RASMUSSEN PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE, Exams of Medicine

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RASMUSSEN PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL

EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

DETAILED ANSWERS WITH

RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)

1. Which of the following would be a sign of right-sided Heart Failure? - Increased Urination - Peripheral Edema - Pulmonary Edema - Immunosuppression: Peripheral Edema
2. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure? (Select all that apply) - Jugular Vein Distention - Cough with Frothy Sputum - Crackles Auscultated in Lungs - Dyspnea: - Cough with Frothy Sputum - Crackles auscultated in lungs - Dyspnea
3. Which medications would be used to treat a patient with heart failure? - Antibiotics and Steroids - Vitamin D and Calcium - Calcium Channel Blockers and Zafron - ACE Inhibitors and Beta-Blockers: ACE inhibitors and Beta-Blockers 4. Which of the following is often the cause of pulmonary embolism? - An autoimmune disorder - A venous blood clot from lower extremity - An increase in intracranial pressure

- Hypotension: - A venous blood clot from lower extremity

5. **Virchow's Triad contributes to pulmonary embolism formation. Virchow's Triad factors include all of the following except:

• Venous Blood Stasis
• Damage to the venous wall
• Venous blood hypermobility
• Increased blood coagulability:** Venous blood hypermobility

6. **How does unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris?

• Can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac biomarkers
• manifests in ECG changes only
• Is not relieved by periods of rest
• Not as serious as stable angina:** Not relieved by periods of rest

7. **Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension? - Bladder and Urethra

• Brain and Skin
• Heart and Kidneys
• Stomach and Intestines:** Heart and Kidneys

8. **Management of hypertension involves multiple approaches including which of the following? - Dietary Modifications

• Engaging in regular exercise routines
• Prescribing diuretics and/or anti-hypertensives
• All of the above:** All of the above

9. **When arterial blood pressure declines, the cells of the kidneys secrete a hormone called ___ to increase blood pressure and peripheral resistance.

• Renin
• Antidiuretic Hormone
• Atrial Natriuretic
• Erythropoietin:** Renin

10. Which of the following are examples of complications of shock? (Select all that apply)

**- Multiple Organ Dysfunction

• Acute Renal Failure
• Clotting and Bleeding Disorders
• Increased Cardiac Output:** - Multiple Organ Dysfunction - Acute renal failure - Clotting and Bleeding disorders

11. **What pathophysiological responses would you expect to find in a client who has anaphylactic shock?

• Bronchodilation, Peripheral constriction, Decreased capillary permeability
• Asthma, Deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy
• Bronchoconstriction, peripheral dilation, increased capillary permeability- Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, UTI:** Bronchoconstriction, Peripheral Dilation, Increased Capillary Permeability

12. **What is the cause of Cardiogenic Shock?

• Severe Ventricular Dysfunction
• Acute Blood Loss
• Severe Atrial Dysfunction
• Suppression of the Sympathetic Nervous System:** Severe ventricular dysfunction

13. **What is occurring in the body of clients with hypovolemic shock?

• Inadequate stomach acid
• Insufficient circulating blood volume
• Insect bite or snake bites
• Not taking enough diuretics:** Insufficient circulating blood volume

14. **Obstructive shock is due to a mechanical obstruction impeding blood flow. Cause of obstructive shock include all of the following except?

• Spinal Cord Injury
• Pulmonary Embolism
• Cardiac Tamponade
• Tension Pneumothorax:** Spinal Cord Injury

15. Presentation of shock includes all of the following clinical findings except: - Altered level of consciousness - Hypotension - Mental Clarity - Tachycardia: Mental Clarity
16. Septic shock is a common cause of death in the ICU. What causes sepsis? - An overwhelming allergic reaction - Severe inflammatory response to pathogens - Unknown causes resulting in Hypertension - Poor nursing and health care provider interventions: Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen
17. Which of the following is a type of septic shock? - Cardiogenic Shock - Distributive Shock - Obstructive Shock - Hypovolemic Shock: Distributive Shock
18. A disease where the client often has shortened (genetic mutation) dystrophin strand resulting in small tears in the muscles as they are used resulted in muscle degeneration is called what? - Gower's Disease - Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy - Multiple Sclerosis - Fibromyalgia: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
    19. Homeostasis: The maintenance of a constant, internal state.
    20. Allostasis: The process where the body response to stressors in or to maintain homeostasis
    21. Allostatic Overload: When chronic exposure exceeds the body's ability to cope
    22. Hypokalemia is: Potassium less than 3.5 mEq/L
    23. Hyperkalemia is: Potassium greater than 5.5 mEq/L
    24. Hypovolemia is: A decrease in blood volume throughout the body

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Study online at https://quizlet.com/_g2thvc 25 Hydrostatic Pressure: The pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push the water out of the vessel

26. Mitochondria: The organelle where most of the body's ATP (Energy) is made.
    27. Innate Immunity: The immunity that is present before exposure and effective from birth
    28. Antibody: a substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates an antigen that has entered the body
    29. Cytotoxic T Cells: A type of lymphocyte that kills infected body cells and cancer cells
    30. Histamine: A chemical mediator stored in mast cells that triggers inflammatory processes and causes itching
    31. Interstitial Fluid: "Liquid between the cells and the body" Fluid from the spaces around cells. It comes from substances that leak out of blood capillaries
    32. Pathogen: A disease-causing agent
    33. Carcinoma: Cancer that arose in the epithelial tissue of the skin or the lining of the internal organs
    34. Leukemia: Cancer of white blood cells
    35. Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy: Often an X-linked recessive disease seen more often in males
    36. A condition that causes a "Bamboo-spine" appearance that is in an inflammatory disease causing vertebrae to fuse is called what?: Ankylosing Spondylitis
    37. Cellulitis: Infection of the skin and soft tissues underneath
    38. Melanoma: The most serious form of skin cancer. A tumor of melanin-forming cells
    39. Actinic Keratosis: precancerous skin condition of horny tissue formation that results from excessive exposure to sunlight 40. Erythema: Redness of the skin (Superficial)
    40. Bullae: Fluid-filled blisters
    41. Osteoarthritis: progressive, degenerative joint disease with loss of articular cartilage and hypertrophy of bone at articular surfaces. Sometimes from wear and tear
    42. What is fibromyalgia?: Chronic disease characterized by non-restorative sleep and muscle aches and stiffness in all four quadrants of the body
    43. Cardinal signs of inflammation: Redness, Swelling, Heat, Pain, Pallor

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45. What is true of Psoriasis: Excessive Keratinocytes, Immune dysregulation, and Inflammation are part of the process
46. On a complete blood count (CBC) with differential, a client with allergies will have high levels of which of the following?: Basal Cells and Mast Cells 47 What electrolyte imbalance would the nurse with a client who has muscle tetany, positive trousseau and Chvostek's sign's?: Hypocalcemia, Low levels of calcium may affect the excitability of the nerve and muscle cells, causing cramps and abnormal muscle movements.
47. What is the best way to prevent transmission of infections agents?: Wash Hands
48. Which of the following describes Homeostasis?: A state of equilibrium or balance within the organism to maintain usual function
49. What happens to a client with muscular dystrophy?: Progressive loss of muscle tissues
50. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) causes the release of many hormones. Including angiotensin 1, 2, and aldosterone.: Vasoconstriction and Increased Blood Pressure
51. Which of the following occurs with the distribution of water between interstitial and intracellular compartments?: Osmosis
52. What causes osteoarthritis and degenerative joint disease?: The progressive loss of joint function to "wear and tear"
53. How does rheumatoid Arthritis, an autoimmune condition manifest?: - Chronic inflammation in affected joints
54. What is one of the properties of cancer cells?: The ability to invade local tissues and overrun neighboring cells
55. A client presents to the emergency department after sustaining burn injuries to her hands and forearms. Her skin appears red, swollen. What type of burn would this be classified as?: First degree burn
56. Which of the following symptoms describe complications of compartment syndrome?: Pain and tissue damage
57. What is a protective mechanism that protects the body when injured. What are the cardinal signs?: Loss of function, swelling, heat, redness, and pain.
58. What are the five P's of compartment syndrome?: Paresthesia, Pallor, Pain, Paralysis, and Pulselessness

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60. Which of the following causes edema?: Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
61. Osteosarcoma is one of the cancers of the bone. Which of the following describes osteosarcoma tumor?: Extremely Malignant
62. Clinical manifestations of fluid excess include which of the following?: - Bounding pulses and crackles in the lungs
63. Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following?: Potassium 64 What is the function of Mitochondria within the cells?: Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy
64. The nurse observes redness and feels warmth in an area of cellulitis, what is the direct cause of these clinical manifestations?: Increased blood flow to the area
65. A client presents with a single fracture straight across the bone without a break in alignment.: Simple transverse fracture
66. Which of the following is true about hyponatremia?: Potentially fatal due to swelling in the brain
67. which of the following causes gout?: Excessive uric acid metabolism
68. Which of the following is an example of type ll hypersensitivity?: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (Erythroblastosis Fetallis) - IgG or IgM
69. Type 1 hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, IgE mediated
70. Type 3 hypersensitivity: Rheumatoid arthritis, Immune-complex induced glomerulonephritis--Immune-Complex Mediated, formation of antigen-antibody complexes. Can cause systemic or localized reactions. I.e. farmer's lung, librarian's lung, rheumatoid arthritis, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (wolf face).

• IgG, IgM

72. Type 4 hypersensitivity: contact dermatitis, type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis, T-Cells
73. What are the steps of carcinogenesis?: initiation, promotion, progression
74. Why is fibromyalgia frequently a misunderstood disorder?: The client has pain but no specific diagnotics
75. Which of the following causes itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists?: Scabies
76. What are matured monocytes that migrate from the blood into tissues and engulf foreign substances called?: Macrophages

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77. What happens when cells metastasize?: Cancer cells migrate to distant sites
78. Fluid excretion occurs by which of the following?: Urination and Sweating
79. Which immunoglobin (Ig) mediates the Type 1 Hypersensitivity reactions?: IgE
80. A client has a potassium of 1.9 mEq/L. Which of the following is a potential complication of this electrolyte imbalance?: Cardiac Arrhythmias
81. Which of the following would a client experience during the alarm phase of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS): Resolution of fight-or-flight manifestations 82. The nurse needs to explain to a colleague what defines active immunity. What would the nurse state about active immunity?: Active immunity comes either from an active infection or through immunizations 83 Which of the following topics are components of pathophysiology?: Etiology, Pathogenesis, Treatment Implications, Clinical manifestation
82. The bones serve as a reservoir for which ion/electrolyte?: Calcium
83. Fluid volume deficits may result from which of the following?: Vomiting and Diarrhea
84. A client diagnosed with heart failure reports to the healthcare provider a feeling of dizziness upon standing.: A symptom
85. What is associated with psoriatic arthritis?: Psoriasis
86. what causes osteoporosis?: An imbalance of bone resorption and bone formation
87. what chemical does the body release during a stress response?: Epinephrine
88. fight or flight response is manifested by which of the following?: Dilated pupils, increased heart rate, Increase heart pressure
89. Which of the following effects does histamine, an inflammatory mediator, have on the body?: Causes the blood vessels to dilate
90. what is a complication of a bone fracture that causes decreased blood flow and is painful?: Compartment syndrome
91. Shingles is a disorder of herpes zoster and has which of the following clinical manifestations?: Eruption of vesicles along sensory neuron dermatomes
92. what typically causes contact dermatitis?: contact with a skin allergen
93. What is cachexia?: Overall weightloss and weakness

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96. extracellular fluid contains higher concentrations of what?: Sodium and Chloride
97. which of the following is a symptom of dehydration?: Thirst
98. Which of the following is a simple lab test that can measure inflammation in a client?: Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ETR)
99. Which of the following explains why women are at an increased risk for UTI?: in women, the opening of the urethra is in close proximity to the anus
100. What is the main cause of chronic pancreatitis occurrences?: Alcoholism
101. Pyelonephritis is the infection of which of the following areas?: Kidney
102. Which of the following describes hematuria?: Blood in the Urine
103. Which of the following "Polys" occurs with type 1 diabetes?: Polyuria, Polydipsia, and Polyphagia
104. The client has gallstones obstructing the bile duct. What symptoms would the nurse to expect to see in this client?: Severe right upper quadrant pain 105. What is the difference between diabetes mellitus type 1 and type 2?: Type 1 is due to lack of insulin production; type 2 is due to lack of a pancreas

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Study online at https://quizlet.com/_g2thvc 106 What is one of the causes of pyelonephritis?: Ascending urinary tract infection

107. The client can expect which of the following concerns when infected with Herpes Simplex Virus?: A recurrence of symptoms periodically
108. Which condition is the result of endometrial tissue growing outside of the uterus?: Endometriosis
109. Which of the following is a condition of the newborn eyes caused by the transmission of Chlamydia?: Ophthalmia Neonatorum
110. What are the two main conditions responsible for chronic kidney disease?: Hypertension and Diabetes
111. Which of the following can lead to an intrarenal kidney injury?: Clot in the renal artery
112. What causes a rigid abdomen in Peritonitis?: Inflammation and Abdominal muscle spasm
113. Which of the following electrolyte disorders is associated with Syndrome of Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone?: Hyponatremia
114. Which of the following causes obstructions in the renal system?: Presense of a tumor and enlarged prostate
115. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client is experiencing?: Appendicitis
116. Which of the following injury is associated with prerenal kidney injury?- : An episode of decreased blood flow to the kidneys. hemorrhage
117. What are the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?: Cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, Bradycardia
118. Which of the following may a client be at risk for it they have the human papillary virus? (HPV): Cervical Cancer
119. Which electrolyte can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias for clients with chronic kidney disease?: Potassium
120. A nurse is teaching a client about syphilis. Which information should the nurse include?: Syphilis can be fatal in the tertiary stage or the disease 121. How many stages of syphilis are there?: 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary (also known as neurosyphilis)

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• Primary syphilis is the first stage of the disease. It causes one or more small, painless sores in or around the genitals, anus, or mouth.

122. What is the order of the flow of filtrate through the kidneys?: The correct order for filtrate flow through a nephron is Glomerular capsule (Bowman's Capsule) , Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) , loop of Henle, DCT, collecting duct. 123 When a client has abnormal functioning of the parathyroid glands, this can result in imbalances of which of the following electrolyte?: Calcium
123. Which of the following organism is most often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease?: Chlamydia and Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
124. What is most likely to cause a hiatal Hernia?: Increased intra-abdominal pressure
125. Which of the following is a sign that a client is in oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARL)?: Decreased urine output
126. What causes diabetes insipidus?: Insufficient Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) production
127. What are the main characteristics of Cushing Syndrome?: Excessive Cortisol Production, fluid retention, and moon-face appearance
128. Which of the following is a problem related to benign prostatic hypertrophy? (BPH): Inability to pass urine effectively
129. Which of the following conditions would be expected with a client who has elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level with a decrease T3/T level?: Hypothyroidism
130. Which of the following may result in a mechanical bowel obstruction?: Intussusception: A condition in which part of the intestine telescopes into itself. 132. Which symptom would a client with chronic gastritis likely exhibit?: Hyperchlorhydria and ulcers
131. Dysphagia: condition in which swallowing is difficult or painful
132. chronic gastritis symptoms: burning or gnawing epigastric pain, nausea, weight loss, anorexia, and hematemesis
133. Which of the following is an example of general cause of UTI?: E. Coli - Escherichia Coli
134. Which of the following is an example of postrenal kidney injury?: An obstruction in the ureter
135. Which of the following may occur if gastroenteritis is left untreated?: Electrolyte Imbalance and Dehydration

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138. Which of the following is a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)?: Esophageal Cancer
139. What of the following may occur with exposure to antibiotics?: Diarrhea
140. What type of incontinence is caused by an increase in intraabdominal pressure due to activities such as coughing or sneezing?: Stress
141. Which of the following does helicobacter pylori (H. Pylori) often cause: Peptic Ulcer Disease
142. Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with type 1 diabetes?: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) 143 Which of the following is a classic manifestation of glomerulonephritis?: Proteinuria
143. What is most likely the cause of polyuria in renal insufficiency?: Loss of tubule function
144. Which of the following are inflammatory bowel disorders?: Ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease
145. Which of the following is the name of a medical emergency associated with hyperthyroidism, in which the client experiences fever, decreased levels of consciousness, and abdominal pain?: Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxicosis) 147. Which condition is typically caused by genetic mutation?: Polycystic kidney disease
146. What is the main purpose of dialysis for a client with kidney diease: Removes excess fluid and waste.
147. Which condition leads to an excessive amount of growth hormone (GH) being released by the pituitary gland in adulthood after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused.: Acromegaly
148. Gigantism: abnormal growth of the entire body that is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone before puberty - childhood
149. The neurologic system needs two main components to function:: Oxygen & Glucose
150. What is the difference between a primary head injury and a secondary injury?: Primary is main injury and secondary is due to inflammation
151. Why is intracranial pressure (ICP) measured?: Indicates pressure levels inside the cranium

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154. Deadly complication from ICP: the client can have a brain herniation 155. An epidural hematoma is dangerous due to which below: An epidural hematoma is due to arterial bleeding
155. A spinal cord injury can result in paralysis: TRUE
156. How is a spinal cord injury diagnosed?: Diagnosis by imaging studies 158. What is a primary risk factor for Transient Ischemic Attack? (Temp. blockage of blood flow to the brain) Mini-stroke: A TIA is due to artherosclerosis: buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on the artery walls. 159. What is the most important diagnostic for a stroke (CVA)?: Cranial CT 160. A hemorrhagic stroke is due to which cause?: Client has a bleeding vessel in the brain
157. Where is the most common location of cerebral aneurysms?: In the Circle of Willis: acts to provide collateral blood flow between the anterior and posterior circulations of the brain, protecting against ischemia in the event of vessel disease or damage in one or more areas 162 Serious complication of Epilepsy: Status Epilepticus: A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes, or having more than 1 seizure within a 5 minutes period, without returning to a normal level of consciousness between episodes
158. What is the difference between a focal seizure and generalized seizure?: Generalized is due to whole seizure activity
159. Identify the AS of Alzheimer Disease: Anomia(Aphasia), Agnosia, Amnesia, Apraxia
160. Treatment of Alzheimers are medications to maximize functioning: True
161. Brain tumor complications can result in death due to which: Increased ICP
162. Multiple Sclerosis is characterized by which?: Demyelination of Neurons
163. Destruction of which brain structure results in manifestations of Parkinson's Disease: Substantia Nigra: is a basal ganglia structure located in the midbrain that plays an important role in reward and movement.
164. Parkinson's Disease manifestations are due to?: Under production of Dopamine
165. Myasthenia Gravis is due to which cause?: Autoimmune IgG autoantibodies 171. Determine the minute volume: Tidal Volume = 400ml ; Resp. Rate = 12 bpm: 4800 ml/min
166. Lung compliance is which below: Compliance is the 'stretch' and recovery of the lungs

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173. What is the role of the lungs in pH balance: The lungs manage CO balance 174. Nosocomial Pneumonia results in which type of pneumonia?: Hospital acquired Pneumonia
174. Compliance with TB medication is important due to which complication?: Development of drug-resistant forms
175. What are the problems when a client has a asthma attack?: Airway swelling and Mucus
176. What is a life threatening condition related to an asthma attack?: Status Asthmaticus: respiratory failure that comes with the worst form of acute severe asthma, or an asthma attack
177. What is Cor Pulmonale?: Pulmonary related right-sided heart failure 179. Which condition is called 'pink puffer': Emphysema: lung condition that causes shortness of breath; the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged 180. Atelectasis is referred to as which complication?: Collapsed Alveoli 181. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is due to another serious condition: TRUE
178. What is the hallmark of ARDS?: Refractory Hypoxemia
179. What is the classic defining characterisitic of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?: Reed-Sternberg cells 184 Which leukemia is characterized by philadelphia chromosome?: Chronic Myeloid
180. Which body organ system sends a message to the bone marrow to make red blood cells?: The kidneys
181. Pernicious Anemia is treated with B12 Supplements: True
182. Aplastic Anemia is characterized by which below?: No red blood cells, No platelets
183. What Is the hallmark feature of hemophilia A?: Hemarthrosis: condition of articular bleeding, that is into the joint cavity. This can occur after an injury or, more commonly, in bleeding disorders such as hemophilia. 189. Which below is not a valve of the heart?: Pyloric
184. Cardiac Tamponade is life-threatening because of which below?: Excess Pressure on the heart impeding pumping
185. Common bacteria associated with infective endocarditis are which?: Staphylococcus; Streptococcus

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192. Primary cause of left-sided heart failure is which?: Left-sided Myocardial Infarction
193. Cholesterol comes from animal fats: TRUE
194. Which is amodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis?: Exercise Levels 195. Which term below indicates backflow of blood due to a heart valve that doesn't close properly: Regurgitation
195. In the presense of left-sided heart failure, congestion from backed up blood is where?: The lungs: Accumulation of blood coming into the right side of the heart causes congestion and fluid accumulation in other parts of the body, such as the legs and the liver. 197. Virchow's Triad is indicative of which complication: Development of thrombi
196. Shock is characterized by: Inadequate Oxygen Delivery to Tissues 199. Management of any type of shock is dependent on which?: Treating the underlying cause
197. Which type of shock does not respond well to the administration of fluid?: Cardiogenic
198. What are the three phases of acute kidney injury?: Prodromal, Oliguric, Postoliguric
199. Increased plasma albumin causes ascites: False: A normal albumin range is 3.4 to 5.4 g/dL. If you have a lower albumin level, you may have malnutrition. It can also mean that you have liver disease or an inflammatory disease. Higher albumin levels may be caused by acute infections, burns, and stress from surgery or a heart attack. 203 Which of the following leads to the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with COPD: Air trapping in the Alveoli
200. What would you expect to see in a client with COPD: Dyspnea on Exertion
201. It is typical to see constipation, weight gain, and fatigue in a patient with hypothyroidism: True
202. hyperthroidism: Hyperthyroidism is the production of too much thyroxine hormone. It can increase metabolism. Symptoms include unexpected weight loss, rapid or irregular heartbeat, sweating, and irritability, Graves Disease
203. What is compartment syndrome?: Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that involves increased pressure in a muscle compartment. It can lead to muscle and nerve damage and problems with blood flow.

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208. Rheumatoid arthritis and allergies can result from excessive immune responses: TRUE
209. cause of contact dermatitis: Contact with skin allergen
210. A patient with Cushing syndrome would MOST likely present with:: Hypercortisolism: fatty hump between shoulders, rounded face, pink or purple stretch marks.
211. Hypocortisolism: Specifically, the adrenal glands produce insufficient amounts of the hormone cortisol and sometimes aldosterone: fatigue, nausea, darkening of the skin, and dizziness upon standing. 212. Imbalance of ___ with diabetes insipidus: ADH
212. The liver is associated with development of esophageal varices: True 214. Energy used to maintain biologic functions in an undiagnosed type 1 diabetic involved which of the following?: Fat tissue 215. Vaccines are classified as primary prevention: True
213. What happens in clients with exercised induced asthma?: Bronchospasm after exercise
214. What would you expect to see in a patient with gout: Change in uric acid levels
215. H. Pylori often causes: Peptic Ulcer Disease
216. Untreated chronic bronchitis causes hepatic encephalopathy: FALSE: Pneumonia
217. HPV can lead to which type of cancer?: Cervical Cancer
218. Hyponatremia (sodium) can lead to:: Potentially fatal swelling of the brain
219. Which of the following is NOT attributed to impaired neuro function with increased intracranial pressure? - Compression of the brain

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**- Inflammation of the brain tissues

• The inability of the cranium to expand in adults
• The ability of the tissues to autoregulate the pressure:** - The ability of the tissues to autoregulate the pressure

223. Which of the following are inital symptoms of malignancies of blood- forming tissues and lymphatic structures?: Non-specific or no symptoms 224. **What causes secondary brain injury after head trauma?

• Brain injury resulting from the body's response to tissue damage
• Brain injury resulting from the initial trauma
• Injury as a result of medical therapy
• Focal areas of bleeding:** Brain injury resulting from the body's response to tissue damage

225. **Which of the following would you expect to see in a client experiencing hypoventilation?

• Increased oxygenation in the alveoli
• Increased carbon dioxide in the alveoli
• decreased hemoglobin in the alveoli
• decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli:** Increased carbon dioxide in the alveoli

226. The kidneys have a role with RBC synthesis. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete?: Erythropoietin