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Practice of Dental Hygiene in California: Regulations and Guidelines, Exams of Nursing

An in-depth analysis of the regulations governing the practice of dental hygiene in california. It covers the roles and responsibilities of registered dental hygienists, registered dental hygienists in alternative practice, and registered dental hygienists in extended functions. The document also discusses the supervision requirements, the prohibition of unauthorized practice, the reporting of child abuse or neglect, and the revocation or suspension of licenses. Additionally, it outlines the guidelines for aiding or abetting negligent or incompetent practice, selling or bartering dental hygiene degrees, and the use of false names in practice.

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"Dental hygiene board" means The Dental Hygiene Board of California. "Dental board" means The Dental Board of California. "Direct supervision" means The supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed dentist who is required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those procedures. "General supervision" means The supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed dentist who is not required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those procedures. "Oral prophylaxis" means Preventive and therapeutic dental procedures that include bacterial debridements with complete removal, supra and subgingivally, of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, and stains, and the smoothing of tooth surfaces. The objective of this treatment is to create an environment in which the patient can maintain healthy hard and soft tissues. The following functions may be performed by a registered dental hygienist, in addition to those authorized pursuant to Sections 1908 to 1914, inclusive: (a) All functions that may be performed by a registered dental assistant.

(b) All persons holding a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions as of December 31, 2005, are authorized to perform the duties of a registered dental assistant specified in this chapter. All persons issued a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions on or after January 1, 2006, shall qualify for and receive a registered dental assistant license prior to performance of the duties of a registered dental assistant specified in this chapter. (a) The practice of dental hygiene includes:

  • Dental hygiene assessment and development
  • Planning, and implementation of a dental hygiene care plan.
  • It also includes oral health education, counseling, and health screenings. The practice of dental hygiene does not include any of the following procedures: (1) Diagnosis and comprehensive treatment planning. (2) Placing, condensing, carving, or removal of permanent restorations. (3) Surgery or cutting on hard and soft tissue including, but not limited to, the removal of teeth and the cutting and suturing of soft tissue. (4) Prescribing medication. (5) Administering local or general anesthesia or oral or parenteral conscious sedation, except for the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen, whether administered alone or in combination with each other, or local anesthesia pursuant to Section 1909. A registered dental hygienist is authorized to perform the following procedures under direct supervision of a licensed dentist, after submitting to the dental hygiene board evidence of satisfactory completion of a course of instruction, approved by the dental hygiene board, in the procedures: (a) Soft-tissue curettage. (b) Administration of local anesthesia.

(c) Administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen, whether administered alone or in combination with each other. A registered dental hygienist is authorized to perform the following procedures under general supervision: (a) Preventive and therapeutic interventions, including oral prophylaxis, scaling, and root planing. (b) Application of topical, therapeutic, and subgingival agents used for the control of caries and periodontal disease. (c) The taking of impressions for bleaching trays and application and activation of agents with nonlaser, light-curing devices. (d) The taking of impressions for bleaching trays and placements of in- office, tooth-whitening devices. (a) A registered dental hygienist may provide, without supervision: Educational services, oral health training programs, and oral health screenings. A registered dental hygienist shall refer any screened patients with possible oral abnormalities to a dentist for: a comprehensive examination, diagnosis, and treatment plan. In any public health program created by federal, state, or local law or administered by a federal, state, county, or local governmental entity, at a sponsored event by a sponsoring entity or at a nonprofit organization, a registered dental hygienist may provide, without supervision: Dental hygiene preventive services in addition to oral screenings, including, but not limited to, the application of fluorides and pit and fissure sealants. A registered dental hygienist practicing as described in this subdivision may submit, or allow to be submitted, any insurance or third- party claims for patient services performed as authorized in this article.

Notwithstanding Section 1912, a registered dental hygienist may provide, without supervision: Fluoride varnish to a patient No person other than a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions or a licensed dentist may engage in the practice of dental hygiene or perform dental hygiene procedures on patients, including, but not limited to, supragingival and subgingival scaling, dental hygiene assessment, and treatment planning, except for the following persons: (a) A student enrolled in a dental or a dental hygiene school who is performing procedures as part of the regular curriculum of that program under the supervision of the faculty of that program. A dental assistant acting in accordance with the rules of the dental board in performing the following procedures: (1) Applying nonaerosol and noncaustic topical agents. (2) Applying topical fluoride. (3) Taking impressions for bleaching trays. A registered dental assistant acting in accordance with the rules of the dental board in performing the following procedures: (1) Polishing the coronal surfaces of teeth. (2) Applying bleaching agents. (3) Activating bleaching agents with a nonlaser light-curing device.

(4) Applying pit and fissure sealants. A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may practice, pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1907, subdivision (a) of Section 1908, subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 1910, Section 1910.5, and Section 1926.05 as an Employee of a dentist or of another registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, as an independent contractor, as a sole proprietor of an alternative dental hygiene practice, in a primary care clinic or specialty clinic that is licensed pursuant to Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code, in a primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code, in a clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system, in a clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the county's role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or in a professional corporation under the Moscone- Knox Professional Corporation Act (commencing with Section 13400) of Part 4 of Division 3 of Title 1 of the Corporations Code. In addition to practices authorized in Section 1925, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may perform the duties authorized pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1907, subdivision (a) of Section 1908, and subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 1910 in the following settings: (a) Residences of the homebound. (b) Schools. (c) Residential facilities and other institutions and medical settings that a residential facility patient has been transferred to for outpatient services.

(d) Dental health professional shortage areas, as certified by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development in accordance with existing office guidelines. (e) Dental offices. A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice shall not do any of the following: (a) Infer, purport, advertise, or imply that he or she is in any way able to provide dental services or make any type of dental diagnosis beyond evaluating a patient's dental hygiene status, providing a dental hygiene treatment plan, and providing the associated dental hygiene services. (b) Hire a registered dental hygienist to provide direct patient services other than a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice. True or False: A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may submit or allow to be submitted any insurance or third-party claims for patient services performed as authorized pursuant to this article. True A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may hire: Other registered dental hygienists in alternative practice to assist in his or her practice. (b) A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may hire and supervise dental assistants performing intraoral retraction and suctioning.

A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice shall provide to the dental hygiene board documentation of an existing relationship with at least: One dentist for referral, consultation, and emergency services. A dental hygienist in alternative practice may provide services to a patient without obtaining written verification that the patient has been examined by: A dentist or physician and surgeon licensed to practice in this state. If the dental hygienist in alternative practice provides services to a patient 18 months or more after the first date that the person provides services to a patient: The person shall obtain written verification that the patient has been examined by a dentist or physician and surgeon licensed to practice in this state. The verification shall include a prescription for dental hygiene services as described in subdivision True or False: A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may provide dental hygiene services for a patient who presents to the registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a written prescription for dental hygiene services issued by a dentist or physician and surgeon licensed to practice in this state. True

The prescription shall be valid for a time period based on the dentist's or physician and surgeon's professional judgment, but not to exceed two years from the date it was issued. The dental hygiene board may seek to obtain an injunction against any registered dental hygienist in alternative practice who provides services pursuant to this section: If the dental hygiene board has reasonable cause to believe that the services are being provided to a patient who has not received a prescription for those services from a dentist or physician and surgeon licensed to practice in this state. Providing services pursuant to this section without obtaining a prescription in accordance with subdivision Shall constitute unprofessional conduct on the part of the registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, and reason for the dental hygiene board to revoke or suspend the license of the registered dental hygienist in alternative practice pursuant to Section 1947. This article shall be known and may be cited as the Child Abuse and Neglect Reporting Act. (b) The intent and purpose of this article is to: Protect children from abuse and neglect. In any investigation of suspected child abuse or neglect, all persons participating in the investigation of the case shall consider the needs of the child victim and shall do whatever is necessary to prevent psychological harm to the child victim.

As used in this article "child" means: A person under the age of 18 years. As used in this article, "sexual abuse" means sexual assault or sexual exploitation as defined by the following: (a) "Sexual assault" means conduct in violation of one or more of the following sections: Section 261 (rape), subdivision (d) of Section 261. (statutory rape), Section 264.1 (rape in concert), Section 285 (incest), Section 286 (sodomy), Section 287 or former Section 288a (oral copulation), subdivision (a) or (b) of, or paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of, Section 288 (lewd or lascivious acts upon a child), Section 289 (sexual penetration), or Section 647.6 (child molestation). "Sexual assault" for the purposes of this article does not include voluntary conduct in violation of Section 286, 287, or 289, or former Section 288a, if there are no indicators of abuse, unless the conduct is between a person 21 years of age or older and a minor who is under 16 years of age. Conduct described as "sexual assault" includes, but is not limited to, all of the following: (1) Penetration, however slight, of the vagina or anal opening of one person by the penis of another person, whether or not there is the emission of semen. (2) Sexual contact between the genitals or anal opening of one person and the mouth or tongue of another person. (3) Intrusion by one person into the genitals or anal opening of another person, including the use of an object for this purpose, except that, it does not include acts performed for a valid medical purpose. (4) The intentional touching of the genitals or intimate parts, including the breasts, genital area, groin, inner thighs, and buttocks, or the clothing covering them, of a child, or of the perpetrator by a child, for purposes of sexual arousal or gratification, except that it does not include acts which

may reasonably be construed to be normal caretaker responsibilities; interactions with, or demonstrations of affection for, the child; or acts performed for a valid medical purpose. (5) The intentional masturbation of the perpetrator's genitals in the presence of a child. "Sexual exploitation" refers to any of the following: (1) Conduct involving matter depicting a minor engaged in obscene acts in violation of Section 311.2 (preparing, selling, or distributing obscene matter) or subdivision (a) of Section 311.4 (employment of minor to perform obscene acts). (2) A person who knowingly promotes, aids, or assists, employs, uses, persuades, induces, or coerces a child, or a person responsible for a child's welfare, who knowingly permits or encourages a child to engage in, or assist others to engage in, prostitution or a live performance involving obscene sexual conduct, or to either pose or model alone or with others for purposes of preparing a film, photograph, negative, slide, drawing, painting, or other pictorial depiction, involving obscene sexual conduct. For the purpose of this section, "person responsible for a child's welfare" means a parent, guardian, foster parent, or a licensed administrator or employee of a public or private residential home, residential school, or other residential institution. (3) A person who depicts a child in, or who knowingly develops, duplicates, prints, downloads, streams, accesses through any electronic or digital media, or exchanges, a film, photograph, videotape, video recording, negative, or slide in which a child is engaged in an act of obscene sexual conduct, except for those activities by law enforcement and prosecution agencies and other persons described in subdivisions (c) and (e) of Section 311.3. "Commercial sexual exploitation" refers to either of the following:

(1) The sexual trafficking of a child, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 236.1. (2) The provision of food, shelter, or payment to a child in exchange for the performance of any sexual act described in this section or subdivision (c) of Section 236.1. True or False: As used in this article, "neglect" means the negligent treatment or the maltreatment of a child by a person responsible for the child's welfare under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare. The term includes both acts and omissions on the part of the responsible person. True "Severe neglect" means The negligent failure of a person having the care or custody of a child to protect the child from severe malnutrition or medically diagnosed nonorganic failure to thrive. "Severe neglect" also means those situations of neglect where any person having the care or custody of a child willfully causes or permits the person or health of the child to be placed in a situation such that his or her person or health is endangered, as proscribed by Section 11165.3, including the intentional failure to provide adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care. "General neglect" means The negligent failure of a person having the care or custody of a child to provide adequate food, clothing, shelter, medical care, or supervision where no physical injury to the child has occurred.

True or False: For the purposes of this chapter, a child receiving treatment by spiritual means as provided in Section 16509.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or not receiving specified medical treatment for religious reasons, shall not for that reason alone be considered a neglected child. An informed and appropriate medical decision made by parent or guardian after consultation with a physician or physicians who have examined the minor does not constitute neglect. True "The willful harming or injuring of a child or the endangering of the person or health of a child," means A situation in which any person willfully causes or permits any child to suffer, or inflicts thereon, unjustifiable physical pain or mental suffering, or having the care or custody of any child, willfully causes or permits the person or health of the child to be placed in a situation in which his or her person or health is endangered. "Unlawful corporal punishment or injury" means A situation where any person willfully inflicts upon any child any cruel or inhuman corporal punishment or injury resulting in a traumatic condition. It does not include an amount of force that is reasonable and necessary for a person employed by or engaged in a public school to quell a disturbance threatening physical injury to person or damage to property, for purposes of self-defense, or to obtain possession of weapons or other dangerous objects within the control of the pupil, as authorized by Section 49001 of the Education Code. It also does not include the exercise of the degree of physical control authorized by Section 44807 of the Education Code. It also does not

include an injury caused by reasonable and necessary force used by a peace officer acting within the course and scope of his or her employment as a peace officer. the term "abuse or neglect in out-of-home care" includes: Physical injury or death inflicted upon a child by another person by other than accidental means, sexual abuse as defined in Section 11165.1, neglect as defined in Section 11165.2, unlawful corporal punishment or injury as defined in Section 11165.4, or the willful harming or injuring of a child or the endangering of the person or health of a child, as defined in Section 11165.3, where the person responsible for the child's welfare is a licensee, administrator, or employee of any facility licensed to care for children, or an administrator or employee of a public or private school or other institution or agency. "Abuse or neglect in out-of-home care" does not include an injury caused by reasonable and necessary force used by a peace officer acting within the course and scope of his or her employment as a peace officer. The term "child abuse or neglect" Includes physical injury or death inflicted by other than accidental means upon a child by another person, sexual abuse as defined in Section 11165.1, neglect as defined in Section 11165.2, the willful harming or injuring of a child or the endangering of the person or health of a child, as defined in Section 11165.3, and unlawful corporal punishment or injury as defined in Section 11165.4. "Child abuse or neglect" does not include a mutual affray between minors. "Child abuse or neglect" does not include an injury caused by reasonable and necessary force used by a peace officer acting within the course and scope of his or her employment as a peace officer.

(a) As used in this article, "mandated reporter" is defined as any of the following: (1) A teacher. (2) An instructional aide. (3) A teacher's aide or teacher's assistant employed by a public or private school. (4) A classified employee of a public school. (5) An administrative officer or supervisor of child welfare and attendance, or a certificated pupil personnel employee of a public or private school. (6) An administrator of a public or private day camp. (7) An administrator or employee of a public or private youth center, youth recreation program, or youth organization. (8) An administrator, board member, or employee of a public or private organization whose duties require direct contact and supervision of children, including a foster family agency. (9) An employee of a county office of education or the State Department of Education whose duties bring the employee into contact with children on a regular basis. (10) A licensee, an administrator, or an employee of a licensed community care or child daycare facility. (11) A Head Start program teacher.

(12) A licensing worker or licensing evaluator employed by a licensing agency, as defined in Section 11165.11. (13) A public assistance worker. (14) An employee of a childcare institution, including, but not limited to, foster parents, group home personnel, and personnel of residential care facilities. (15) A social worker, probation officer, or parole officer. (16) An employee of a school district police or security department. (17) A person who is an administrator or presenter of, or a counselor in, a child abuse prevention program in a public or private school. (18) A district attorney investigator, inspector, or local child support agency caseworker, unless the investigator, inspector, or caseworker is working with an attorney appointed pursuant to Section 317 of the Welfare and Institutions Code to represent a minor. (19) A peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section

  1. of Title 3 of Part 2, who is not otherwise described in this section. (20) A firefighter, except for volunteer firefighters. (21) A physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, dentist, resident, intern, podiatrist, chiropractor, licensed nurse, dental hygienist, optometrist, marriage and family therapist, clinical social worker, professional clinical counselor, or any other person who is currently licensed under Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and Professions Code.

(22) An emergency medical technician I or II, paramedic, or other person certified pursuant to Division 2.5 (commencing with Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code. (23) A psychological assistant registered pursuant to Section 2913 of the Business and Professions Code. Reports of suspected child abuse or neglect shall be made by mandated reporters, or in the case of reports pursuant to Section 11166.05, may be made, to Any police department or sheriff's department, not including a school district police or security department, county probation department, if designated by the county to receive mandated reports, or the county welfare department. Any of those agencies shall accept a report of suspected child abuse or neglect whether offered by a mandated reporter or another person, or referred by another agency, even if the agency to whom the report is being made lacks subject matter or geographical jurisdiction to investigate the reported case, unless the agency can immediately electronically transfer the call to an agency with proper jurisdiction. When an agency takes a report about a case of suspected child abuse or neglect in which that agency lacks jurisdiction, the agency shall immediately refer the case by telephone, fax, or electronic transmission to an agency with proper jurisdiction. Agencies that are required to receive reports of suspected child abuse or neglect may not refuse to accept a report of suspected child abuse or neglect from a mandated reporter or another person unless otherwise authorized pursuant to this section, and shall maintain a record of all reports received. "Licensing agency" means The State Department of Social Services office responsible for the licensing and enforcement of the California Community Care Facilities Act (Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code), the California Child Day Care Act (Chapter 3.

(commencing with Section 1596.70) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code), and Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 1596.90) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code), or the county licensing agency which has contracted with the state for performance of those duties. "Unfounded report" means A report that is determined by the investigator who conducted the investigation to be false, to be inherently improbable, to involve an accidental injury, or not to constitute child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section 11165.6. "Substantiated report" means A report that is determined by the investigator who conducted the investigation to constitute child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section 11165.6, based upon evidence that makes it more likely than not that child abuse or neglect, as defined, occurred. A substantiated report shall not include a report where the investigator who conducted the investigation found the report to be false, inherently improbable, to involve an accidental injury, or to not constitute child abuse or neglect as defined in Section 11165.6. "Inconclusive report" means A report that is determined by the investigator who conducted the investigation not to be unfounded, but the findings are inconclusive and there is insufficient evidence to determine whether child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section 11165.6, has occurred. True or False For purposes of this article, a positive toxicology screen at the time of the delivery of an infant is not in and of itself a sufficient basis for reporting

child abuse or neglect. However, any indication of maternal substance abuse shall lead to an assessment of the needs of the mother and child pursuant to Section 123605 of the Health and Safety Code. If other factors are present that indicate risk to a child, then a report shall be made. However, a report based on risk to a child which relates solely to the inability of the parent to provide the child with regular care due to the parent's substance abuse shall be made only to a county welfare or probation department, and not to a law enforcement agency. True True or False The appropriate local law enforcement agency shall investigate a child abuse complaint filed by a parent or guardian of a pupil with a school or an agency specified in Section 11165.9 against a school employee or other person that commits an act of child abuse, as defined in this article, against a pupil at a schoolsite and shall transmit a substantiated report, as defined in Section 11165.12, of that investigation to the governing board of the appropriate school district or county office of education. A substantiated report received by a governing board of a school district or county office of education shall be subject to the provisions of Section 44031 of the Education Code. True True or False For the purposes of this article, the fact that a child is homeless or is classified as an unaccompanied youth, as defined in Section 11434a of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11301 et seq.), is not, in and of itself, a sufficient basis for reporting child abuse or neglect. This section shall not limit a mandated reporter, as defined in Section 11165.7, from making a report pursuant to Section 11166 whenever the mandated reporter has knowledge of or observes an unaccompanied minor whom the mandated reporter knows or reasonably suspects to be the victim of abuse or neglect.

True The mandated reporter shall make an initial report by telephone to the agency immediately or as soon as is practicably possible, and shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report within: 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident. The mandated reporter may include with the report any nonprivileged documentary evidence the mandated reporter possesses relating to the incident. "Reasonable suspicion" means it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could cause a reasonable person in a like position, drawing, when appropriate, on the person's training and experience, to suspect child abuse or neglect. "Reasonable suspicion" does not require certainty that child abuse or neglect has occurred nor does it require a specific medical indication of child abuse or neglect; any "reasonable suspicion" is sufficient. For purposes of this article, the pregnancy of a minor does not, in and of itself, constitute a basis for a reasonable suspicion of sexual abuse. A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by: Up to six months confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated reporter intentionally conceals the mandated reporter's failure to report an incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse

or severe neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until an agency specified in Section 11165.9 discovers the offense. "Penitential communication" means A communication, intended to be in confidence, including, but not limited to, a sacramental confession, made to a clergy member who, in the course of the discipline or practice of the clergy member's church, denomination, or organization, is authorized or accustomed to hear those communications, and under the discipline, tenets, customs, or practices of the clergy member's church, denomination, or organization, has a duty to keep those communications secret. True or False On or before January 1, 2004, a clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member may report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9 that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member, prior to January 1, 1997, in the clergy member's professional capacity or within the scope of the clergy member's employment, other than during a penitential communication, acquired knowledge or had a reasonable suspicion that a child had been the victim of sexual abuse and that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member did not previously report the abuse to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. The provisions of Section 11172 shall apply to all reports made pursuant to this paragraph. True Except as provided in subdivision (b), any supervisor or administrator who violates paragraph (1) of subdivision (i) of Section 11166 shall be punished by not more than Six months in a county jail, by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.

Any mandated reporter who willfully fails to report abuse or neglect, or any person who impedes or inhibits a report of abuse or neglect, in violation of this article, where that abuse or neglect results in death or great bodily injury, shall be Punished by not more than one year in a county jail, by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. True or False A county welfare agency, in accordance with Section 10612.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, may develop a program for internet-based reporting of child abuse and neglect. The program may receive reports by mandated reporters, as defined in Section 11165.7, of suspected child abuse or neglect and shall meet all of the following conditions: True True or False Any mandated reporter who has knowledge of or who reasonably suspects that a child is suffering serious emotional damage or is at a substantial risk of suffering serious emotional damage, evidenced by states of being or behavior, including, but not limited to, severe anxiety, depression, withdrawal, or untoward aggressive behavior toward self or others, may make a report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. True When an agency receives a report pursuant to Section 11166 that contains either of the following, it shall, within 24 hours, notify the licensing office with jurisdiction over the facility:

(1) A report of abuse alleged to have occurred in facilities licensed to care for children by the State Department of Social Services. (2) A report of the death of a child who was, at the time of death, living at, enrolled in, or regularly attending a facility licensed to care for children by the State Department of Social Services, unless the circumstances of the child's death are clearly unrelated to the child's care at the facility. The agency shall send the licensing agency a copy of its investigation and any other pertinent materials. (b) Any employee of an agency specified in Section 11165.9 who has knowledge of, or observes in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of his or her employment, a child in protective custody whom he or she knows or reasonably suspects has been the victim of child abuse or neglect shall, within 36 hours, send or have sent to the attorney who represents the child in dependency court, a copy of the report prepared in accordance with Section 11166. The agency shall maintain a copy of the written report. All information requested by the attorney for the child or the child's guardian ad litem shall be provided by the agency within 30 days of the request. Each county may use a children's advocacy center to implement a coordinated multidisciplinary response pursuant to Section 18961.7 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, to investigate reports involving child physical or sexual abuse, exploitation, or maltreatment. (b) A county that utilizes a child advocacy center to coordinate its multidisciplinary response pursuant to subdivision (a) shall require the children's advocacy center to meet the following standards: (1) The multidisciplinary team associated with the children's advocacy center shall consist of a representative of the children's advocacy center and at least one representative from each of the following disciplines: law enforcement, child protective services, district attorney's offices, medical providers, mental health providers, and victim advocates. Members of the

multidisciplinary team may fill more than one role, within the scope of their practice, as needed. (2) The multidisciplinary team associated with the children's advocacy center shall have cultural competency and diversity training to meet the needs of the community it serves. (3) The children's advocacy center shall have a designated legal entity responsible for the governance of its operations. This entity shall oversee ongoing business practices of the children's advocacy center, including setting and implementing administrative policies, hiring and managing personnel, obtaining funding, supervising program and fiscal operations, and conducting long-term planning. (4) The children's advocacy center shall provide a dedicated child-focused setting designed to provide a safe, comfortable, and neutral place where forensic interviews and other children's advocacy center services may be appropriately provided for children and families. (5) The children's advocacy center shall use written protocols for case review and case review procedures, and shall use a case tracking system to provide information on essential demographics and case information. (6) The children's advocacy center shall verify that members of the multidisciplinary team responsible for medical evaluations have specific training in child abuse or child sexual abuse examinations. (7) The children's advocacy center shall verify that members of the multidisciplinary team responsible for mental health services are trained in and deliver trauma-focused, evidence-supported mental health treatments. (8) The children's advocacy center shall verify that interviews conducted in the course of investigations are conducted in a forensically sound manner and occur in a child-focused setting designed to provide a safe, comfortable, and dedicated place for children and families.

On and after January 1, 1985, any mandated reporter as specified in Section 11165.7, with the exception of child visitation monitors, prior to commencing his or her employment, and as a prerequisite to that employment, shall Sign a statement on a form provided to him or her by his or her employer to the effect that he or she has knowledge of the provisions of Section 11166 and will comply with those provisions. The statement shall inform the employee that he or she is a mandated reporter and inform the employee of his or her reporting obligations under Section 11166 and of his or her confidentiality rights under subdivision (d) of Section 11167. The employer shall provide a copy of Sections 11165.7, 11166, and 11167 to the employee. Reports of suspected child abuse or neglect pursuant to Section 11166 or Section 11166.05 shall include: The name, business address, and telephone number of the mandated reporter; the capacity that makes the person a mandated reporter; and the information that gave rise to the reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect and the source or sources of that information. Any violation of the confidentiality provided by this article is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed six months, by a fine of five hundred dollars ($500), or by both that imprisonment and fine. Reports of suspected child abuse or neglect and information contained therein may be disclosed only to the following: (1) Persons or agencies to whom disclosure of the identity of the reporting party is permitted under Section 11167.

(2) Persons or agencies to whom disclosure of information is permitted under subdivision (b) of Section 11170 or subdivision (a) of Section 11170.5. (3) Persons or agencies with whom investigations of child abuse or neglect are coordinated under the regulations promulgated under Section 11174. (4) Multidisciplinary personnel teams as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 18951 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (5) Persons or agencies responsible for the licensing of facilities which care for children, as specified in Section 11165.7. (6) The State Department of Social Services True or False The written reports required by Section 11166 shall be submitted on forms adopted by the Department of Justice after consultation with representatives of the various professional medical associations and hospital associations and county probation or welfare departments. Those forms shall be distributed by the agencies specified in Section 11165.9. True Enhancing examination procedures, documentation, and evidence collection relating to child abuse or neglect will improve the investigation and prosecution of child abuse or neglect as well as other child protection efforts. (c) The forms shall include, but not be limited to, a place for notation concerning each of the following: