PTCB Practice Exam Questions and Answers 2024, Exams of Nursing

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PTCB Practice Exam Questions and Answers 2024

1. Knowing which of the following can best assist a technician in the preven-tion of data entry errors? A. Names of medications B. Insurance co-payments C. Pharmacokinetics D. Physician contact information: Answer- A. Names of medications
2. Which of the following injectable drugs would be stored in refrigerator? A. Clindamycin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Cyanocobalamin D. Calcitonin-salmon: Answer- D. Calcitonin-salmon
3. The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if ap-proved by the third-party payer is called: A. claims reconciliation B. capitation payment C. prior authorization D. claims adjudication: Answer- C. prior authorization
4. For a medication to be within the 5% margin of error permitted by the USP, the minimum amount that can be weighed on a Class A prescription balance is:

A. 6 mg B. 12 mg C. 120 mg D. 120 g: Answer- C. 120 mg

5. What is the percentage concentration of a solution that contains 500 mg/50 mL? A. 0.5% B. 1% C. 5% D. 10%: Answer- B. 1%
6. A pharmacy technician receives an order for Lortab 5/500 mg tablets every 4 to 6 hours p.r.n. No refill information is provided. The technician should conclude that the prescription:

D. 5% dextrose and 0.45% sodium chloride injection USP 500 mL: A. Potassium chloride injection 10 mEq/5 mL 30 mL

10. Which of the following medications requires a caution to take with food? A. Ibuprofen B. Levothyroxine C. Azithromycin D. Tetracycline: A. Ibuprofen
11. POS computer systems help the pharmacy to determine the patient's: A. diagnosis B. co-payment

C. drug allergies D. prescription history: B. co-payment

12. What volume, in milliliters, of a drug for injection 250 mg/10 mL should be used to fill an order for 15 mg? A. 0. B. 6 C. 10 D. 16.6: A. 0.
13. In the absence of stability information, water-containing formulations (pre-pared for ingredients in solid form) should be assigned by a beyond- use date that is: A. the same as the expiration date listed on the product B. no later than 30 days C. no later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature D. no later than 25% of the time remaining until the product's expiration date: C. no later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature
14. According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), abbrevia-tions used during prescription writing: A. are no longer acceptable B. improve entry time C. are prone to errors D. facilitate the prescriber: C. are prone to errors
15. Durable medical equipment may be reimbursable to the pharmacy under

17. Concerning needle recapping, which of the following is correct? A. Used insulin needles are small enough that they can be disposed of in regular garbage B. Used immunization needles should be recapped before being placed in the sharps container C. Used immunization needles should never be recapped D. Used insulin needles are small enough that they can safely be recapped before being placed in a sharps container: C. Used immunization needles should never be recapped
18. A pharmacy technician must administer 1000 mL of TPN solution at 75 mL/hr. If the set delivers 20 gtt/mL, the flow rate in gtt/min will be: A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35: B. 25
19. OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect healthcare workers from which of the following infectious diseases? A. Influenza B. Pneumonia C. C-difficile D. Hepatitis B: D. Hepatitis B
20. An outpatient prescription requires which of the following?

A. Medication lot number B. Pharmacy address and phone number C. Physician's phone number and address D. Medical conditions: C. Physician's phone number and address

21. Which of the following drugs is the generic for Coumadin? A. Ticlopidine B. Warfarin C. Metoprolol D. Clopidogrel: B. Warfarin
22. Which of the following medications is exempt form the Poison Prevention Packaging Act requirement for child-resistant containers?

D. Azithromycin: A. Cephalexin

26. The auxiliary label for amoxicillin oral suspension should contain which of the following instructions? A. Take with food B. May cause urine discoloration C. Shake well D. May cause drowsiness: C. Shake well
27. The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third-party claim is a: A. person code B. BIN

C. group number D. member nubmber: B. BIN

28. The most appropriate container size, in ounces, for dispensing 240 mL of liquid medication is: A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8:D.
29. If a toxic or caustic material comes in contact with the skin or eyes, the immediate response is to: A. lie down and elevate the affected area B. call 911 and place an ice bag on the affected area until medical personnel arrive C. wash the area thoroughly with an antibacterial soap and warm water D. flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water: D. flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water
30. A physician order phenobarbital elixir 60 mg for a patient. The drug is available in a 20 mg/5 mL concentration. How many teaspoonfuls should be given for each dose? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4:C.

33. To avoid exceeding the 24-hour acetaminophen does limit of 4 g, patients taking Darvocet-N 100 mg/650 mg should be cautioned not to take more than how many tablets daily? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 10: B. 6
34. The form used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances is: A. DEA 106 B. DEA 222 C. FDA 356 D. FDA 766: A. DEA 106
35. How many bottles of humulin R insulin would be dispensed for a 90 day supply if the prescription states "inject 10 units SC every morning, 8 units SC at lunch, and 12 units SC at bedtime"? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5:C.
36. A patient wants to transfer a prescription from the originating pharmacy to another pharmacy. The pharmacy technician should:

A. call the receiving pharmacy and provide the necessary information to another pharmacist B. inform the patient that it is illegal to transfer prescriptions C. accommodate the patient and process the transfer as expeditiously as possible D. refer the patient to an on-duty pharmacist to process the transfer: D. refer the patient to an on-duty pharmacist to process the transfer

37. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription from a patient. The patient needs all medications to be crushed. Which of the following would you alert the pharmacist to before entering in the prescription? A. Oxybutynin immediate release 5 mg tablet B. Metformin 500 mg sustained action tablet

A. 0.45%

B. 0.9%

C. 9.0%

D. 23.4%: B. 0.9%

42. Which of the following is the most important information to collect for a patient's pharmacy profile? A. Current marital status B. Current employment status C. Herbal and dietary supplements used by the patient D. Office equipment and supplies used by the patient: C. Herbal and dietary supplements used by the patient

43. Which of the following occurred when a specialty pharmacy dispensed Lupron Depot-Ped for Lupron Depot-3 Month injection for an adult patient? A. Look-alike/sound-alike mistake B. Wholesaler error C. Prescribing issue D. Bar code validation error: A. Look-alike/sound-alike mistake
44. A prescription reads, "percodan tablets, dispense 120, take 1 tablet by mouth every 6 hours as needed for back pain." The technician should: A. refer the patient to another pharmacy B. refuse to fill the prescription and return it to the patient C. call the regional DEA office to report a forged prescription D. fill the prescription as written: D. fill the prescription as written
45. When is it necessary to recap a needle, which of the following is correct? A. needles should never be recapped under any circumstances B. two hands should be used for recapping needles to ensure stability C. the "one-hand scoop" method of recapping is safer than using two hands D. all used needles should be recapped before being placed in a sharps container: C. the "one-hand scoop" method of recapping is safer than using two hands
46. How much dextrose, in grams, is contained in 1000 mL of D10W? A. 1 B. 10

C. wholesaler's name D. patient's name: B. generic name(s)

49. In The Orange Book, the letter "AB" rating indicates that products: A. are considered bioequivalent B. required clinical trials to determine the preferred route of administration C. required clinical trials to determine the efficacy of the drug D. are considered therapeutically nonequivalent: A. are considered bioequiva-lent
50. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for insulin with the sig reading "52 units q.a.m. and 48 units q.p.m." As the prescription is entered into the patient's profile, the technician notices that the patient may not be taking medications as directed, and the compliance may be an issue. What should the technician do? A. Show the information to the pharmacist for consultation with the patient B. Omit alerting the pharmacist to the patient's possible misuse of medication C. Assume that the patient and his or her physician have discussed this situation D. Consult with the patient about proper dosing of his or her medication: A. Show the information to the pharmacist for consultation with the patient
51. When a patient is required to go to a network healthcare provider, the patient is insured through: A. a preferred-provider organization B. workers' compensation

C. a pharmacy benefit manager D. a health maintenance organization: D. a health maintenance organization

52. The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert for a medication can also be found in: A. the Physician's Desk Reference B. The Red Book C. The Orange Book D. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy: A. the Physician's Desk Reference
53. Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains suma-triptan and which other medication?