Radiographic Imaging Principles and Techniques, Exams of Solid State Physics

Download Radiographic Imaging Principles and Techniques and more Exams Solid State Physics in PDF only on Docsity!

LMRT State Review Exam Study Guide Questions with Verified

Answers.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the link between radiation dose and genetic effects?

1. The link has been demonstrated in human studies.
2. The link has been demonstrated in animal studies.
3. Increased risk to humans cannot be predicted with respect to an individual. - Correct answer 2 and 3 only Which of the following changes in kilo voltage (KVP) will result in the greatest reduction of patient dose, when mill amperage-seconds (mass) is adjusted to compensate for the dosage? A.) Decrease kept by 30% B.) Decrease kept by 15% C.) Increase kept by 15% D.) Increase kept by 30% - Correct answer Increase kept by 30% Which of the following image receptor (IR) system speeds will result in the lowest patient dose? A.) slower speed IR system B.) Faster speed IR system C.) It does not matter; the IR system speed does not affect the patient dose. - Correct answer faster speed IR system What is the primary purpose of using gonad shields during radiography? A.) Reduce the likelihood of genetic changes B.) Reduce likelihood of somatic effects C.) Protect patient modesty D.) Demonstrate the location of the gonads in the image - Correct answer Reduce the likelihood of genetic changes Which one of the following are types of gonad shields?
4. Aperture
5. Contact
6. Shadow A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 2 and 3 only When should gonad shielding be used? A.) for all patients B.) For all procedures C.) when the gonads are within 10 cm of the radiation field D.) when the gonads are within 5 cm of the radiation field - Correct answer when the gonads are within 5 cm of the radiation field The greatest cause of unnecessary radiation to patients that can be controlled by the limited operator is: A.) Patient condition B.) Patient size C.) Repeat exposure D.) equipment malfunction - Correct answer Repeat exposure The limited operator can reduce repeat exposures by: A.) Accepting marginal images B.) Clearly instructing patients C.) increasing the source-image receptor distance (SID) D.) optimizing the kept - Correct answer clearly instructing patients How does x-ray beam restriction minimize patient exposure? A.) it limits radiation fog B.) It limits the radiation field to the area of interest C.) It limits the effect of patient motion D.) It limits repeat exposure - Correct answer it limits the radiation field to the area of interest

What is the device that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field? A.) Collimator B.) Detent C.) Filter D.) Shield - Correct answer Collimator How does filtration reduce patient exposure? A.) Removes the shorter-wavelength photons B.) Removes longer wavelength photons C.) Reduces the size of the radiation field D.) Reduces the time of exposure - Correct answer Removes longer wavelength photons What is the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) recommendation for the amount of total filtration? A.) 0.5mm aluminum equivalent (AL Equip) B.) 1.5mm AL Equip C.) 2.5mm Al Equip D.) 3.5mm Al Equip - Correct answer 2.5mm Al Equip What are the three principal methods used to protect limited operators from unnecessary radiation exposure? A. Time, Distance, and Shielding B.) Time, Distance, and Collimation C.) Distance, Collimation, and Shielding D.) Time, Collimation, and Filtration - Correct answer Time, Distance, and Shielding Which of the following is not a type of personnel radiation shielding? A.) Apron B.) Glove C.) Thyroid Shield D.) Shadow - Correct answer Shadow Personnel shielding must be worn on the rare occasion during which the limited operator may need to remain in the radiographic room during the exposure to assist the patient in maintaining the proper position. What is the source of the greatest radiation hazard under this circumstance? A.) Off-focus radiation B.) Leakage Radiation C.) Scattered Radiation from the patient D.) Back scatter radiation from the IR - Correct answer Scattered Radiation from the patient What is the term for radiation that escapes from the x-ray tube housing? A.) Scatter radiation B.) Off-focus radiation C.) Primary Radiation D.) Leakage Radiation - Correct answer Leakage Radiation Why limited operators are prohibited from activities that results in direct exposure to the primary x-ray beam? A.) They are considered occupationally exposed individuals B.) These activities carry immediate health risk C.) Their interaction with the beam will affect patient dose D.) Their presence near the patient increases liability - Correct answer they are considered occupationally exposed individuals Distance, as a method used to limit operator exposure, means that: A.) The operator should maximize the distance from the source during an exposure. B.) The operator should minimize the distance from the source during an exposure C.) The operator should maximize the distance from the patient during an exposure D.) The operator should minimize the distance from the patient during an exposure - Correct answer the operator should maximize the distance from the source during an exposure. Shielding worn for personnel protection is designed to attenuate what source of exposure? A.) Primary radiation B.) Off-focus radiation C.) Leakage Radiation

D.) Scatter radiation - Correct answer Scatter Radiation Which of the following is an acronym for a common type of personnel dosimeter? A.) TLC B.) TLD C.) OSD D.) OID - Correct answer TLD What is the recommended placement for a personnel dosimeter on the body of the limiter operator? - Correct answer the badge should be worn in the region of the collar on the anterior surface of the body and outside the lead apron, if worn. What is the NCRP recommended annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure? A.) 0.05 REM B.) 0.5 REM C.) 5.0 REM D.) 50.0 REM - Correct answer 5.0 REM What is the NCRP recommended monthly effective (or equivalent) dose limit to the fetus for a pregnant worker? A.) 0.05 REM B.) 0.5 REM C.) 5.0 REM D.) 50.0 REM - Correct answer 0.05 REM Radiation monitoring of personnel is required when what percentage of the annual occupational effective dose limit is likely to be received? A.) 5% B.) 10% C.) 15% D.) 20% - Correct answer 10% What is the convention (British system) radiation unit to express radiation intensity in air? A.) Coulomb/Kilogram B.) Watt C.) Ohm D.) Roentgen - Correct answer Roentgen The conventional radiation unit commonly used to report occupational dose to radiation workers in the United States is the: A.) mar B.) rad C.) rem D.)My - Correct answer rem What is the conventional radiation unit of absorbed dose? A.) Rad B.) Roentgen C.) Gray D.) Rem - Correct answer Rad According to the Begonia Tribondeau law, which of the following types of cells are most radiosensitive? A.) Brain cells B.) Embryonic tissue cells C.) Cells of the gastric mucosa D.) Skin cells - Correct answer embryonic tissue cells Which type of x-ray photon interaction with the body is primarily responsible for the radiation dose absorbed by the patient? A.) Compton B.) Photoelectric C.) Coherent D.) Characteristic - Correct answer Photoelectric What is the NCRP recommendation for the lead equivalency of aprons used for personnel protection?

A.) 0.05 mm B.) 0.25mm C.) 0.5 mm D.) 1.0mm - Correct answer 0.5mm What is erythema, as it relates to radiation exposure? A.) Loss of hair caused by a high radiation dose B.) Loss of hair caused by a long-term low radiation dose C.) Reddening of the skin caused by high radiation dose D.) Reddening of the skin caused by long-term low radiation dose - Correct answer reddening of the skin caused by high radiation dose What is the guiding philosophy of radiation protection? A.) ALARMA- as long as radiographs are made accessible B.) ALARA- as low as reasonably achievable C.) ALAIS- as long as ionizations are small D.) ALAP- as low as possible - Correct answer ALARA- as low as reasonably achievable Which of the following statements reflects current scientific opinion regarding the effects of diagnostic levels of ionizing radiation? A.) It is carcinogenic after a certain number of examinations have been preformed B.) Spontaneous abortion will occur if the patient is pregnant C.) Depression of the white blood cell count is followed by acute gastrointestinal distress D.) There is an increased risk of cancer, leukemia, birth defects and cataracts. - Correct answer there is an increased risk of cancer, leukemia, birth defects and cataracts. Which of the following changes will decrease patient dose?

1. Using a faster speed class imaging system
2. increasing the kept using the 15% rule, while decreasing the mass to compensate
3. Increasing the grid ratio to a 16:1 ratio A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 2 only When radiation exposure occurs during pregnancy, the greatest risk of birth defects occur when the exposure:
4. Exceeds 5 rad to the uterus
5. Occurs within the first trimester of pregnancy
6. Occurs within the third trimester of pregnancy A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 2 only At what kept levels do Compton interactions occur? A.) They do not occur with x-ray exposure B.) They occur below the diagnostic radiology kept range C.) They occur above the diagnostic radiology kept range D.) They occur throughout the diagnostic radiology kip range. - Correct answer they occur throughout the diagnostic radiology kip range. What is the principal source of scatter radiation in radiography? A.) the tube housing B.) The Patient C.) The IR D.) The Collimator - Correct answer the patient What are the four essential elements required for x-ray production? A.) A target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference B.) A target, an electron source, an inert gas environment, and a high potential difference C.) An electron source, a magnetic field, a resistance-free path, and a target.

D.) An electron source, an electric field, a circuit and a target - Correct answer a target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference The greatest portion of the x-ray beam is made up of: A.) Characteristic radiation B.) Bremsstrahlung radiation C.) electrons D.) heat - Correct answer Bremsstrahlung radiation The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by varying the: A.) anode angle B.) anode speed C.) mill amperage (mA) D.) Kilovolt age (kept) - Correct answer Kilovolt age (kept) Which of the following functions involve the autotransformer? A.) kept selection B.) mA selection C.) exposure time selection D.) Automated exposure control - Correct answer kept selection What is the IR that is used for computed radiography? A.) Direct-conversion flat panel detector B.) Indirect-conversion flat panel detector C.) Rare earth intensifying screen D.) Photostimulable Phosphor (PSP) plate - Correct answer Photostimulable Phosphor (PSP) plate Nearly all new x-ray machines manufactured today use _________________ generators A.) single-phase B.) Three-phase, six-pulse C.) Three-phase, 12-pulse D.) High-frequency - Correct answer High-frequency The target of the x-ray tube is made of: A.) tungsten B.) glass C.) Stainless steel D.) Fluorescent phosphors - Correct answer tungsten What is the standard control limit for the field light to radiation field alignment test? A.) exact alignment B.) +/- 1% of SID C.) +/- 2% of SID D.) +/- 5% of SID - Correct answer +/- 2% of SID What is the standard control limit for the beam (Central ray) alignment test? A.) exact alignment B.) within 1 degree of perpendicular C.) within 2 degrees of perpendicular D.) within 5 degrees of perpendicular - Correct answer within 1 degree of perpendicular How often should lead aprons and gloves be checked for cracks or holes? A.) every 3 months B.) every 6 months C.) every 9 months D.) every 12 months - Correct answer every 6 months How can detector fog be prevented when using computed radiography cassettes? A.) Use the maximum SID B.) Apply close collimation C.) Protect the cassette before and after exposure D.) Select the optimum kept - Correct answer protect the cassette before and after exposure Which of the following will result in increased receptor exposure?

1. Increase mA

2. Increase exposure time
3. Increase kept A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1, 2, and 3 If the radiographic image is overexposed, which of the following changes in exposure factors should be used to correct the problem? A.) Decrease kept B.) Increase kept C.) Increase mass D.) Decrease the mass - Correct answer Increase kept The relationship between SID and beam intensity is expressed in the: A.) Proportional square law B.) Inverse Square law C.) Reciprocity law D.) Target-Distance law - Correct answer Inverse Square law What are the four primary factors of radiographic quality? A.) mA, seconds, kept, and SID B.) SID, density, Contrast, and mass C.) Receptor exposure, contrast, spatial resolution, and distortion D.) Receptor exposure, contrast, distortion, and distance - Correct answer Receptor exposure, contrast, spatial resolution, and distortion Contrast is primarily controlled by altering the: A.) mA B.) Exposure time C.) kept D.) mass - Correct answer kept Scatter radiation fog affects radiographic quality by causing: A.) under exposure B.) Decreased Contrast C.) Increased contrast D.) Decreased density - Correct answer Decreased contrast A change from the small focal spot to the large focal spot will result in: A.) Decreased spatial resolution B.) Magnification C.) Distortion D.) Increased contrast - Correct answer Decreased spatial resolution An increase in object-image receptor distance (OID) will result in: A.) Increased magnification B.) Increased image sharpness C.) loss of contrast D.) Increased radiographic density - Correct answer Increased magnification Motion of the patient, the tube, or the IR during the exposure will result in decreased: A.) Contrast B.) Distortion C.) Receptor exposure D.) Spatial Resolution - Correct answer Spatial Resolution What does quantum mottle (noise) look like on a radiographic image? A.) Large light and dark spots B.) Finely speckled or grainy areas C.) Alternating light and dark lines D.) Overall greyness - Correct answer finely speckled or grainy areas Quantum mottle with a digital imaging system is caused by:

A.) The kept being set too low B.) The mass being set too low C.) The use of a low ratio grid D.) The collimation being set too wide - Correct answer the mass being set too low Which of the following will increase spatial resolution?

1. Increase in SID
2. Increase in OID
3. Decrease in focal spot size A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 3 only What is the appearance of a high signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) image? A.) Highly detailed, with very little quantum mottle B.) Very grainy and poorly detailed C.) High contrast and very grainy D.) Very low contrast with few image details seen - Correct answer highly detailed, with very little quantum mottle What is the proper method for storing unopened boxes of x-ray film? A.) Stacked flat with the edges of the boxes aligned B.) Stacked flat with the edges of the boxes staggered C.) Standing on edge D.) X-ray film cannot be safely stored - Correct answer standing on edge Which of the following describe the action of the developer in an automatic film processor? A.) Removes the unexposed silver halide crystals from the film emulsion B.) Removes the exposed silver halide crystals from the film emulsion C.) Changes the exposed silver halide crystals into black, metallic silver D.) Changes the unexposed silver halide crystals into black, metallic silver - Correct answer Changes the exposed silver halide crystals into black, metallic silver During digital image processing, electronic masking should not be used to replace: A.) proper kept section B.) Proper mass selection C.) Appropriate SID D.) Proper radiographic collimation - Correct answer Proper radiographic collimation Which of the following is not a component of a compound radiography plate reader? A.) Laser B.) Analog-to-digital (light to electronic signal) converter C.) High-intensity eraser light D.) Developing solution - Correct answer developing solution What conditions are most important for optimum viewing of radiographic images? A.) Low room temperature B.) High room humidity C.) Low room high level D.) Bright room light level - Correct answer Low room high level Marks, exposures, or images on a radiograph that are not a part of the intended image are called: A.) Fog B.) Ghosts C.) Phantoms D.) Artifacts - Correct answer Artifacts If the amount of irradiated tissue increases, what happens to scatter radiation fog? A.) There is not enough information provided to answer the question B.) Scatter radiation fog increases C.) Scatter radiation fog decreases D.) Scatter radiation fog is not affected by the amount of tissue irradiated - Correct answer Scatter radiation fog increases

The most effective and practical way to reduce scatter radiation fog on a radiograph is to: A.) decrease the OID B.) Decrease the SID C.) Increase the kept D.) Use a grid or Bucky - Correct answer Use a grid or Bucky As a general rule, a grid should be employed when the part thickness is greater than: A.) 4 cm B.) 12 cm C.) 18 cm D.) 12 in - Correct answer 12 cm Technique charts are based on patient part measurements obtained using an x-ray caliper and are expressed as: A.) Circumference in inches B.) Thickness in centimeters C.) Diameter in millimeters D.) Depth in inches - Correct answer Thickness in centimeters Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure?

1. Multiple myeloma
2. Emphysema
3. Osteoporosis A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1, 2, and 3 How will the anode heel effect, if present, be seen on an image? A.) The image will have higher contrast on the anode end than on the cathode end. B.) The image will have lower contrast on the anode end than on the cathode end. C.) The image will be darker on the anode end than the cathode end. D.) The image will be lighter on the anode end than on the cathode end. - Correct answer the image will be lighter on the anode end than on the cathode end. Which radiographic quality factor is most affected by angulation of the central ray, part, or IR? A.) Receptor exposure B.) Contrast C.) Spatial resolution D.) Distortion - Correct answer Distortion What is the recommendation for a hard-copy image that is mislabeled? A.) The image must be repeated to ensure a correct, permanent label. B.) A sticker with the correct information should be applied to the hard copy image. C.) The correct information should be handwritten on the hard copy image. D.) no correction is needed. - Correct answer a sticker with the correct information should be applied to the hard copy image. Which of the following will result in a screen or film image with low density? A.) IR exposure with collimation wider than needed for the particular anatomic structures. B.) IR exposure with a kept higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. C.) IR exposure at an SID closer than expected for the exposure factors selected. D.) IR exposure with a mass less than needed for the particular anatomic structures. - Correct answer IR exposure with a mass less than needed for the particular anatomic structures. Which of the following will result in a screen or film image with low contrast? A.) IR exposure with collimation wider than needed for the particular anatomic structures. B.) IR exposure with a mass higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. C.) IR exposure at an SID closer than expected for the exposure factors selected. D.) IR exposure with a kept less than needed for the particular anatomic structures. - Correct answer IR exposure with a kept less than needed for the particular anatomic structures. When viewing a digital image on a monitor, how do you determine if the proper mass was selected?

A.) Evaluate the image brightness B.) Evaluate the image contrast C.) Evaluate the image distortion D.) Evaluate the exposure index value - Correct answer Evaluate the exposure index value Which of the following will result in an image with poor spatial resolution? A.) IR exposure with collimation wider than needed for the particular anatomic structures. B.) IR exposure with a mass higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. C.) IR exposure with a kept less than needed for the particular anatomic structures. D.) Patient motion - Correct answer Patient motion Which of the following will result in an image with excessive magnification of image structures? A.) IR exposure with a kept higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. B.) IR exposure at an SID greater than needed for the particular anatomic structures. C.) IR exposure at an OID greater than needed for the particular anatomic structures. D.) IR exposure with a mass higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. - Correct answer IR exposure at an OID greater than needed for the particular anatomic structures. Which of the following will result in an image with excessive distortion of anatomic structures? A.) Improper central ray angulation for the selected radiographic projection B.) use of an 8:1 grid with the mass set for a 12:1 grid C.) IR exposure at an SID greater than recommended for a particular body part. D.) IR exposure with the mass higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures. - Correct answer improper central ray angulation for the selected radiographic projection Poor film or screen contact is seen on a radiograph as a decrease in what radiographic quality factor? A.) Density or brightness B.) Contrast or gray scale C.) Recorded detail or Spatial Resolution D.) Distortion - Correct answer Recorded detail or Spatial Resolution Which screen film image artifact looks like lightning? A.) Static artifact B.) Handling artifact C.) Pressure artifact D.) Chemical artifact - Correct answer Static artifact Which of the following would be a violation of patient confidentiality? A.) A limited operator discusses a patient's pathology with a radiographer to get assistance in setting technical factors. B.) A limited operator talks to his or her friend during lunch about a patient's imaging procedure. C.) A radiographer asks if a patient is pregnant before an acute abdominal series. D.) A transporter tells the limited operator that the patient complained of dizziness while riding in the wheelchair to be x-ray department. - Correct answer a limited operator talks to his or her friend during lunch about a patient's imaging procedure. Which of the following are true regarding informed consent?

1. Informed consent may be revoked at any time.
2. The patient must be legally competent to sign
3. The patient may sign in an incomplete form and the blanks may be filled in later by the physician A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 2 only A limited operator innocently commits an error as a result of following the orders of his or her employer, a physician. The employer may be held responsible according to the: A.) American Society of Radiologic Technologists code of Ethics. B.) Rule of professional responsibility C.) Doctrine of respondent superior D.) Doctrine of non-compos mentis - Correct answer Doctrine of respondent superior Communication has been "validated" when the speaker has: A.) spoken clearly

B.) Received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension C.) Presented the information accurately D.) Reviewed the material - Correct answer Received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension Which of the following is not a form of non-verbal communication? A.) Speaking B.) Touching C.) Eye contact D.) Facial expression - Correct answer Speaking Mrs. Elizabeth Dunbar is 86 years old and a bit confused. She is most likely to respond appropriately if you address her as: A.) Betty B.) Honey C.) Mrs. Dunbar D.) Elizabeth - Correct answer Mrs. Dunbar Which of the following are correct statements of proper body mechanics?

1. Use a broad stance
2. Turn and lift using your back muscles
3. Carry heavy objects close to your body A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 3 only What type of disease transmission is possible when the limited operator does not clean the Bucky device after preforming an examination on a patient with influenza? A.) Vector transmission B.) Direct contact transmission C.) Indirect contact or fomite transmission D.) Airborne transmission - Correct answer indirect contact or fomite transmission Standard precautions involve the use of barriers whenever contact is anticipated with:
4. Blood
5. Body fluids
6. Mucous membranes A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1, 2, and 3 The process of reducing the probability that infectious organisms will be transmitted to a susceptible individual is called: A.) Sepsis B.) Asepsis C.) Inoculation D.) Vaccination - Correct answer Asepsis A health care worker's single best protection against disease is: A.) Frequent hand washing B.) vaccination C.) Barrier techniques D.) Protective masks - Correct answer Frequent hand washing A limited operator who does not change linens between patients is: A.) Providing an opportunity for fomite transmission. B.) Saving money on laundry expenses. C.) Making wise decisions, as long as there are no stains on the linens. D.) Increasing productivity by saving time between patients. - Correct answer providing an opportunity for fomite transmission.

What is anaphylaxis? A.) The absence of a pain response B.) A severe allergic reaction C.) Complete unconsciousness D.) Inability to breathe - Correct answer a severe allergic reaction What is the basic life support system used to ventilate the lungs and circulate the blood in the event of cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest? A.) Cardiac tamponed B.) AED C.) CPR D.) ACLS - Correct answer CPR When a patient in cardiac arrest presents with a rapid, weak, and ineffective heartbeat, what device is used to return the heart to a normal rhythm? A.) Cardiac tamponed B.) AED C.) CPR D.) ACLS - Correct answer AED Which of the following vital signs can be assessed without touching the patient? A.) Pulse B.) Respiration C.) Blood pressure D.) Temperature - Correct answer Respiration What is the most common site for palpation of a patient's pulse? A.) Carotid artery B.) Apex of the heart C.) Dorsal is pedals D.) Radial artery at the wrist - Correct answer Radial artery at the wrist What structure separates the thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity? A.) The aortic arch B.) The parietal membrane C.) The visceral membrane D.) The diaphragm - Correct answer the diaphragm Which of the following organs are found within the mediastinum?

1. Lungs
2. Heart
3. Trachea A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 2 and 3 only Three lobes are present in which lungs? A.) The right lung B.) The left lung C.) Both lungs - Correct answer the right lung What is the name of the upper portion of the lung? A.) Cost phrenic recess B.) Cost vertebral angle C.) Apex D.) Base - Correct answer Apex The inferior lateral corners of the lungs, visible on a PA chest radiograph, are called the: A.) Hila B.) Apices C.) Cardio phrenic angles D.) Cost phrenic angles - Correct answer Cost phrenic angles

When taking a PA projection of the chest, the recommended source-image receptor distance (SID) is: A.) 30in (76cm) B.) 40in (102cm) C.) 60in (152cm) D.) 72in (183cm) - Correct answer 72in (183cm) What is the purpose of the 72-inch SID used for chest radiography? A.) Allows more room for accurate patient positioning B.) Reduces patient dose C.) Minimizes magnification of the heart shadow D.) Minimizes demonstration of the scapula in the lungs - Correct answer Minimizes magnification of the heart shadow Which of the following describe the importance of using an upright position for chest radiography?

1. The upright position demonstrates air fluid levels. 2, the upright position allows maximum
2. The upright position minimizes magnification of the heart A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1, 2, and 3 In chest radiography, which body habitus is best imaged by placing the 14x17- inch (35x 43-cm) image receptor crosswise in the upright grid cabinet? A.) Asthenic B.) Asthenic C) Hyposthenia D.) Hypersthene - Correct answer Hypersthene Which of the following techniques is desirable for chest radiography? A.) High kilo voltage (kept), high mill amperage (mA), and short exposure time B.) Low kept and 40-inch SID C.) Low kept, long exposure time, and "breathing technique" D.) High mill amperage-seconds (mass) and low kept - Correct answer High kilo voltage (kept), high mill amperage (mA), and short exposure time What is the purpose of rotating the patient's shoulders anteriorly for the PA projection of the chest? A.) This motion rotates the scapulae out of the lungs B.) This motion reduces magnification of the heart shadow C.) This motion makes the position more comfortable for the patient D.) This motion places the coronal plane parallel to the upright grid cabinet - Correct answer this motion rotates the scapulae out of the lungs Where does the central ray enter the patient for the upright, PA projection of the chest? A.) Midsagittal plane at the level of T B.) Microtonal plane at the level of T C.) Midsagittal plane at the level of the iliac crests D.) Microtonal plane at the level of the iliac crests - Correct answer Midsagittal plane at the level of T What is the proper placement of the arms for the upright lateral projection of the chest? A.) Backs of the hands on the hips with the shoulders rolled anteriorly B.) Arms raised over the head with hands grasping opposite elbows C.) Arms abducted from the thorax D.) arms adducted from the thorax - Correct answer Arms raised over the head with hands grasping opposite elbows What are the proper patient instruction for the PA projection of the chest? A.) Stop breathing after the second deep inspiration. B.) Stop breathing after deep inspiration C.) Stop breathing after expiration D.) Breathe slowly and evenly - Correct answer Stop breathing after the second deep inspiration Lateral projections of the chest are taken with the left side against the IR because: A.) Lung pathology is more common on the left side.

B.) It is conventional to have a routine standard, and the left has been established as the standard C.) Magnification of the cardiac silhouette is reduced with the left side nearer the IR D.) the right hilum provides high-contrast details that may be confusing - Correct answer Magnification of the cardiac silhouette is reduced with the left side nearer the IR How much should the central ray be angled cephalic for an AP axial projection of the chest if the patient cannot assume the lord tic position? A.) no angle is needed B.) 10 degrees C.) 15 degrees D.) 25 degrees - Correct answer 15 degrees Which chest projection and position are needed to demonstrate free pleural fluid along the dependent chest wall? A.) AP, Upright B.) PA, Recumbent C.) AP, Lord Tic D.) AP, Lateral Decubitus - Correct answer AP, Lateral Decubitus Which of the following projections is best for demonstration of the apices of the lungs without bony superimposition? A.) PA B.) Lateral C.) AP Axial, Lord Tic position D.) PA oblique - Correct answer AP Axial, Lord Tic position Why is grid used for routine chest radiography? A.) To reduce scatter fog caused by use of a high kept B.) To reduce the patient dose by filtration C.) To reduce magnification caused by an increased SID D.) To increase the recorded detail - Correct answer to reduce scatter fog caused by use of a high kept Which of the following bones are in the hind foot portion of the foot?

1. Cuneiforms
2. Calcaneus
3. Talus A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 2 and 3 only The anatomic name for the bone commonly known as the kneecap is the: A.) Fibula B.) Tibia C.) Patella D.) Flabella - Correct answer Patella The palpable portion at the distal end of the tibia is called the: A.) Lateral malleolus B.) Medial malleolus C.) Medial condyle D.) Lateral condyle - Correct answer Medial Malleolus When the ankle is flexed to raise the foot, the movement is termed? A.) Plantar flexion B.) Eversion C.) Inversion D.) Dorsiflexion - Correct answer Dorsiflexion What device may help provide an even density on a radiograph of an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the foot? A.) Lead shield B.) Wedge compensating filter C.) Wedge positioning sponge

D.) Sandbag - Correct answer Wedge compensating filter Which of the following is true regarding the correct positioning of the ankle for a lateral projection? A.) The medial surface of the ankle joint is in contact with the image receptor (IR) B.) The sagittal plane of the foot and leg is perpendicular to the IR. C.) The central ray enters perpendicular to the medial malleolus. D.) the ankle joint is extended so that the foot is 15 to 20 degrees from the IR. - Correct answer the central ray enters perpendicular to the medial malleolus. When the leg is extended in the supine position, the ankle is maximally dorsiflexed and the central ray is directed 40 degrees cephalic through the planter surface of the foot the resulting imagine will demonstrate: A.) An axial projection of the calcaneus B.) A medial oblique position of the tarsals and metatarsals C.) The ankle mortise, especially the talofibular articulation. D.) The cuboid and the third cuneiform - Correct answer an axial projection of the calcaneus Which of the following are true regarding the correct position for an AP position of the lower leg?

1. The leg should be extended and resting on the IR
2. The ankle should be dorsiflexed so that the foot forms a 90-degree angle with the lower leg.
3. The sagittal plane of the leg is placed parallel to the IR. A.) 1 and 2 only B.) 1 and 3 only C.) 2 and 3 only D.) 1, 2, and 3 - Correct answer 1 and 2 only Where should the central ray enter the patient for the AP projection of the knee? A.) 0.5 inch below the apex of the patella B.) 0.5 inch below the base of the patella C.) 1 inch distal to the medial epicondyle of the femur D.) 1 inch proximal to the medial epicondyle of the femur - Correct answer 0.5 inch below the apex of the patella When a lateral projection of the knee is taken, flexion of the knee joint should be limited to 10 degrees when there is suspicion of: A.) A loose fragment within the joint B.) Collateral ligament injury C.) Damage to the medial meniscus cartilage D.) A fracture of the patella - Correct answer a fracture of the patella What change in technical factors is required when an ankle in a dry plaster cast must be radiographed? A.) Increase milliamp ere-seconds (mass) by two times B.) Decrease mass by 50% C.) Increase mass by three times D.) Decrease mass by 25% - Correct answer Increase milliamp ere-seconds (mass) by two times The bones that are located in the palm of the hands are called: A.) Carpals B.) Phalanges C.) Metacarpals D.) Digits - Correct answer Metacarpals The bones of the forearm are the: A.) Radius and ulna B.) Tibia and Fibula C.) Hummers and radius D.) Clavicle and scapula - Correct answer Radius and ulna Where is the homers located? A.) At the anterior portion of the shoulder girdle B.) At the posterior portion of the shoulder girdle C.) On the lateral side of the forearm D.) In the upper portion of the arm - Correct answer in the upper portion of the arm

Which surface of the hand should be in contact with the IR for the poster anterior (PA) projection? A.) Lateral B.) Medial C.) Posterior (dorsal) D.) Anterior (Palmar) - Correct answer Anterior (Palmar) What is the center point of the central ray for the PA projection of the hand? A.) Third metatarsophalangeal joint B.) Second metatarsophalangeal joint C.) Third proximal interphalangeal joint D.) Base of the third metacarpal - Correct answer Third metatarsophalangeal joint Which surface of the hand is in contact with the IR for the lateral projection of the fifth digit (pinky)? A.) The medial surface B.) The lateral surface C.) The anterior (palmar) surface D.) The posterior (dorsal) surface - Correct answer the medial surface What is the position of the wrist for the PA oblique projection in lateral rotation? A.) Hand and wrist flat with the anterior surface in contact with the IR. B.) Fingers flexed with the anterior surface of the wrist in contact with the IR C.) Coronal plane of the wrist at a 45-degree angle to the IR with the anteromedial surface on the IR. D.) Medial surface of the wrist on the IR with the coronal plane perpendicular to the IR - Correct answer Coronal plane of the wrist at a 45-degree angle to the IR with the anteromedial surface on the IR. What is the proper patient position for the AP projection of the forearm? A.) Elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to the IR, hand supinated B.) Elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to the IR, hand pronated. C.) Elbow flexed, wrist and elbow perpendicular to the IR, hand in the lateral position D.) Elbow flexed, wrist and elbow perpendicular to the IR, hand pronated - Correct answer Elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to the IR , hand supinated