -family hx, substance and stimulant use

or abuse, undertaking severe stressors, genetic predisposition, female gender children: physical or sexual abuse, behavioural inhibition by adults

what biologic interventions can be used for anxiety disorders? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --

breathing control, nutritional planning, relaxation techniques

describe SSRIs used in anxiety disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- generally first-line meds for

most anxiety disorders (also norepinephrine-selective reuptake inhibitors)

describe the use of tricyclic antidepressant therapy for anxiety disorders - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- reduce panic attacks, but significant side effects

• usually only considered in the event that SSRIs or NSSRIs have failed

describe benzodiazepine therapy for anxiety disorder - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- fast therapeutic

onset

• very usually for distressed patients
• highly addictive

what assessments should be done in the psychological domain for anxiety disorder? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- patterns of anxiety, characteristic symptoms, person's emotional, cognitive and

behavioural reponses, presence of suicidal tendencies and thoughts, present and past coping

what psychological interventions should be used for anxiety disorder? - CORRECT ANSWER_ --

distraction, positive self-talk, CBT, exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, provide pt with info

describe existential anxiety - CORRECT ANSWER_ -involves three areas of apprehension:

1. fate and death
2. emptiness and meaninglessness
3. guilt and condemnation

what do you do in the event of caring for someone experiencing a panic attack? - CORRECT

ANSWER_ -- stay with them

• reassure them that you will not leave
• give clear directions
• assist them to an enviro with minimal stimulation -walk with pt
  • administer PRN anxiolytics

characteristics for dx of anorexia nervosa - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- body image distortion

• low body weight
• binge eating
• depression
• obsession

• apathy

what are the two types of anorexia? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -restricting type (also includes

excessive exercise) and binge-eating/purging type

biologic etiology of anorexia - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- dieting (risk factor and etiology)

• biopsychosocial model best explains
• no evidence of brain structure changes or dysregulation of satiety system as a cause

T/F core struggles with eating disorders are spiritual in nature - CORRECT ANSWER_ -true

• difficulty affirming self-worth
• feeling distant/disconnected from family and friends

risk factors for eating disorders - CORRECT ANSWER_ -biologic: dieting, altered metabolic rate,

hx of overweight/obesity, overexercising sociocultural: media, fashion industry, peer pressure, family attitudes psychological: low self esteem, body dissatisfaction, feeling of ineffectiveness, sexual abuse

what are the goals of treatment for eating disorders? - CORRECT ANSWER_ -- nutritional rehab

• resolving conflicts are body image
• increase effective coping
• assess underlying conflicts
• assist family with healthy communication and functioning