RDA exam study guide with complete solutions!! Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 20, Exams of Nursing

Download RDA exam study guide with complete solutions!! Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 20 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! RDA exam study guide with complete solutions!! Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2024 Autonomy - Answer self determination Beneficence - Answer benefit to the pt code of ethics - Answer voluntary standards of behavior est by profession Ethics - Answer Moral standards of conduct; rules or principles that govern proper conduct HIPAA - Answer health insurance portability & accountability act of 1996 - ensures privacy of pts health info Justice - Answer fairness Laws - Answer min. standards/behavior est. by population/profession. non-maleficence - Answer do no harm veracity - Answer truthfulness; not lying to the pt abandonment - Answer w/draw a pt from tx w/out giving reasonable notice/competent replacement matrix bands r placed? - Answer btwn interdental papilla n the proximal surfaces of tooth administrative laws - Answer category of laws/regulations est by gov. agencies Board of Dentistry - Answer agency that adopt rules/regul. n implement DPA Child Abuse - Answer any act that endangers/impairs a child's physical/emotional health/development Civil Law - Answer category of law that deals w relations of individuals, corp, organization contract law - Answer category of law - an agreement of services for money/payment(contract) criminal law - Answer category of law - violation against state /gov. dental auxiliary - Answer da, dhyg, lab techs direct supervision - Answer level of supervision, dentist present when d.a. performs delegates instruct due care - Answer just, proper, and sufficient care, or the absence of negligence elder abuse - Answer physical/sexual abuse, financial exploitation, emo. confinement, passive neglect, or willful deprivation of an elderly. expanded fx - Answer specific intraoral fx delegated to an auxiliary that require increased skill or training expressed contract - Answer contract estb. thru verbal or written words general supervision - Answer level of supervision, d.a. performs according to delegated instructions of dr but dr doesnt have to be there HIPAA - Answer health ins portability act of 1996, fed reg, ensure pt's healthcare info will remain private Implied contract - Answer contract est. by action, not words informed consent - Answer permission granted from pt after being informed about tx implied consent - Answer pt's actions indicates consent for tx infraction - Answer minor offense - only a fine licensure - Answer license 2 practice in a specific state malpractice - Answer prof. negligence mandated reporters - Answer designated pros who r required by law 2 report known/suspected child abuse misdemeanor - Answer offense, can result to 6 to 1 yr prison pt of record - Answer individual that has been examined/diagnosed by doc n has a tx plan reciprocity - Answer to obtain a license in another state w/out retesting res gestae - Answer "things done." latin/said @ time of negligent act -admissible evidence in court of law yes/no matrix band is needed 4 a class 1 cavity prep? y? - Answer no common shapes of commercial wedges r? - Answer triangular shape purpose of a wedge is 2? - Answer flush the m. band to prox surface of missing wall to match natural tooth result of inadequate/improper placement of a wedge - Answer overhang/open contacts purpose of cavity varnish/liner? - Answer to line/coat cavity prep: seal dentinal tubules 4rm mercury in op/cmt acid varnish shouldnt be used under resin/composite rest. material (bonds) y? - Answer varnish interferes w/polymerization of resins/composites when should u use varnish as a base? - Answer only after placement of calcium hydroxide/CAHO2/DYCAL b4 znpo4 under what supervision who may apply cavity varnish? - Answer RDA n direct supervision y does varnish turn sticky n thick? - Answer b/c of long exposure 2 air - use varnish thinner/solvent condition of the cavity prep b4 placement of a base/liner? - Answer clean n dried y should u wipe the calcium hydroxide instrument w/gauze btwn material transfers? - Answer -prevents material frm setting by heat/pt's mouth who may apply base/liner 2 exposed/near exposed pulp? - Answer the dds only where should a base b placed? - Answer deepest part of d prep not 2 xceed 1mm in depth. a cmt used 4 strong thermal protective base? - Answer ZNPO4 (zinc phosphate) but CAHO2/varnish on dentin 1st d chem. react 4 eugenol on acrylic/comp. restoration? - Answer retards d set/polymerization-don't use directly to resins who can remove cmt supragingiv n what instrum.? - Answer rda n direct vision/use scalar, explorer, spoon excavator can RDA remove interprox. sub-gingival cmt? - Answer knotted floss only the temp crown prevents? - Answer pulp irrit.,/extrusion of tooth-teeth/open contacts/drift'n import. considerations when prep a temp crown - Answer mesial-distal length/occlusal height/buccal-lingual width/ contact pts how far subgingivally should d crown fit? - Answer 1mm n on gingiv margin of prep purpose of crimp'n temp crwn? - Answer causes 2 fit crwn more snugly on margin by crimp/contour pliers who may place temp crown - Answer rda w/direct vision rda may remove subgingiv. cmt how? - Answer with knotted floss what 2 components of resin matrl. is used 4 temp crwns? - Answer polymer (pwdr)/monomer (liq) signs that a crwn's 2 long n over margin? - Answer blanching-tissue that turns white by pressure on gums how dyu add depth 2 an impress. tray - Answer add ortho rope wax 2margins to reach muccobuccal who takes impress 4 crwn&bridge? - Answer dds/rdaef alginate mix looks lumpy when.. - Answer not mix correctly, 2 much pwder/lil water y would impress matrl b sticky n stick 2 teeth? - Answer matrl is not set what could cause void space in impress? - Answer air folded in mix/tray or saliva bubbles how much tissue should b included in impress? - Answer teeth n 'peripheral roll' - muccobuccal/tuberosity/retro molars area/labiel frenum using hot water in alginate mix causes? - Answer material sets 2 fast how 2 reduce pt from gagging during taking impression - Answer sit upright, use fast- set, breathe thru nose how should irreversible/reversible hydrocolloid impress b stored? - Answer disinfect, seal in container/plstic bag wrap'd in w/damp towel. how soon should impress b pourd - Answer asap but depends on brand what can b on impression that retard d set of stone/plastic - Answer blood/saliva/debri how many mm should there b btwn d trim'n to tissue? - Answer 3mm space how long should models b soaked b4 trim'n it? - Answer 5 mins chem. name 4 plaster - Answer beta calcium sulfate chem. name 4 stone class I - Answer alpha calcium sulfate chem. name 4 improved stone class II - Answer modified alpha calcium sulfate loss of gloss means? - Answer alginate matrl lost its sheen n shouldn't b used anymore most common stain in mouths of children? - Answer yellow - in everybodys mouth grasp of choice 4 coronal polish? - Answer -modified pen grasp what's a fulcrum? - Answer finger rest/support stabilize instrument/close 2 work'n area who may preform coronal polish'n tx? - Answer rda w/completed course & certified extrinsic means? - Answer stain occur on external surfaces n removable by c/polish >OUTIDE STRUCT instrinsic is? - Answer stain occur w/in d tooth n can't b removed by c/polish >INSIDE TOOTH STRUCT exogenous means? - Answer develop/originate from source outside tooth n may/not b removable >ORGIN OUTSIDE TOOTH endogenous means? - Answer stain develop/originate 4rm w/in tooth n not removable by c/polish'n >ORGIN INSIDE TOOTH tetracycline stain classified as which type of stain - Answer intrinsic-endogenous stain; w/in tooth & originated in tooth yellow stain's classified as which type of stain? - Answer extrinsic-exogenous stain; external n originated 4rm outside tooth classify stain caused by amalgam (op)/silver nitrate? - Answer intrinsic-exogenous stain -w/in tooth structure/originated outside can a RDA certified 4 coronal polish do polish part of py (prophylaxis)? - Answer no. can only polish b4... - fluoride appl./acid etch -placing rubber dam/bands -crwns n restoration -after removal: perio dress/packs who may apply fluoride? - Answer DA - direct vision what is fluoride effective in? - Answer reduction of caries/strengthen the enamel normal temp reading? - Answer 98.6°F normal BP reading? - Answer 120/80 (adult) - normal systolic 100 to 140 - normal diastolic 60 to 90 appropriate rate of deflation of BP cuff? - Answer 2 mm/sec (1 line on gauge) a pt w/hx of angina pectoris suffers...? - Answer heart diseases; mild to severe chest pain in area of sternum what r 2 types of b/p cuffs (sphygmomanometers)? - Answer aneroid - dial gauge mercury - column gauge if pt stops breathing n has no pulse what dyu do - Answer begin CPR, call 911 for medic, cont CPR 'til medic arrives. ur pt is anxious, coughing n has severe pain in lower jaw, what dyu do? - Answer call medic. it could b angina attack- dds administer nitroglycerin OR myocardial infarction- pain meds w/oxygen pt has fruity/acetone smell'n breath n is very thirsty, what wrong/what should u do? - Answer pt suffers diabetic acidosis, needs insulin tell the difference btwn angina attack n myocardial infarction? - Answer angina is relieved by nitroglycerin in 2-3 min if the pain is still present/severe tx 4 M.I. what's a concern 4 ur pt after they had an epileptic seizure? - Answer the pt can have respiratory arrest/maintain airway/ monitor breath'n/prevent pt 4rm injury during/after seizure pt is hyperventilating what d'yu do? - Answer reassure pt: breath in bag to build carbon dioxide lvl OR hold breath n breathe slowly adult CPR (rescue breathing ratio/rate) - Answer I breath every 5 sec. (1:5) ratio = 12 breaths/min can the assist. administer nitrous oxide unit? - Answer yes, only 4 emergency admin of oxygen wheres the carotid pulse? - Answer @ the neck - location of pulse check on unconscious adult what's d correct compression/breath ratio 4 rescuing a child? - Answer 5 compress, 1 breath (5:1) = 100 compress/min describe d correct procedure 4 a 1 person cpr rescue? - Answer shake/shout/call 911/ open airway & chk breath'n if not - give 2 breaths, chk pulse if not present start compress/cpr the start/end of nitrous oxide administration is? - Answer 100% oxygen signs pt under correct levels of N20 demonstrates? - Answer consciousness/responsive/ normal -> vital signs, pupils, protective reflexes & calm best way 2 reduce health hazard 4rm nitrous oxide? - Answer use scavenger system - evacuates the expelled gases who administers N20? - Answer DDS/RDH who r licensed 4 this procedure. DA can only assist when can a DA assist in d administration of N20? - Answer DDS must be tx room, chairside n giving instruct. pt is recieving too much n20, what d'yu do? - Answer quickly reduce/turn of n20 n increase oxygen what position should d nosepiece VALVE b during administration of n20? - Answer open what position should d nosepiece VENT b in during the administration of n20? - Answer closed what's d average range per liter flow during the admin. of n20? - Answer 5 to 8 liters what's d purpose of the fail-safe system? - Answer - prevents delivery of n20 w/out oxygen. - oxygen lvl can't go below 2-3 liters. - if oxygen runs out: system will shut off. what's d use of d flush valve/push button? - Answer in 911 cases -n20 needs 2 b turned off & oxygen turnt up. - can b used as a positive resuscitator to provide artificial ventaliation. what's d color of the n20 tank? - Answer n20 - blue/oxygen - green can the DA/RDA apply aerosol topical anesthetic? - Answer no. only gel, cream, paste, ointment, liquid forms where should a topical anesthetic b applied 4 a mandibular block? - Answer in muccobuccal fold @ apex of d root. (u can also use 4 maxillary infiltration injections) where should topical anesthetic b applied for a mandibular block? what syringe n needle size? - Answer near anterior pillar of d soft palate along anterior border of the ramus. > u need aspirating syringe w/long needle (1 5/8") what's d fx of topical anetheic? - Answer reduce pain sensations of d tiny nerve endings close 2 d surface of d oral mucosa. a DA can apply Cetacaine spray or Xylocaine paste? - Answer Xylocaine paste - NO SPRAY. what type of topical produces anesthesia by reducing d temperature of d tissue? - Answer Ethyl Chloride (refrigerant spray) where should d topical anesthetic b applied 4 a greater palatine nerve block? - Answer midway btwn d maxillary 2nd molar n d midline 4 d palate where should d topical anesthetic b applied 4 an infra orbital block? - Answer opposite maxillary 2nd bicuspid about 5 mm. outward 4rm d buccal surface. what's d purpose of inter maxillary elastics? - Answer aids in alignment of teeth/arches what arch dominates d pull force of d inter maxillary elastics? - Answer max. arch if d inter maxillary elastic extends/hooks 4rm distal max. area of d arch 2 d mesial area of d man. on d buccal side what's the results? - Answer max. stable traction pulled resulted in retruding d mandibular towards its pull distally. what pliers r of choice 4 d placement of d archwire in2 buccal tubs n brackets? - Answer weingart/how pliers list Angie's classification of malocclusion: - Answer neutroclusion's - class I distoclusion's - class II mesioclusion's - class III overjet - Answer horizontal distance btwn anterior mand. n maxl. arches overbite - Answer vertical distance btwn max. teeth extend over d mand. anteriors the appropriate mthd to measure arch width? - Answer use a face bow/divider 2 measure d distance 4rm tip of d right cuspid 2 d tips of the cusp of the left side who may place separators? - Answer DA only elastic seps. RDA all types of seps. both under direct vision how is a band removed? - Answer teflon beak pliers placed on occlusal n edge of the band, squeeze n band is free what's d purpose of put'n wax in the brackets/tubes during cmt'n? - Answer to keep cmt from setting in n clogging appliance. y is it important to locate a loose band? - Answer loose bands can cause: stains/decalcificatio/caries/ strong odors/tastes & plaque build up what r considered d 2 "energy nutrients"? - Answer carbohydrates and lipids/fats vitamin B1/ (riboflavin) deficiency may result in what oral pathological condition? - Answer cheilitis/cheilosis - condition of dry/cracking lesion @ d corners of the mouth what food r recomd'd 4 high decay incident pt? - Answer foods low in refined sugar, meat, raw veggies, whole grains, bread n high nutritional foods what part of d tissue is the most susceptible to injury from plaque? - Answer pits & fissures when r pit n fissure sealants recommended? - Answer primary n deciduous teeth w/deep pit & fissures that have not yet been exposed to decay... prefer newly erupt teeth. what's the most effective in the removal if proximal plaque? - Answer flossing n brushing where's brushing n flossing least effective? - Answer on occlusal pits n fissures how is incorrect flossing detected? - Answer by presence of inter-proximal plaque n injury to the inter-proximal gingival tissue before applying pit n fissure how's the tooth prepared? - Answer cleaned by coronal polish w/pumice, cleaned, dry n isolated who may perform the pit & fissure sealant procedure? - Answer DDS and RDAEF how often is brushing-flossing recommended? - Answer @ least once every 24 hrs. ideally after each meal/snack acid attacks last __ mins after the sugary substance has been eaten.. - Answer 20 mins what's cariogenic food? - Answer food that r broken down in the mouth into simple sugars that r USED by bacteria in plaques. what's calculus n can it b removed by brushing/flossing? - Answer calculus's hard mineralized plaque that must b remove by scaling tx who may light cure the dental materials? - Answer DA - general vision what's the corrdct mixed amalgam appearance & consistency? - Answer dull & plastic consistency is amalgam and/or composite permanent restoration? - Answer yes both are when/how's the acid etchants removed? - Answer after 1 min by rinsing thoroughly for the recomd'd time then dried what's the most important action to assure that the restoration is retained? - Answer the cavity prep form can gingivitis b detected on the digital x-ray? - Answer no, only bone loss or absorption what affects the density the most on radiographs - Answer kvp and exposure time what's the min. distance to stand away from the xray head when taking x-rays? - Answer 6 ft minimum contrast is most greatly affected by which control factor? - Answer kvp what's a cephalomograph? - Answer an xray of the skull (usually side) what's the purpose of a cephalomograph? - Answer to measure the skull. commonly for ortho/oral surgery tx what view does a panoramic radiograph provide? - Answer view of the entire maxilla n mandible on a single film. conmon used 4 ortho/oral surgery tx if a small child needs xrays n cannot hold film, who can hold it for them? - Answer parent/guardian (that doesn't work w/radiation) what's the purpose of the collimator? - Answer narrow n limit the xray beam to 2 3/4" in diameter to limit he area of xray exposure what's the ideal developing temp n time 4 xray? - Answer 68°F /5 mins which type of intraoral film is used to help diagnose bone levels n inter-proximal caries? - Answer bite wing xrays what causes cone cut? - Answer by not directing the central ray to the center of film what causes overlap? - Answer incorrect horizontal angulation what causes elongation? - Answer insufficient vertical angulation what measures radiation received by the operator? - Answer dosimeter when seating the clamp, were should the jaws be placed? - Answer below the height of contour of the tooth what's the fx of the dental floss placed on he clamp? - Answer safety precaution, prevents d pt from swallowing the clamp if disloged a butterfly clamp is used on which teeth? - Answer anterior teeth what does inverting the rubber dam accomplish? - Answer makes the dam more resistant to leakage: use beaver tail/plastic carrying instr./floss or air stress why floss the teeth before rubber dam placement? - Answer to remove debri n help open contacts what's is a vitalometer used for? - Answer testing the pulps vitality response n condition (also size/depth may b indicated) a reading of 8 on the vitalometer usually indicates what condition? - Answer necrotic/defenerative/dead/ dying pulp what are of the tooth should u place the vitalometer on wen testing a tooth? - Answer facial middle third surfaces of enamel only who may perform vitality testing? - Answer RDA direct s/vision what does a cloudy culture medium indicate? - Answer bacterial growth in the canal n that the canal's not ready for fill what's the appropriate time/temp to incubate a culture? - Answer 48 to 72 hrs @ a temp of 98.6° F how long is a paper point left in a canal to dry the canal? - Answer 5 sec what's the purpose of a post extraction dressing? - Answer replace the lost blood clot n serve as palliative tx (reduce pain) how often should a post extraction dressing be changed? - Answer every 24 to 48 hrs (1-2 days) what r some possible causes for the dry socket? - Answer blood clot didn't form/dislodged/lost or infection again how's a periodontal dressing secured to the teeth? - Answer place material on both facial/lingual surfaces n interlock interproximally what's the fx of a periodontal dressing? - Answer protects surgical site, promotes healing, slightly controls bleeding, splints/stabilizes mobile teeth how far toward the apex is the perio pack extended beyond the surgical site? - Answer 2 mm what's the best way to remove a suture? - Answer cleanse area w/warm water, chx tissue, grasp suture BY knot, cut suture close to tissue n gently pull the suture from the site what's a pathogen? - Answer disease producing microorganisms what does an antibiotic do? how is it used? - Answer to kill bacteria - ingested what does an antiseptic do? how is it used? - Answer kill microorganisms on d skin how r dental prosthesis, impressions & other items removed from the pt's mouth handled? - Answer clean & disinfected list the classifications of clinic surface categories set by the OSAP? - Answer touch/transfer/splash list the 2 control methods used to deal w/surface contamination: - Answer "spray wipe spray" barrier protection & disinfection __ gloves r worn when placing surface barriers? what ppe is worn when cleaning d room? - Answer no/ utility gloves when's a high level disinfectant used? list high level disinfectant(s): - Answer items unsterilized = gluharahyde the guidelines 4 disinfectants used in dentistry r: EPA registered & ___ destruction claim. - Answer TB what's d purpose if pre cleaning a surface b4 disinfecting (as in spray wipe spray) ? - Answer remove the bioburden chemicals that destroy pathogenic microbes on inanimate surfaces r called: - Answer disinfectants list d 7 instrument processing steps: - Answer 1. transport 2. cleaning 3. packaging 4. sterilization 5. storage 6. delivery 7. quality list precautions followed when using glutataldehyde: - Answer wear ppe, don't touch solution, test w/strip & watch out 4 fumes (DO NOT OUT IN SINK) what process destroys all forms of microorganisms including spores & endospores? - Answer sterilization what's d purpose of a holding solution? - Answer prevent bio burden on other instruments the ultrasonic cleaner cleans by using sound waves to cause ____ to remove debris. - Answer cavitation & implosion how often is the ultrasonic cleaner cleaned n disinfected? - Answer once a day after cleaning d instruments by using d ultrasonic, the next 3 steps b4 sterilization r: - Answer take it out, rinse, dry & package d protocol 4 holding solutions n d ultrasonic cleaners is to have labels (to ID) n ____. - Answer change daily. provide a lid to prevent airborne instruments r bagged b4 sterilization 4 2 main reasons: 1. group into set ups & 2. - Answer keep sterile 2 methods of monitoring sterilization are physic monitoring n ______ monitoring. - Answer biological what's used to determine that an instrument packet has been processed in the sterilizer? - Answer process indicators list all expectable methods of sterilization used for dentistry: - Answer 1 autoclave 2 chem "/chem vapor 3 dry heat what r the 3 cycles included in steam sterilization? - Answer 1 heat it up 2 sterilization - pressure 3 dry list the temp, time n pressure needed for autoclave, chem. vapor n dry heat? - Answer auto: 250°f/15lbs/2omins chem vapor: 320°f/15lbs/2hrs dry heat: 270°f/20lbs/20mins what's d advantage of chem vapor sterilization? what r d negatives? - Answer 1. no rust but chem vapors what can cause failure of d sterilization process? - Answer 1 incomplete cycle 2 incorrect packaging 3 incorrect temp chem liquid/glutaraldehyde sterilization requires____ contact time for sterilization. - Answer 10 hrs what method(s) o sterilization is recommend 4 dental hand pieces? - Answer steam/chemial autoclave/water what's the purpose /responsibility of the CDC? - Answer set guidelines what's the purpose/responsibility of OSHA? - Answer to enforce safety in the work place. what's the purpose/responsibility of EPA? - Answer keeps environment safe why r endospores used to test n verify if sterilization occurred? - Answer high resistance/to destroy employee training of safety & exposure control plan is to b done at hire time &____ for all. - Answer once per yr what's the # 1 preventive method of disease transmission to b practiced by everyone? - Answer handwashing surface barriers must be impervious to moisture such as: - Answer platic bags, plastic wrap & stick tape cover dental hand pieces r always... - Answer cleaned, lubricated, sterilized ____ IS NOT an acceptable disinfectant in dentistry (use only as cleaning agent) - Answer alcohol the least recommend method of precleaning & cleaning instruments is by... - Answer hand scrubbing fundamental rule of infection control states "if an item can b heat sterilized it _____" - Answer SHOULD. the ideal instrument processing area is dedicated to... - Answer instrument processing ONLY instruments must be throughly dried when using chem vapor sterilization b/c? - Answer to prevent rusting class 1 cavity - Answer decay on occlusal suface - posterior class 2 cavity - Answer decay- proximal (inbtwn) mesial or distal - posterior class 3 cavity - Answer decay on anterior mid proximal (m/d) class 4 cavity - Answer decay on anterior - proximal (miseal/distal) edges of incisors class 5 cavity - Answer decay on any post/ant tooth - gingival 3rd lingual/facial side class 6 cavity - Answer decay on incisal edge ant. & cusps tip on post.