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Rasmussen Pathophysiology - Final Exam Questions And Answers, Exams of Pathophysiology

Rasmussen Pathophysiology - Final Exam Questions And Answers

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 11/22/2024

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Exam Questions And Answers

On an electrocardiogram (EKG), the P wave represents which of the following? A) Atrial depolarization B) Ventricular depolarization C) Atrial repolarization D) Ventricular repolarization - correct answer ✅A) Atrial depolarization Select all that apply. Which lab values are incorrect? A. Na+ 135- B. K+ 2.3-2. C. Mg 1.8-2. D. Calcium 2-3 - correct answer ✅B. K+ 2.3-2. D. Calcium 2- What electrolyte, if too high or low, can cause cardiac arrhythmias? A. Mg B. Na+ C. K+ D. Ca - correct answer ✅C. K+

Exam Questions And Answers

A patient has ABGS as follows: pH 7.28, PaC02 59, HC03 24, PaO

  1. This would be diagnosed as A. Respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia B. Respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia C. Metabolic acidosis with hypoxemia D. Metabolic alkalosis with hypoxemia - correct answer ✅A. Respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia This type of cell is found in all the tissues of the body, and as part of the inflammatory response, releases histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes. A. Leukocyte B. Mast cell C. CD4 helper cell D. Macrophage - correct answer ✅B. Mast cell An increase in the size of cells in an organ is known as A. Neoplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Atrophy D. Apoptosis - correct answer ✅B. Hyperplasia

Exam Questions And Answers

The organelle in the cell that is responsible for producing ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is the A. Golgi body B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. Mitochondria - correct answer ✅D. Mitochondria Homeostasis is defined as: A. A state of equilibrium in an organism B. A blood clotting mechanism C. Part of the inflammatory process D. Cellular adaptation - correct answer ✅A. A state of equilibrium in an organism A benign tumor usually metastasizes. A. True B. False - correct answer ✅B. False A malignant growth tends to produce (SAA) A. Anaplastic cells

Exam Questions And Answers

B. Metastatic tumors C. Undifferentiated cells D. Cells that invade the basement membrane of an organ - correct answer ✅All of the above The ion imbalance that is responsible for raising or lowering the pH is: A. Potassium B. Hydrogen C. Calcium D. Magnesium - correct answer ✅B. Hydrogen This cell engulfs bacteria and destroys them: A. Phagocyte B. Neutrophil C. Granulocyte D. Eosinophil - correct answer ✅A. Phagocyte This type of WBC is usually elevated with nasal allergies A. Basophil B. Mast cells

Exam Questions And Answers

C. Macrophage D. Neutrophil - correct answer ✅A. Basophil The patient's WBC count is 18. This would indicate: A. Anemia B. Allergic reaction C. Infection D. Anemia - correct answer ✅C. Infection The first stage of the GAS syndrome results in (Select all that apply) A. Epinephrine release B. Constriction of pupils C. Increased blood pressure D. Bradycardia E. Tachycardia - correct answer ✅A. Epinephrine release C. Increased blood pressure E. Tachycardia An example of artificially acquired active immunity would be A. An influenza vaccination

Exam Questions And Answers

B. A tetanus antitoxin after stepping on rusty metal C. Taking an antibiotic for an infection D. An IV infusion of IgG - correct answer ✅A. An influenza vaccination A low count of this type of cell may indicate that HIV has progressed to AIDS. A. T cells B. CD4 helper cells C. B cells D. Complement complexes - correct answer ✅B. CD4 helper cells B cells mature in the _________________, T cells mature in the ________________. A. Hypothalamus, thymus B. Thymus, Endocrine glands C. Bone marrow, thymus D. Cardiovascular system, respiratory system - correct answer ✅C. Bone marrow, thymus

Exam Questions And Answers

This makes the body's temperature elevate in response to macrophages that have been exposed to bacteria. A. Leukocytes B. Pyrogens C. Interferons D. Inflammatory response. - correct answer ✅B. Pyrogens The first WBC to arrive after injury A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Macrophages D. Monocytes - correct answer ✅A. Neutrophils A patient has a serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL, a serum potassium level of 6 mmol/L, an arterial pH of 7.32, and a urine output of 250 mL/day. Which phase of acute renal failure is the patient experiencing? A) Intrarenal B) Postrenal C) Oliguric D) Recovery - correct answer ✅C) Oliguric

Exam Questions And Answers

The nurse monitors for which of the following definitive clinical manifestations in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease? A) Flank pain B) Periorbital edema C) Low serum creatinine level D) Palpable kidneys - correct answer ✅D) Palpable kidneys The nurse questions a female patient about perineal cleansing. Which statement by the patient indicates proper technique? A) "I douche monthly." B) "I use an alcohol-based product." C) "I wipe from back to front." D) "I wipe from front to back." - correct answer ✅D) "I wipe from front to back." The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a patient after a nephrectomy for renal carcinoma. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective? A) "Because renal carcinoma usually affects both kidneys, I'll need to be watched closely."

Exam Questions And Answers

B) "I'll need to decrease my fluid intake to prevent stress to my remaining kidney." C) "My remaining kidney should provide me with normal renal function." D) "I'll eventually require some type of renal replacement therapy."

  • correct answer ✅C) "My remaining kidney should provide me with normal renal function." The nurse correlates the decreased glomerular filtration rate in the client with acute glomerulonephritis to which pathophysiologic process? A) Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries B) Thickened capillary membranes secondary to immune complex deposition and cellular proliferation C) Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure D) Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis - correct answer ✅B) Thickened capillary membranes secondary to immune complex deposition and cellular proliferation The RN has just received change-of-shift report. Which of the assigned patients should be assessed first?

Exam Questions And Answers

A) A patient with renal insufficiency who is scheduled to have a dialysis fistula inserted B) A patient with azotemia whose blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are increasing C) A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis who needs help changing the dialysate bag D) A patient with chronic renal failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath - correct answer ✅D) A patient with chronic renal failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath A nurse observes tall, peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram (EKG) of a patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which is the nurse's best action? A) Repeating the EKG B) Checking the serum potassium level C) Preparing to give sodium bicarbonate to correct the acidosis D) Nothing; this is a normal finding for individuals with ESRD. - correct answer ✅B) Checking the serum potassium level A nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client with a suspected malignant tumor of the bladder. Which finding would the nurse identify as the most common initial symptom? A) Fever

Exam Questions And Answers

B) Frequency C) Urinary retention D) Painless hematuria - correct answer ✅D) Painless hematuria Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of: A) pancreatitis. B) gastric ulcer. C) dysphagia. D) peritonitis. - correct answer ✅B) gastric ulcer. The nurse is caring for a female patient with cholelithiasis. Which assessment findings from the patient's history and physical examination may have contributed to the development of the condition? A) The patient's body mass index (BMI) is 46. B) The patient is a vegetarian. C) The patient drinks 4 ounces of red wine nightly. D) The patient takes 81 mg of aspirin every morning. - correct answer ✅A) The patient's body mass index (BMI) is 46.

Exam Questions And Answers

The nurse is caring for a patient with renal failure and chronic gastritis. The patient tells the nurse that he takes 2 teaspoons of sodium bicarbonate every night before bed to prevent heartburn. Which is the nurse's best response? A) "You should let the doctor know right away if you develop stomach cramps." B) "I will let your doctor know so that a safer antacid can be prescribed for you." C) "Do not take the sodium bicarbonate with milk, because it can cause kidney stones." D) "Make sure that you mix the sodium bicarbonate with at least 8 ounces of water." - correct answer ✅B) "I will let your doctor know so that a safer antacid can be prescribed for you." The nurse is performing oral health screenings at a local community center. Which patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer? (Select all that apply.) A) A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years B) An adult male with a history of alcoholism C) An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly D) A middle-aged male who smokes a pipe E) An older adult female who chews gum frequently - correct answer ✅B) An adult male with a history of alcoholism

Exam Questions And Answers

D) A middle-aged male who smokes a pipe Which of the following infections would increase risk for cancer development in the genital region? A) Syphilis B) Chancroid C) Cytomegalovirus D) Human papillomavirus - correct answer ✅D) Human papillomavirus Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy? A) The tumor usually becomes malignant in time. B) The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm. C) Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency. D) Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops. - correct answer ✅C) Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis? A) A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain B) Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria

Exam Questions And Answers

C) Hesitancy and increased urinary output D) Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia - correct answer ✅B) Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria When assessing a woman with possible gonorrhea in the public health clinic, the nurse learns that the patient has the following symptoms. Which symptom is of most concern? A) Odorous vaginal discharge B) Abdominal tenderness C) Painful urination D) Anal itching - correct answer ✅B) Abdominal tenderness The nurse is conducting a teaching plan for the client with gonorrhea. Which statement does the nurse include? A) "You are only infectious if the lesions are draining." B) "You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms." C) "You will require close follow-up because treatment failure is common." D) "You are restricted from engaging in sexual activity until your blood tests are negative. - correct answer ✅B) "You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms."

Exam Questions And Answers

Which statement made by the patient who has recently had a mammogram indicates a need for clarification regarding the importance or purpose of this procedure? A) "Now that I have had a mammogram, my risk for getting breast cancer is reduced." B) "Now that I've had a mammogram, I will still do a breast self- examination monthly." C) "Yearly mammograms can reduce my risk of dying from breast cancer." D) "The amount of radiation exposure from a mammogram is very low." - correct answer ✅A) "Now that I have had a mammogram, my risk for getting breast cancer is reduced." The nurse is teaching a local women's group about health promotion and maintenance measures for prevention of gynecologic cancers. Which preventive factors should the nurse stress? (Select all that apply.) A) Annual endometrial biopsy B) Annual HPV vaccination C) Annual Pap test and cervical examination D) Safe sex E) Well-balanced diet - correct answer ✅C) Annual Pap test and cervical examination

Exam Questions And Answers

E) Well-balanced diet Which sexually transmitted diseases are vaginal infections? (Select all that apply.) A) Chlamydia B) Epididymitis C) Gonorrhea D) Syphilis E) Proctitis - correct answer ✅A) Chlamydia C) Gonorrhea A patient with diabetes has retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy. What should the nurse teach this patient about exercise? A) "The type of exercise that would most efficiently help you to lose weight, decrease insulin requirements, and maintain cardiovascular health would be jogging for 20 minutes 4 to 7 days each week." B) "Considering the complications you already have, vigorous exercise for 1 hour every day is needed to prevent progression of disease." C) "Considering the complications you already have, you should avoid engaging in any form of exercise."

Exam Questions And Answers

D) "Swimming or water aerobics 30 minutes each day would be the safest exercise routine for you." - correct answer ✅D) "Swimming or water aerobics 30 minutes each day would be the safest exercise routine for you." The patient on an intensified insulin regimen consistently has a fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 80 mg/dL, a postprandial blood glucose level below 200 mg/dL, and a hemoglobin A1c level of 5.5%. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these findings? A) Signs of insulin resistance B) Good control of blood glucose C) Increased risk for developing ketoacidosis D) Increased risk for developing hyperglycemia - correct answer ✅B) Good control of blood glucose A patient is admitted with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. Which of the nursing actions included in the patient's plan of care will be most appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN/LVN? A) Admission assessment B) Inserting an IV and initiating IV fluids C) Administering routine PO antidiabetic medications

Exam Questions And Answers

D) Developing a teaching plan - correct answer ✅C) Administering routine PO antidiabetic medications Which of the following patients with diabetes should the endocrine unit charge nurse assign to an RN who recently graduated and finished orientation yesterday? A) A 58-year-old with newly diagnosed diabetic neuropathy who needs teaching about foot care B) A 68-year-old with diabetic ketoacidosis who has an IV Insulin infusion C) A 70-year-old who needs blood glucose monitoring and insulin before each meal D) A 76-year-old who was admitted with fatigue and shortness of breath - correct answer ✅C) A 70-year-old who needs blood glucose monitoring and insulin before each meal Which of the following nursing actions can the home health nurse delegate to a home health aide who is making daily visits to a patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes? A) Evaluate the patient's use of a home blood glucose monitor. B) Assist the patient's spouse in choosing appropriate dietary items. C) Clean the patient's feet and apply moisturizing lotion.

Exam Questions And Answers

D) Inspect the extremities for evidence of poor circulation. - correct answer ✅C) Clean the patient's feet and apply moisturizing lotion. An incoherent female patient with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, the nurse prepares to take emergency action to prevent the potential complication of: A) Hashimoto's thyroiditis. B) Cushing's syndrome. C) myxedema coma. D) thyroid storm. - correct answer ✅C) myxedema coma. A 22-year-old obese female patient comes into the clinic complaining of an ear ache and hearing loss in the right ear. Assessment reveals temperature 101.2ºF, low-set ears, a wide neck, and droopy eyelids. Patient reports a history of "kidney and heart problems" as well as "being born different." Based on these findings, what chromosomal disorder does this patient likely have? A) Down syndrome B) Turner's syndrome

Exam Questions And Answers

C) Klinefelter's syndrome D) Fragile X syndrome - correct answer ✅B) Turner's syndrome Metaplasia is: A) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements. B) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. C) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy. D) an irreversible cellular adaptation. - correct answer ✅B) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control mechanisms? A) Fever B) Throat pain C) Joint stiffness D) Positive throat culture - correct answer ✅A) Fever What information should parents be given about the consequences of phenylketonuria (PKU)? A) Mental retardation is inevitable.

Exam Questions And Answers

B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies. C) High dietary tyramine may help induce enzyme production. D) Failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation. - correct answer ✅D) Failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation. Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called _____ injury. A) hypoxic B) ischemic C) hyperemic D) neoplastic - correct answer ✅B) ischemic Characteristics of X-linked recessive disorders include which of the following? A) The son of a carrier mother has a 25% chance of being affected. B) Affected fathers transmit the gene to all of their sons. C) All daughters of affected fathers are carriers. D) Boys and girls are equally affected. - correct answer ✅C) All daughters of affected fathers are carriers.

Exam Questions And Answers

Which type of gangrene is usually a result of arterial occlusion? A) Necrosis B) Dry C) Wet D) Gas - correct answer ✅D) Gas The cancer growth continuum is divided into which of the following stages? A) Stage 1, stage 2, stage 3 B) Initiation, progression, promotion C) Preliminary, evolutionary, metastasis D) Initiation, promotion, progression - correct answer ✅B) Initiation, progression, promotion The activities of the cell are directed by which cell structure? A) Cytoplasm B) Organelles C) Cell membranes D) Nucleus - correct answer ✅D) Nucleus

Exam Questions And Answers

Enzymes that use oxidation to convert food materials into energy are found in sausage-shaped structures called: A) endoplasmic reticulum. B) ribosomes. C) mitochondria. D) Golgi apparatus. - correct answer ✅C) mitochondria. Mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and centrioles are all examples of: A) cell membranes. B) organelles. C) enzymes. D) None of these is correct. - correct answer ✅B) organelles. DNA is composed of base chemicals called: A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. B) nucleotide, deoxyribose, and base. C) chromosomes and proteins. D) None of these is correct. - correct answer ✅A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.

Exam Questions And Answers

Which of the following terms does not describe a method by which cells adapt to changing conditions? A) Hypertrophy B) Hyperplasia C) Increased enzyme synthesis D) Necrosis - correct answer ✅D) Necrosis Dysplasia of epithelial cells sometimes results from which of the following? A) Excessive sodium intake B) Chronic irritation or inflammation C) Increased enzyme synthesis D) Apoptosis - correct answer ✅B) Chronic irritation or inflammation The function of lysosomes is to: A) break down particles or worn-out cellular components. B) convert food materials into energy. C) produce digestive enzymes and antibody proteins. D) aid in cell division. - correct answer ✅A) break down particles or worn-out cellular components.

Exam Questions And Answers

A __________ gene is one that produces an effect only in the homozygous state. A) dominant B) recessive C) sex-linked D) hemizygous - correct answer ✅B) recessive A __________ gene expresses itself in either the heterozygous or the homozygous state. A) dominant B) recessive C) sex-linked D) hemizygous - correct answer ✅A) dominant Genes carried on sex chromosomes are called __________ genes. A) dominant B) recessive C) sex-linked D) hemizygous - correct answer ✅C) sex-linked