QMA State Test Questions with Correct Answers, Exams of Pharmacology

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QMA State test questions with correct

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ccms Correct Answer-clean catch midstream QMA scope of practice Correct Answer-may perform hemoccult testing on stool specimens as ordered by a physician hemoccult testing Correct Answer-A screen for fecal occult blood Hemoccult test slide (quaiac paper) Correct Answer-assess for expiration date hypovalemia Correct Answer-state of decreased blood volume. May cause a high false oximetry reading. QMA's may not apply oxygen to a resident in an emergency without a physicians order. Correct Answer-However there is often a PRN order for oxygen when the resident falls short of breath/oxygen saturation levels are low. QMA's may initiate a nasal cannula only in an emergency situation. Correct Answer-QMA's may initiate non-sealing mask per emergency or PRN situation. oxygen dries out the mucous membranes of the mouth and respiratory system. Correct Answer-The physician may order humidity to be placed on the oxygen source. Physician ordered humidity along w/ oxygen. (distilled water) Correct Answer- This means gas passes through the water and water vapor is picked up before going to the resident.

When applying sterile/distilled water to residents oxygen remember to. Correct Answer-discard the sterile/distilled water after 2 weeks. Portable oxygen tanks Correct Answer-have a few lbs of oxygen, they can last up to 8 hrs. Oxygen concentrator weighs approximately 35 lbs. It must be plugged in to an electrical outlet. Correct Answer-Concentrator's extract oxygen from the room air and circulates it back to the resident. Do not use petroleum (vasoline) to resident's nares during administration of oxygen. Correct Answer-Example: dry lips, chap-stick should not be applied if it has vasoline in it. Signs/symptoms of respiratory distress Correct Answer-rapid pulse, rapid,shallow, flaring nostrils, restlessness respirations, cyanosis. Position the resident in a Semi-Fowler's or Fowler's to maintain an open airway. Correct Answer-Apply ordered oxygen administration device. Nasal cannula 1/2 inch prongs should be placed? Correct Answer-in a downward direction. A reading on the oximetry of 90% may indicate? Correct Answer-Resident need to be given oxygen' Instilling a Commercially Prepared Disposable Enema. Correct Answer-Solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon. Removes feces/flatus.

QMA's may only instill a commercially prepared enema which contains approximately Correct Answer-120ml (4oz.) of fluid. Commercially Prepared Disposable Enema's increases water absorption in the small intestine by osmotic action. Correct Answer-A laxative effect that occurs due to increased peristalsis and water retention. Sodium bi-phosphate (fleet enema) Correct Answer-is a saline laxative commonly ordered to be administered. Record color, consistency and amount after resident has had a Correct Answer- bowl movement from a prepared disposable enema A localized collection of puss in any part of the body which is the result of disintegration or displacement of tissue. Correct Answer-Abscess Chemical present in many organs and tissues of the body that has important physiological functions, ex: transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse i.e. neurotransmitters. Correct Answer-Acetylcholine Naturally acquired immunity obtained by contracting a disease or by the injection the infectious organism. Correct Answer-Active Immunity An undesired side effect of a medication or toxicity Correct Answer-Adverse effect Psychotic reaction in which a person exhibits wide swing in emotional feeling. Correct Answer-Affective psychosis

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome effect the body's ability to fight infections Correct Answer-(AIDS) Spread through body fluids Motor restlessness continuous movement of mouth, hands, picking at self and rocking in a chair Correct Answer-Akathisia Complete or partial loss of muscle movement Correct Answer-Akinesia A substance that causes a hypersensitive reaction (an allegy) Correct Answer- Allergen Sensitivity to any substance contacted by touch, inhalation, ingestion or injections ( such as poison ivy, pollen, insect bites, foods or meds); causes sneezing, itching, swelling, difficulty in breathing Correct Answer-Allergic Effect Medications that relieve muscle, joint and bone pain Correct Answer-Analgesics Life threatening allergic reaction caused by an allergen. Characterized by respiratory difficulty, fainting, itching, and welts on the skin. Correct Answer- Anaphylactic Reaction Substance producing or stimulating the development of male characteristics (masculinization) such as hormones and testosterone and androsterone. Correct Answer-Androgens A reduction in the number of circulating red blood cells. Correct Answer-Anemia Detoxes or metabolizes meds Correct Answer-Liver

Excretes most meds Correct Answer-Kidneys 16 oz. Correct Answer-1 Lb Annual in-service education requirement period begins March 1st and concludes the last day of Correct Answer-February on the next year. Recertification cost $10. The Qualified Medication Aide program was established in Correct Answer- (p4) The annual in-service education period begins on March 1st. Correct Answer-And concludes on the last day of February the following year. $10 fee is required for an annual recertification Correct Answer- Medications shall be administered by the person who has set up the doses, Correct Answer-except under a single unit dose package system. A facility must ensure that it is free of med errors Correct Answer-5% or less errors maintained. All unused portions of med's including controlled substances Correct Answer-shall be released to the discharged resident unopen med's can be returned to the pharmacist Correct Answer-for credit to the appropriate party.

Unused med's not returned to the pharmacist for credit or to the discharged resident Correct Answer-must be crushed within 7 days by a pharmacists or licensed nurse with a witness. A QMA cannot assess a residents condition Correct Answer- QMA's can Correct Answer-count,administer, and document controlled substances Cannot initiate Nasal cannula or non-sealing mask Correct Answer-Only in an emergency Nasal gastric tube Correct Answer-QMA CANNOT administer Practicum (40) completed within Correct Answer-3 months must apply within 6 months of classroom completion Correct Answer-Passing with a score of t least 80% must be submitted within 30 days of practicum completion. QMA's can only administer metered dose inhalation (inhalers) med's Correct Answer-No other kind of inhalation med's. QMA's CANNOT administer medication per NASOGASTRIC TUBE Correct Answer- QMA's Cannot Correct Answer-instill irrigation fluids of any type including colostomy, catheter, and enema, except a commercially prepared enema. QMA'S can Crush and administer med's Correct Answer-per physicians orders

QMA's can alter med's per physicians orders Correct Answer-QMA's can administer med's per G-tube and J-tube. QMA's can apply topical med's to minor skin conditions such as Correct Answer- dermatitis, scabies, pediculosis, fungal-infections, psoriasis, eczema, first-degree burns, stage one decubitis ulcer administer med's via metered dosed inhaler Correct Answer- QMA's CAN Provide ordered site care and apply a dressing to a healed G-tube and J-tube site Correct Answer- QMA's CAN empty and change a colostomy bag Correct Answer- QMA's can instill a commercially prepared enema (approximately 120 ml or 4. ounces) Correct Answer-after the resident has been assessed by the Licensed nurse (for bowl sounds and potential impaction) "Duty of Care" residents are protected from healthcare negligence-malpractice. Correct Answer-Negligence: omission or neglect of any reasonable precaution, care or action. Malpractice: improper, injurious or neglect professional treatment or care of a resident. Correct Answer-Assault and Battery: the threat to use force upon another person and the carrying out of the threat.

Standard of care: A description of conduct that illustrates what a reasonably prudent person would have done - Correct Answer-or would not have done, under similar circumstances. Slander: a malicious statement or report. Correct Answer-Code of Ethics: A voluntary set of rules that influence relationships between people. Rights of Residents: !) The right to refuse meds and Tx. 2)The right to be informed of consequences of refusing med's and Tx. 3)Freedom from physical and mental abuse and neglect. Correct Answer-4)Freedom from restraints without a physician's order. 5) The right to privacy. 6)The right to confidential treatment. Resident are protected from health care negligence-malpractice by a law called "Duty of Care". Correct Answer-Be knowledgeable of the med's you are administering, including their actions and potential adverse effects. Both residents and health care workers are protected by the standard of Correct Answer-"reasonable care" "Six rights" of medication administration are: 1) give the "Right Med's". 2) Give the "Right Dose". 3) Give med to the "right Resident". Correct Answer-4) Give med's at the "Right Route". 5) Give med's at the "Right Time". 6) "Right Documentation" Resident's Rights: 1) Confidentiality. 2) Privacy. 3) Be informed of personal and medical information. 4) Choices. 5) Voice Grievances. Correct Answer-6) Freedom from Abuse and Restraints> bid-2x's/day. tid-3x's/day. qid-4x's/day. qd-daily. qod-every other day. hs- t bedtime. ac-before meals approximately 1/2 hour before meal. pc-after meals

approximately 1/2 hour after meal. Correct Answer-qh- every hour. q2h -every two hours. qoh-every other hour. ad lib-as desired. c-with. Fx-fracture. HS-bedtime or hour of sleep. hx- history. MKAB- may keep at bedside. NKA no known allergy. Correct Answer-N/V- nausea and vomiting. o -orally. OD- right eye. OS-left eye. os-mouth. ou-both eyes. p-after. PA- posterior and Anterior. q-every. qam- every morning. qhs-every night. R/T,(r/t)- related to. Rx-prescription or treatment. s- without. s/ssigns/symptoms. TPR- temperature, pulse and respirations. vs (v/s)- vital signs. Alzheimer med- donepezil (Aricept) Adverse effects:headache, insomnia,seizures,dizziness fatigue, depression, syncope and hallucinations, weight loss and dehydration. Correct Answer-therapeutic class:Anti-Alzheimer drug. Pharmacologic class cholinesterase inhibitor. Works by slowing the break down of a chemical called acetylcholine, this chemical is involved in learning and memory. Infection control Correct Answer-preventing the spread of microorganisms by following certain practices and procedures. medical Asepsis: Correct Answer-The state of being free from disease causing micoorganisms. Microorganisms can only be seen Correct Answer-through a microscope Nosocomial: Correct Answer-Refers to an infection acquired while in a health care facility. Pathogen: Correct Answer-Disease causing organism.

Microorganisms that may cause infection are called pathogens Correct Answer- (germs) and include bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoa. Infection chain explains how pathogens move from one place to another. The 6 links that make up the chain are: Correct Answer-1)Pathogen: causative agent bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoa. 2)Reservoir: the place where pathogens live and multiply places that are warm, dark and moist, linen, medical equipment, surfaces, animals and humans. 3) Port of exit: the way pathogens leave the body urine, feces, saliva, tears, drainage from wounds,sores, blood and excretion from respiratory tract or genitals. 4) Route of transmission: how pathogens travel through the air (airborne), in contaminated soil and water, on objects (dirty linen,clothing, equipment), by insects (flies, mosquitoes, maggots) on people especially hands. 5)Portal of Entry: the way pathogens get into the body cuts or breaks in the skin or mucous membranes, respiratory tract, GI tract, genital or urinary tract, circulatory system. 6) The individual who acquires the pathogen a susceptible host is unable to resist the pathogen and it begins to reproduce and cause infection, susceptible host include the very young, persons who are nott in good health, people who are exposed to large numbers of pathogens and people who do not follow proper infection control practice. Absorption occurs when Correct Answer-med's move from the site of administration into the blood liquid med's: fluid extracts-a concentrated alcohol of a vegetable medication. Tincture: An alcohol solution of animal or vegetable medication or chemical substance. Spirits: An alcohol solution or a volatile substance. Correct Answer- Syrup: Med's made with water, flavoring and sugar. Elixirs: A water-alcohol solution which may contain water and flavoring. Suspensions:Fluid mixture that needs to be shaken which only stay together for a short period of time. Milks: Bulky suspension in water that is insoluble and must be shaken.

Emulsions:Suspension of oil, water and other substances. Correct Answer-used as the base for other preparations, such as cosmetics and dermatologics (Ex: cod liver oil) Liniments: for external application only. Correct Answer-Topical analgesics: can be used in a liniment. Heat effect is caused by menthol (Ex: Icy hot and Ben Gay) Sprays: Used mostly to treat the nose throat and skin membranes (Ex: Granules spray, Neo-synephrine nasal spray Correct Answer-Solution: saline solution Tablets, including caplets 1) Compressed Ex: aspirin. Coated: improves taste (Ex: Darvocet) Correct Answer-Enteric coated: to prevent irritation or absorption in the stomach (Ex: ASA, Ecotrin). Capsules: Regular tasteless, dissolve rapidly (Ex: Dilantin, Achromycin) The alimentary canal (GI tract) aids in the digestion of food- Correct Answer-the passageway for food and is a continuous tract from the mouth to the anus' GI tract is divided into two parts. 1st part; Alimentary canal mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestines, rectum and large intestine. Correct Answer-The Accessory organs of the Digestive System is the 2nd part: Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gall bladder. Alimentary Canal: Mouth (oral Cavity), Esophagus -connects mouth and stomach, Stomach c-shaped in the upper left side of the abdomen below the diaphragm, (Small intestine- duodenum, jejunum and the ileum.) Large intestine- absorbs water from the contents. Correct Answer-Accessory organs of the Digestive system: Teeth, salivary glands, (pancreas -small gland located behind the stomach upper left side-secretes insulin a hormone that is necessary to metabolize (use) sugar) (liver- highly vascular organ located in the upper right of the abdomen-

secretes digestive substances,) (gallbladder-located behind the liver- stores bile from the liver until it is needed for digestion of fat- it is green) Many medications are metabolized in the liver, Correct Answer-The digestive System is a system that works to break down the chemical components of food through the of digestive juices. The digestive process begins in the mouth with the teeth that grind the food int small particles. Correct Answer- Disorders of the GI system-Cirrhosis- scar tissue replaces normal tissue, constipation, Diarrhea, Dyspepsia- indigestion, GERD, fecal impaction, Hepatitis- inflammation of the liver, Parasites, Pyorrhea inflammation of the gums and tooth sockets, and ulcers. Correct Answer- elderly effects on the GI Liver decrease in wt. there is a decline in the hepatic enzymes involved in oxidation and reduction, causing less efficient metabolism in med's and detoxification in substances. Correct Answer- Antacids: action- neutralizes stomach acids; decreases the rate of gastric emptying; treats hyperacidity. Nursing considerations: They may interfere w/ other med's absorption should wait 1-2 hrs before giving other med's. Correct Answer-Use: peptic ulcers, heartburn, reflux esophagitis, gastritis, hiatal hernia, Med's calcium salts(Tums), aluminum salts(Amphojel, Rolaids) magnesium salts(Milk of Magnesium, Alternajel- usually causes diarrhea), combo- magnesium and aluminum(Malox, Milanta, Gelusil, Riopan)- used to balance out the constipating effect. Anti-ulcer: Action: prevents the release of gastric acid to treat or prevent stomach or duodenal ulcers. Nursing consideration- dissolve Carafate in water. Encourage resident to avoid- spicy foods, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol, and carbonated

beverages. Correct Answer-Ex: of med's: famotidine (Pepcid), nizatidine (Axid), ranitidine( Zantac), cimtidine(Tagamet), misoprostol( Cytotec), pantoprazole(Prevacid). Med's to be given before meals include- omeprazole(Prilosec), sulcrofate(Carafate), lansoprazole (Prevacid), esomeprazole magnesium ( Nexium) Antiemetics: Action- suppresses nausea/vomiting by acting on the brain control center. USE- to treat nausea/vomiting. Side effects- drowsiness. monitor blood pressure for hypertension. Correct Answer-Ex: of med's-dimenhydrinate (Dramamine), trimethobenzamide (Tigan), meclizine(, prochlorerazine (Compazine), promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan.) Emetics: action- induce vomiting by acting on the brains control center. Use- when poison has been ingested. Side effects- do not use if metals have been ingested (acids or alkalies) Correct Answer-Ex: Syrup of Ipecac, induces vomiting in usually 20 to 30 minutes. Antidiarrheals: med's that relieve diarrhea. Absorbents: action-absorbs(soaks up) excess fluids and bacteria. USE: to treat diarrhea. Side effects- constipation, nausea, dry mouth, abdominal pain. Correct Answer-Ex: of med's- kaolin, bismuth ( Pepto-Bismol), pectin( from apples), kaolin and pectin(Kaopectate.) Opiates: med's that slow down intestinal mobility. Action- reduces peristalisis by action on central nervous system and diminishes secretions. USE: to treat diarrhea. Side effects- drowsiness, may be addictive Correct Answer-Ex" of med- opiates(Paregoric Cathartic (laxatives). Laxatives which stimulate intestinal peristalsis; usually act in 6-8 hrs when given in oral form. Suppositories act faster. Side effect nausea, cramping, Correct Answer-Ex: of laxatives- castor oil, senna ( Senokot), bisacodyl (Dulcolax), phenolphthalein (Ex-Lax , Doxidan)

GI med's that alter motility. Action- acts on autonomic nervous system to alter peristalsis. Use spastic colon, diarrhea, GERD. Side effects- blurred vision, dry mouth, heart palpitations, urine retention, constipation. Monitor v/s (vital signs) and urinary output Correct Answer-Ex: of med's for decreased motility- atropine sulfate, diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil), Atropine, scopolamine, phenobarbital (Donnatal), kaolin, pectin, ,loperamide (Imodium), diclomine (Bentyl) Examples of med's that enhance intestinal motility metoclopramide(Reglan give before meals), Saline laxatives pull fluid into the large intestine. Action- acts within 8hrs. Side effects- cramping and diarrhea. Correct Answer-Ex: Milk of Magnesia. Nursing consideration shake suspension well, monitor for good fluid intake. Lubricant Laxatives: Action- increase water retention in stool thereby stimulating evacuation, Side effects- interferes w/ absorbing nutrients, should not be taken at meal time. Correct Answer-Ex: Mineral oils works within 2-6 hrs administer on an empty stomach. Haley's MO. Glycerin suppository should be retained for at least 15 minutes for best results. May interfere w/ vitamin absorption. Laxatives that moisten fecal matter. Action- stool softener, used to promote regular bowel evacuation,. Side effects mild abdominal cramping can cause diarrhea Correct Answer- famotidine:(Pepcid AC) TC-Antiulcer drugs; PC- H2- recepter antagonist. Adverse reactions- CNS headaches. GI-constipation, diarrhea. Correct Answer- Competitively inhibits action of histamine on the H2-recepter sites of parietal cells, decreasing gastric cid secretion. Mechanism of action — Histamine-2 receptor antagonists (H2RAs) (eg, cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, and nizatidine) inhibit acid secretion by blocking H2 receptors on the parietal cell (figure 1).

H2RAs are well absorbed after oral dosing; peak serum concentrations occur within one to three hours. Absorption is reduced 10 to 20 percent by concomitant antacid administration, but not by food. Antacids: aluminum hydroxide, calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, magnesium oxide, sodium bicarbonate. Antacids may be formulated with other active ingredients such as simethicone to control gas or alginic acid to act as a physical barrier to acid.[4]When excessive amounts of acids are produced in the stomach the natural mucous barrier that protects the lining of the stomach can damage the esophagus in people with acid reflux. Antacids contain alkaline ions that chemically neutralize stomach gastric acid, reducing damage and relieving pain.[1] Correct Answer-Versions with magnesium may cause diarrhea, and brands with calcium or aluminium may cause constipation and rarely, long-term use may cause kidney stones. Long-term use of versions with aluminium may increase the risk for getting osteoporosis. Antiemetics: effective against vomiting?nausea. Antiemetics are typically used to treat motion sickness and the side effects of opioid analgesics, general anaesthetics, antipsychotic medication and chemotherapy directed against cancer. They may be used for severe cases of gastroenteritis, especially if the patient is dehydrated. Correct Answer-5-HT3 antagonists are most effective in the prevention and treatment of chemotherapy-induced 5nausea and vomiting (CINV), especially that caused by highly emetogenic drugs such as cisplatin; when used for this purpose, they may be given alone or, more frequently, with a glucocorticoid, usually dexamethasone. They are usually given intravenously, shortly before administration of the chemotherapeutic agent,[3] although some authors have argued that oral administration may be preferred.[4] The concomitant administration of a NK1 receptor antagonist, such as aprepitant, significantly increases the efficacy of 5-HT3 antagonists in preventing both acute and delayed CINV.[5] The 5-HT3 antagonists are also indicated in the prevention and treatment of radiation-induced nausea and vomiting (RINV), when needed, and postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Although they are more effective at controlling

CINV—where they stop symptoms altogether in up to 70% of people, and reduce them in the remaining 30%—, they are just as effective as other agents for PONV. Current evidence suggests that 5-HT3 antagonists are ineffective in controlling motion sickness.[6][7][8] A randomized, placebo-controlled trial of ondansetron to treat motion sickness in air ambulance personnel showed subjective improvement, but it was not statistically significant.[9] Available agents[edit] Ondansetron was the first 5-HT3 antagonist, developed by Glaxo around 1984. Its efficacy was first established in 1987, in animal models,[10][11] and it was extensively studied over the following years.[12] Ondansetron was approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration in 1991, and has since become available in several other countries, including the UK, Ireland, Australia, Canada, France and Brazil. As of 2008, ondansetron and granisetron are the only 5-HT3 antagonists available as a generic drug in the United States. Ondansetron may be given several times daily, depending on the severity of symptoms. Tropisetron was also first described in 1984.[13] It is available in several countries, such as the UK, Australia and France, but not in the United States. The effects of tropisetron last up to 24 hours, so it only requires once-daily administration. Granisetron was developed around 1988.[14] It is available in the U.S., UK, Australia and other countries. Clinical trials suggest that it is more effective than other 5-HT3 antagonists in preventing delayed CINV (nausea and vomiting that occur more than 24 hours after the first dose of chemotherapy).[15] It is taken once daily. Dolasetron was first mentioned in the literature in 1989.[16] It is a prodrug, and most of its effects are due to its active metabolite, hydrodolasetron, which is formed in the liver by the enzyme carbonyl reductase. Dolasetron was approved by the FDA in 1997, and is also administered once daily. Palonosetron is the newest 5-HT3 antagonist to become available in the U.S. market. It is an isoquinoline derivative, and is effective in preventing delayed CINV.[17] Palonosetron was approved by the FDA in 2003,[18] initially for intravenous use. An oral formulation was approved on August 22, 2008 for

prevention of acute CINV alone, as a large clinical trial did not show oral administration to be as effective as IV use against delayed CINV.[19] Ramosetron is only available in Japan and certain Southeast Asian countries as of 2008.[20] It has higher affinity for the 5-HT3 receptor than the older 5-HT antagonists, and maintains its effects over two days; it is therefore significantly more effective for delayed CINV.[21] In animal studies, ramosetron was also effective against irritable bowel syndrome-like symptoms.[22] Alosetron and cilansetron—the latter being developed by Solvay—are not antiemetics; instead, they are indicated in the treatment of a subset of irritable bowel syndrome where diarrhea is the dominant symptom. Alosetron was withdrawn from the U.S. market in 2000 due to unacceptably frequent severe side effects, including ischemic colitis, and is only available through a restrictive program to patients who meet certain requirements.[23] Certain prokinetic drugs such as cisapride, renzapride and metoclopramide, although not 5-HT3 antagonists proper, possess some weak antagonist effect at the 5-HT3 receptor. Galanolactone, a diterpenoid found in ginger, is a 5-HT antagonist and is believed to at least partially mediate the anti-emetic activity of this plant.[24][25] Mirtazapine is a tetracyclic antidepressant with 5-HT antagonist effects and strong anti-emetic properties. Studies show mirtazapine as equally effective in treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting as standard treatments; it is also cheaper and has fewer side effects than typical anti-emetics, and its antidepressant qualities may be an added benefit for cancer populations.[26] Mirtazapine has also been used in the treatment of the motility disorder gastroparesis due to its anti-emetic effects.[27] Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic with anti-emetic properties similar to those of mirtazapine, also shows promise in treating chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.[ Emetics: Action- induce vomiting by acting on brain control center. Use-used when poison has been ingested. Side effects:do not use when corrosive products ingested; such as, acids alkalies, or if residents is drowsy of unconscious. Syrup of Ipecac. Correct Answer-Nursing consideration: usually induces vomiting 20- minutes after administered.

Antidiarrheals: med's that relieve diarrhea. Paregoric, or camphorated tincture of opium, also known as optincturaii camphorata, is a traditional patent remedy known for its antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic properties. Correct Answer- kaolin, bismuth (Pepto Bismol), pectin (from apples), kaolin and pectin (Kaopectate) Analgesics: Action and Use-alter both perception of and often emotional response to pain used to treat muscle spasm and strain, arthritis, gout; can also be used as a antipyretic(fever reducer). Adverse effects-gastritis, ulcer, dizziness, headache, sedation, constipation, rashes, respiratory, tinnitus, nausea/vomiting, increased bleeding w/A.S.A. check respiratory rate report to the nurse if under 12/minute. enteric coated are more slowly absorbed. Correct Answer-relieve muscle, joint, and bone pain. Ex:acetaminophen (Tylenol) sever liver damage w/ toxic doses. propoxyphene Hcl (Darvon). meperidine (Demerol). morphine (Duramorph, MS Contin, Roxanol). aspercream. aspirin (A.S.A) (Emperin) also can be used as a prevention for blood clots. codeine. ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil Nuprin). Tylenol with codeine. hydromorphone (Dilaudid). tramadol (Ultram).choline salicylate (Trilisate). analgesics and anti-inflammatory med's are sometimes given for months or years. Correct Answer- Human adult skeleton has 206 bones joined to ligaments and tendons. Two main parts- Axial and appendicular skeleton Correct Answer-Axial consist of 80 bones includes the spine,skull, sternum and ribs. Appendicular consist of 126 bones, 64 in the shoulder and upper limb girdles (the shoulders and limbs) and 62 in the pelvis and lower limbs. The skeleton produces red blood cells from the bone marrow and white marrow from other bones. White blood cells destroy bacteria. The bones are storage from minerals. Correct Answer-Muscles are attached to bones by tendons

Three types of muscles: Cardiac muscles- found only in the heart; power the action that pumps blood throughout the body (involuntary muscle). Smooth muscle- surround , or are part of, the internal organs Involuntary muscle). Skeletal muscle-the body's most abundant tissue comprising about 23% of a women's body weight and about 40% of a mans body weight (Voluntary muscles). Correct Answer-Bones function as framework for muscles, produce blood cells and store calcium and fat. Cartilage: Correct Answer-soft tissue covering parts of bones. Bone marrow: Correct Answer-soft, center part of bone , red blood cells are manufactured here. Ligaments hold bones together. Correct Answer-Tendons attach muscles to bones. A sprain is more severe than a strain and requires longer recuperation Correct Answer- Anti-inflammatory: steroid med- Action /Use- decreases inflammation used to treat arthritis, dermatitis and chronic respiratory conditions. Ex: dexamethasone (Decadron), prednisone (Meticorten, Orasone), triamcinolone (Kenelog) Correct Answer-Adverse effects:wt gain, mood swings, night sweats, increase blood sugar and electrolyte imbalance, slows healing, < elevates BP, ulcers, muscle weakness, hair loss, Cushing's disease ( central obesity, moon face,muscular atrophy...) Monitor glucose, administer w/food Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents NSAIA r NSAID's: Action/Use-anti- inflammatory analgesic and antipyretic effects, used to treat arthritis bursitis, tendinitis, and Gout. Ex: indomethacin (Indocin), sulindac (Clinoril),

( Nalfon), ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil, Nuprin), naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve), diclofenac sodium (Voltaren), etodolac (Lodine), ketoprofen (Orudis), mabumetone (Relafen), oxaprozin (Daypro). tolerated better w/ food, reposition gently. Correct Answer-Adverse effects-nausea/vomiting, headaches, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness,heartburn, >decreased appetite, bleeding/bruising, tinnitus, change in renal function, abdominal cramping Anti-Gout med's- Action/Use: reduces uric acid synthesis and promotes increased urinary excretion. Side effects: rash and GI disturbance. Correct Answer-Ex: allopurinol(Zyloprim). avoid alcohol, take with food. Skeletal Muscle Relaxants: Action/Us: CNS depressant relieves pain and stiffness in muscles from orthopedics disorders and injuries. Helps muscle tissue relax and be less tense and painful. Side effects- drowsiness, light- headedness, dizziness. Used for muscle spasms in residents w/multiple sclerosis or spinal cord injury. tizanidine (Zanaflex), diazepam (Valium) Correct Answer-Ex: chloroxazone (Parafon, Forte DSC), methocarbamol (Robaxin), cyclobenzapine (Flexeril), carisoprodol (Soma), baclofen (Lioresol) Analgesics: Action/Use: alter both perception of and often emotional response to pain used to treat muscle spasm and strain, arthritis, gout; can also be used as an antipyretic (fever reducer). Adverse effects- gastritis, ulcer, dizziness, headache, sedation, constipation, rashes, respiratory depression, tinnitus, nausea/vomiting, increased bleeding and tendencies Correct Answer-Ex: acetaminophen (Tylenol)- severe liver damage w/toxic doses. propoxyphene Hcl (Darvon). meperidine (Demerol). morphine (Duramorph, MS Contin, Roxanol), aspercream. aspirin (A.S.A.) (Emperin)-also can be used as prevention for blood clots. codeine. ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil, Nuprin). Tylenol w/ codeine. hydromorphone (Dilaudid). tramadol (Ultram). choline sylicylate (Trilisate). Nursing Considerations-bleeding, bloody stool. Therapeutic class-Miotics: eyedrops that stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system causing the pupil of the eye to become smaller. They reduce intraocular

pressure by increasing the outflow of eye fluids from the eye and they are usually used to reverse angle-closure glaucoma or prevent angle-closure in eyes with narrow chamber angles. Pilocarpine (one of the miotics) Correct Answer-Miotic drops include pilocarpine (Ocusert Pilo-40, Pilocar, Pilagan, Piloptic, Pilostat), carbachol (Carbastat, Carboptic, Isopto Carbachol, Miochol and Miostat Intraocular), and echothiophate iodide ophthalmic (Phospholine Iodide). Therapeutic class: Midriatics: Tropicamide is used as a mydriastic agent during cataract surgery.[4] Anticholinergics such as atropine, hyoscyamine, and scopolamine antagonize the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the eye. By blocking these receptors, the pupils are no longer capable of constriction and dilation results. Such alkaloids present in many plants of the family Solanaceae may also induce mydriasis when used[ Correct Answer-Generic Name: Tropicamide (troe PIK a mide) Brand Name: Mydral, Mydriacyl. Action- dialates pupils. Use- facilitates eye exam. Therapeutic class:Beta Blockers- Action lower intraocular pressure. Use-treat glaucoma. Ex: Timoptic solution (timolol maleate).TC- Anti- glaucoma. PC Non selective Beta Blockers. Correct Answer-Action- reduce formation, and increase outflow, of aqueous humor. Therapeutic class: Lubricants- Ex: Artificial tears (Tears Naturale, Liquifilm) Lacri-tube. Adverse effects irritaion and burning. Correct Answer-Action- soothes and lubricates the eyes. Use:treat decrease tear production. od-right eye. os- left eye. ou-both eyes. Correct Answer- Eustachian tube- connects pharynx and middle ear, equalizes the pressure in the ear. swimmer's ear cause bacteria, fungus. Tx antibiotics. Correct Answer- Meniere's Syndrome-chronic disturbance in the inner ear. Tx diuretics and antiemetics

Ear medication classifications; antpyrine/benzocaine Correct Answer- Which term means a heart attack? myocardial infarction An embolism is the blockage of a vessel by an embolus. True Which condition is the inflammation of an artery? arteritis An infarct is a localized area of tissue death caused by an interruption of the blood supply. True An inflammation involving several arteries is known as _____. polyarteritis An angiospasm is abnormal narrowing of a blood vessel. False Which medication controls irregularities of the heartbeat? antiarrhythmic Fibrillation is rapid, random, and ineffective contractions of the heart.

True Which term describes the highest pressure against the walls of the blood vessels? systolic pressure A fatty deposit within the arterial wall, which is characteristic of atherosclerosis, is a/an _____. atheroma A tissue plasminogen activator is administered to ____. dissolve clots Thrombocytes are also known as platelets. True What form of cardiac arrhythmia is fatal unless reversed? ventricular fibrillation A cardiac disability that results from an insufficient supply of oxygenated blood is known as _____ heart disease. ischemic Which structures are microscopic blood vessels that are only one cell in thickness? capillaries A surgical puncture to remove fluid from the pericardial sac is known as _____.

pericardiocentesis Raynaud's phenomenon consists of intermittent attacks of paleness, blue color, and redness of the fingers and toes. True Which is the correct spelling of the term that describes an inflammatory condition of a heart valve? valvulitis Which stage of hypertension is present when blood pressure is 140/90? Which stage of hypertension is present when blood pressure is 140/90? Systolic pressure is the lowest pressure against the walls of the blood vessels. False An elevated count of which type of white blood cell is an indication of a bacterial infection? neutrophils Hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to a buildup of cholesterol plaques is known as _____. atherosclerosis Arteriosclerosis is hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to a buildup of cholesterol plaques. False

The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle. True Which characteristic describes the blood carried by the pulmonary arteries? oxygen-poor blood An abnormal increase in the number of erythrocytes in proportion to the number of other blood cells is known as _____. erythrocytosis Serum is plasma with the clotting proteins removed. True Which condition is an irregular quivering action of the atria and a very rapid ventricular heart beat? atrial fibrillation Medication that narrows the blood vessels is known as a/an _____. vasoconstrictor A fast heartbeat of sudden onset is known as paroxysmal ______. tachycardia The bundle of His is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart. False