Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

Regis NU 650 Midterm Actual Exam with Questions and 100% Correct Answers Completed 2024 (B, Exams of Nursing

Regis NU 650 Midterm Actual Exam with Questions and 100% Correct Answers Completed 2024 (Best Studying Material) 200+ Questions 1. A patient is seen in the office for amenorrhea, for which you obtain a urinepregnancy test in the office that returns negative. You would document this finding in which of the following sections of the encounter? A. HPI B. CC C. Subjective Data D. Objective Data D:ANS: Objective data

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 06/07/2024

PassingMaster
PassingMaster 🇰🇪

3.9

(7)

788 documents

1 / 55

Toggle sidebar

Related documents


Partial preview of the text

Download Regis NU 650 Midterm Actual Exam with Questions and 100% Correct Answers Completed 2024 (B and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Regis NU 650 Midterm Actual Exam with

Questions and 100% Correct Answers Completed

2024 (Best Studying Material) 200+ Questions

  1. A patient is seen in the office for amenorrhea, for which you obtain a urinepregnancy test in the office that returns negative. You would document this finding in which of the following sections of the encounter? A. HPI B. CC C. Subjective Data D. Objective Data D:ANS: Objective data
  2. A patient you are seeing for the first time in your office, brings their previous medical records for the review. you would document a summer of the previous medical records in which of the following sections of the encounter note? A. HPI B. CC C. Subjective Data D. Objective Data C:ANS: Subjective data
  3. The most effective process to elicit the ROS is for the NP to A. Limit the ROS to systems related to the CC B. Follow the patients lead regarding the order of symptoms C. incorporate the ROS during the physical exam, stopping to make notes asnecessary D. Start with general questions on each of the different body systems:ANS: D
  4. The NP can determine higher cognitive function by asking the patient toperform which of the following tasks? A. Explain the meaning of a proverb B. Identify the day of the week, month, season, date and year

C. Recall details of historical events D. Spell a five-letter word such as WORLD backward:ANS: A

  1. The NP will ask the patient which of the following questions to assess fordepression? A. have you ever been annoyed by other criticizing your alcohol use? B. Over the past two weeks have you felt little interest or pleasure in doingthings? C. Over the past two weeks have you been unable to stop or control worrying? D. How often do you have contact with those that you care about or care aboutyou?:ANS: B
  2. The NP will document the reason for visit in which of the following sectionsof the encounter? A. HPI B. CC C. Subjective Data D. Objective Data:ANS: B
  3. The primary care provider will anticipate that what percent of outpatientshave mental health disorders? A. 10% B. 15 % C. 20% D. 25%:ANS: C
  4. Which of the following actions by the NP demonstrations patient- centeredinterviewing techniques? A. Determine the personal context of the patients symptoms B. Focus on symptoms to identify a disease or condition C. Offer his or her perspective to lead the patients response D. Solicit information from the patients significant others:ANS: A
  5. Which of the following strategies is most effective when dealing with anangry or disruptive patient? A. Allow the patient to disrupt the setting as needed to alleviate their anger B. Ask the patient to lower their voice and remain calm throughout

the inter-view C. Reinforce the patients criticisms of other clinicians or the facility D. Validate the patients feelings without agreeing with their reasons.:ANS: D

  1. Which of the following variables should have the greatest affect as to howthe NP will conduct the H & PE of a child? A. The child's developmental level B. the child's chronological age C. The expected head to toe format and order of examination techniques D. The child's birth history:ANS: A
  2. Match the primary skin lesion to the description A. Macule 1. Lesion is raised B. Papule 2. Lesion is raised > 1 cm & fluid filled C. Plaque 3. Lesion is flat D. Vesicle 4. Lesion is raised, > 1cm but not fluid filled E. Bullae 5. Lesion is raised:ANS: Macule --

Lesion is FlatPapule --> lesion is raised Plaque --> lesion is raised, > 1 cm but not fluid filledVesicle --> lesion is raised Bullae --> lesion is raised, > 1 cm and fluid filled

  1. A linear arrangement along a nerve distribution is a description of whichtype of skin lesion? A. Annular B. Zosteriform C. Keratitis D. Linear:ANS: B
  2. A wood's lamp is especially useful in diagnosing A. tine versicolor B. herpes zoster C. contact dermatitis D. All of the above:ANS: A. tine versicolor (woods lamp helps diagnosis yeast infections)
  1. Mr. P. has had a "terrible itch" for several months that he has been scratch-ing continuously. Upon examination, the nurse might expect to find A. a keloid B. a fissue C. keratosis D. Lichenification:ANS: D
  2. The NP has identified a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is lessthan 1 cm in diameter and palpable into the dermis. This NP will correctly document this finding as a A. bulla B. wheal C. nodule D. papule:ANS: D
  3. Which of the following objective findings would alert the NP to considerskin cancer in the list of differential diagnoses? A. Annular and symmetrical lesions B. Blurred edges to a raised lesion C. solid red raised lesion D. Diameter of 5 mm:ANS: B
  4. Which of the following secondary lesions is usually the result of a self-in-flicted abrasion? A. Excoriation B. Scale C. Lichenification D. Atrophy:ANS: A
  5. You have just read in the patient's chart that she has a lesion that isconfluent in nature. On exam, you would expect to find:ANS: A. lesions that run together B. Angular lesions that have grown together C. Lesions arranged in a line along a nerve route D. Lesions that are grouped or clustered together:ANS: A
  6. Which of the following represents the proper position for the NP

to assessthe patient's abdomen? A. Stand at the patient's left side and proceed in a systematic fashion. B. Stand at the patient's left side and assess any problem areas first C. Stand at the patient's right side and process in a systemic fashion D. Stand at the patient's right side and assess any problem areas first:ANS: C

  1. The NP will demonstrate the correct order of examination for the abdomenby using examination techniques that follows:ANS: 1. Auscultation 2. Inspection 3. Palpation 4. Percussion A. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 B. 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 C. 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 D. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 :ANS: D
  2. A 36-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic for a reported fever andback pain. She complained of pain when the NP percussed over the left CVAangle. This finding supports which of the following differential diagnosis? A. Pyelonephritis B. Left lower lobe pneumonia C. Splenomegaly D. Cholecystitis:ANS: A
  3. The liver border can be palpated normally below the costal margin at the:ANS: A. Left mid-clavicular line B. Right mid-axillary line C. Right mid-calvicular line D. Left mid-axillary line:ANS: C
  4. The NP will recognize which of the following subjective or objective find-ings as worrisome for an abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. aortic width of 2.8 cm B. 25 pack-year smoking history

C. age of 60 D. Female gender:ANS: B

  1. The NP will use which of the following examination techniques to deter-mine muscular resistance, superficial organs and masses in the abdomen A. inspection B. light palpation C. deep palpation D. percussion:ANS: B
  2. The NP will use which of the following methods to help the patient relaxduring the abdominal exam? A. ask the patient to hold their breath B. Palpate the abdomen after inspiration C. palpate the abdomen after expiration D. Palpate the abdomen using quick short movements:ANS: C
  3. The parents of a 4-month-old infant share concern about their child's umbilical hernia at a well-child visit. The NP will correctly inform them that:ANS: A. Most umbilical hernias disappear by 12 months of age B. The hernia can be surgically repaired before the child reaches adolescence C. This finding indicates that their child is at high risk for other hernias D. There is a strong familial history for umbilical hernias:ANS: A
  4. When percussing the abdomen in a patient with constipation, which of thefollowing sounds would you expect to find in the LLQ? A. Tympanic B. Dull C. Resonant D. Hyperresonant:ANS: B
  5. When percussing the abdomen, you would document the normal findingof percussion over the intestines as:ANS: A. Tympanic B. Dull C. Resonant

D. Hyperresonant:ANS: A

  1. Which of the following abdominal exam findings would prompt the NP toconsider cholecystitis as a differential diagnosis? A. Positive psoas sign B. Positive Rovsing's sign C. Positive Obturator sign D. Positive murphy's sign:ANS: D
  2. Which of the following symptoms would you expect from a young adoles-cent in the early phase of appendicitis? A. Abdominal pain two hours after eating B. CVA tenderness C. Severe RLQ pain with pallor and sweating D. Constipation:ANS: C
  3. A 40 year old male patient presents with sinus pain, pressure and yellownasal discharge. Your exam would include palpation of:ANS: A. Ethmoid and frontal sinuses B. Maxillary and sphenoid sinuses C. Frontal and maxillary sinuses D. Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses:ANS: C
  4. A 60 y.o presents with a 3 - day history of left eye irritation. Which of thefollowing findings should be recorded in the ROS? A. Patient denies eye pain or change in vision B. Vision is 20/20 by Snellen Chary C. Yellow crust is visible at the inner canthus of the left eye D. all of the above:ANS: A
  5. During a physical exam of the throat, which of the following structures ofthe mouth/throat should rise when the patient says "aah"? A. Hard palate B. Soft palate C. Lingual frenulum D. Buccal mucosa:ANS: B
  6. In conductive type hearing loss, you would expect:ANS: A. sound lateralizes to the good ear when the weber test is used

B. sound lateralizes to the affected (bad) ear when the weber test is used C. The weber test remains unaltered with conductive type hearing loss andsound will be heard equally in both ears D. The weber test can cause discomfort in a patient with conductive typehearing loss and should not be used in this situation:ANS: B

  1. On exam of the posterior pharynx, you are able to visualize the tonsils bilaterally extending just past the anterior and posterior pillars. According tothe Friedman Scale, how would you document this finding in your note? A. tonsils noted to be normal B. Tonsils visualized grade 3 C. Tonsils visualized grade 1 D. Tonsils visualized grade 2 :ANS: C
  2. The NP will assess visual acuity using which of the following tests? A. Snellen test B. Cover test C. Accommodation test D. Confrontation test:ANS: A
  3. The NP will recognize which of the following findings when assessing thelymph nodes in the head and neck as worrisome, warranting further workup? A. Tender tonsillar and submandibular nodes in the presence of a streptococ-cal infection B. Any lymph node that the NP is able to roll in two directions:ANS: up and down,side to side C. Enlarged supraclavicular nodes D. Deep cervical chain nodes that are inaccessible to exam:ANS: C
  4. When conducting an ophthalmoscopic exam, the NP will differentiate ar-teries from veins by noting:ANS: A. Larger size of arteries B. Bright light reflection of arteries

C. Dark red color of arteries D. location of the vessel to the optic disc:ANS: B

  1. When examining a 3 y.o presenting to your office with right ear pain, whichwould be the appropriate order for the assessment? A. Right ear, left ear, mouth, nose, neck, lungs, heart B. Neck, lungs, heart, mouth, nose, left ear, right ear C. Left ear, right ear, neck, lungs, heart and nose D. Lungs, heart, mouth, nose, and right ear.:ANS: B
  2. Which of the following describes the proper technique for examination ofthe ear canal and drum for a 5 year old? A. Use the smallest ear speculum, position the pt. head so that you see comfortable, straighten the ear canal by grasping the auricle firmly and pullingit upward and backward, slightly away from the head. B. use the largest ear speculum that inserts easily in the canal, position the patients head so that you see comfortable, straighten the ear canal bygrasping the auricle firmly and pulling it downward and backward, slightlyaway from the head:ANS: B
  3. Which of the following findings on exam of the nasal mucosa and septumwould most likely indicate allergic rhinitis? A. Reddened nasal mucosa with purulent drainage B. pale or bluish nasal mucosa with clear drainage C. fresh blood or crusting of the nasal mucosa D. Asymmetry in appearance between the right and left sides:ANS: B
  4. Which of the following is/are normal in the examination of the oral cavity? A. a midline lingual frenulum extending from the tongue to the floor of the mouth B. papillae covering the dorsum of the tongue C. Pink buccal mucosa lining the cheeks D. All of the above are normal:ANS: D
  5. Which of the following techniques identifies the correct way to

use an ophthalmascope to inspect the optic disc and retina in the patients left eye?The NP will hold the ophthalmoscope:ANS: A. in their left hand and examine the patients left eye with his or hear left eye B. in the right hand and examine the patients left eye with her or her right eye. C. In their dominant hand and examine both of the patients eyes with his/herdominant eye D. According to personal preference and experience:ANS: A

  1. You are examining a 4 y.o boy who presents to the office with his motherwho complains that he gets bloody noses frequently. You know that the mostcommon cause of epitaxis in the age group is:ANS: A. Chronic rhinitis B. Foreign body C. picking their nose D. Allergic rhinitis:ANS: C
  2. You are examining a 9 - month-old in your office and do not see a red reflex on the fundoscopic exam. This finding would cause concern as it can indicatewhich of the following? A. Glaucoma B. Dacryostenosis C. Cararacts D. Retinoblastoma:ANS: D
  3. A newborn is in the office with cold symptoms. you go into the room to seea distressed mom who is very concerned about her baby. She expresses to you that something is wrong. Your initial thought that comes to mind is that this could be RSV. You must look for signs of respiratory distress. Those signsinclude A. Vomiting and diarrhea B. coughing, pulling legs up C. retractions, nasal flaring, tachypnea, grunting D. fever of 100.4 or higher, tachypnea, vomiting:ANS: C
  4. An 85 y.o. woman is brought to the urgent care center for

possible as- piration pneumonia. The NP understands that, based on normal anatomy adventitious lung sounds will most likely be heard in which of the followingareas? A. left upper lobe B. left middle & lower lobes C. right upper lobe D. Right middle and lower lobes:ANS: D

  1. Barrel chest is an abnormal chest configuration that may occur in whichof the following disorders? A. COPD B. Pneumonia C. Pneumothorax D. TBA:ANS: A
  2. Bronchovesticular sounds are heard normally at which location? A. second intercostal space anteriorly bilaterally B. base of lungs bilaterally, posteriorly C. laterally at the midaxillary line, bilaterally D. Bilaterally at the mid-clabicular line, 5th intercostal space:ANS: A
  3. Normally when the lung fields are percussed the resulting sound is de-scribed as :ANS: A. hyperresonant B. resonant C. tympanic D. Dull:ANS: B
  4. The clinic has extended hours to provide flu vaccines and preventativeteaching for the community. Based on current CDC influenza vaccine rec-ommendations, the NP understands which of the following patients has a contraindication and cannot receive the vaccine? A. healthy 2 month baby girl B. primagravida at 32 weeks C. 60 y.o male with hx CHF D. 45 y.o female with BMI of 42 :ANS: A
  5. The NP will nose a history of chronic cough based on the

patients reportof symptoms lasting for:ANS: A. 1 week B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 10 weeks:ANS: D

  1. When compared to wheezes and rhonchi, the NP notes that on ausculta-tion, crackles are:ANS: A. musical in quality B. prolonged sounds, typically persisting throughout the respiratory cycle C. intermittent and discontinuous sounds D. Relatively low-pitched with a snoring quality:ANS: C
  2. Which breath sound is normally heard over the sternal notch? A. Bronchial B. Bronchovesicular C. Vesicular D. Tracheal:ANS: A
  3. Which of the following findings will alert the NP to include pneumonia asa differential diagnosis? A. decreased tactile fremitus B. symmetrical chest expansion/lung excursion C. hyperresonance with percussion D. positive bronchophony:ANS: D
  4. Which of the following is an expected change of aging? A. supraclavicular retractions with inspiration B. Kyphosis C. There is a decrease of the elastic properties within lungs D. Pectus excavatum:ANS: C
  5. Cultural Humility:ANS:A process that requires humility as individuals continually engage in self-reflection and self-critique as lifelong learners and reflective practi-tioners.
  6. 3 Dimensions of cultural humility:ANS: 1) Self-awareness:ANS: learn about your ownbiases; we all have them.
  1. Respectful communication:ANS: work to eliminate assumptions

about what is "normal". Learn directly from your patients; they are the experts on their culture and illness.

  1. Collaborative partnerships:ANS: build your patient relationships on respect and mutu-ally acceptable plans.
  1. True or False:ANS: The beginning NP should focus on interpreting the findings of the physicalexamination.:ANS: False
  2. Which of the following statements represents a general goal for the com-prehensive or focused physical examination? a. Avoid unnecessary changes in position b. Maximize patient comfort c. Enhance clinical efficiency d. all of the above:ANS: D
  3. Chronic pain definition:ANS: Pain that persists one month beyond the course of anacute injury
  4. Crackles auscultated sound description:ANS:DiscontinuousNon-musical Like dots in time
  5. Wheezes auscultated sound description:ANS:High pitched with hissing or shrillquality Continuous
  6. Rhonchi auscultated sound description:ANS:ContinuousLow pitched with snoring quality
  7. Vesicular breath sound characteristics:ANS:Inspiration longer than expirationHeard over most lung tissue
  8. Tracheal breath sound characteristics:ANS:Inspiration & expiration almost equalRelatively high pitched Intensity of expiration very loud
  9. Bronchovesicular breath sound characteristics:ANS:Inspiration and expiration almost equal, and heard in the first and second interspaces anteriorly and betweenthe scapulae
  1. Bronchial breath sound characteristics:ANS:Expiration longer than inspirationHeard over large proximal airways
  2. You are performing a thorough cardiac examination. Which of the followingchambers of the heart can you assess by palpation? A) Left atrium B) Right atrium C) Right ventricle D) Sinus node:ANS: C
  3. What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S2? A) Closure of aortic, then pulmonic valves B) Closure of mitral, then tricuspid valves C) Closure of aortic, then tricuspid valves D) Closure of mitral, then pulmonic valves:ANS: A
  4. A 25-year-old optical technician comes to your clinic for evaluation of fatigue. As part of your physical examination, you listen to her heart and heara murmur only at the cardiac apex. Which valve is most likely to be involved, based on the location of the murmur? A) Mitral B) Tricuspid C) Aortic D) Pulmonic:ANS: A
  5. A 58-year-old teacher presents to your clinic complaining of breathless- ness with activity. The patient has no chronic conditions and takes no medica- tions, herbs, or supplements. Which of the following symptoms is appropriateto ask about in the cardiovascular review of systems? A) Abdominal pain B) Orthopnea C) Hematochezia D) Tenesmus:ANS: B
  6. You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first personwho comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this? A) Normal

B) Prehypertension C) Stage 1 hypertension D) Stage 2 hypertension:ANS: B Prehypertension = 120 - 139/80- 89

  1. You are participating in a health fair and performing cholesterol screens.One person has a cholesterol of 225. She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimatethe 10 - year risk of developing coronary heart disease? A) Ethnicity B) Alcohol intake C) Gender D) Asthma:ANS: C
  2. You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well- controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10-year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronaryheart disease risk equivalent? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral arterial disease C) Systemic lupus erythematosus D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):ANS: B
  3. You are conducting a workshop on the measurement of jugular venous pulsation. As part of your instruction, you tell the students to make sure theycan distinguish between the jugular venous pulsation and the carotid pulse. Which one of the following characteristics is typical of the carotid pulse? A) Palpable B) Soft, rapid, undulating quality

C) Pulsation eliminated by light pressure on the vessel D) Level of pulsation changes with changes in position:ANS: A

  1. A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions isa potential cause of elevated JVP? A) Left-sided heart failure B) Mitral stenosis C) Constrictive pericarditis D) Aortic aneurysm:ANS: C
  2. You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse? A) Hypothyroidism B) Aortic stenosis, with pressure overload of the left ventricle C) Mitral stenosis, with volume overload of the left atrium D) Cardiomyopathy:ANS: B
  3. You are performing a cardiac examination on a patient with shortness of breath and palpitations. You listen to the heart with the patient sitting upright,then have him change to a supine position, and finally have him turn onto hisleft side in the left lateral decubitus position. Which of the following valvular defects is best heard in this position? A) Aortic B) Pulmonic C) Mitral D) Tricuspid:ANS: C
  4. You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Whichis the best position to accentuate the murmur? A) Upright B) Upright, but leaning forward C) Supine

D) Left lateral decubitus:ANS: B

  1. A 68 - year-old retired waiter comes to your clinic for evaluation of fatigue.You perform a cardiac examination and find his pulse rate is less than 60. Which of the following conditions could be responsible for this heart rate? A) Second-degree A-V block B) Atrial flutter C) Sinus arrhythmia D) Atrial fibrillation:ANS: A
  2. Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) normally located? A) In the left 5th intercostal space, 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum B) In the left 5th intercostal space, 10 to 12 cm lateral to the sternum C) In the left 5th intercostal space, in the anterior axillary line D) In the left 5th intercostal space, in the midaxillary line:ANS: A
  3. Which of the following events occurs at the start of diastole? A) Closure of the tricuspid valve B) Opening of the pulmonic valve C) Closure of the aortic valve D) Production of the first heart sound (S1):ANS: C
  4. Which is true of a third heart sound (S3)? A) It marks atrial contraction. B) It reflects normal compliance of the left ventricle. C) It is caused by rapid deceleration of blood against the ventricular wall. D) It is not heard in atrial fibrillation.:ANS: C
  5. Which is true of splitting of the second heart sound? A) It is best heard over the pulmonic area with the bell of the stethoscope. B) It normally increases with exhalation. C) It is best heard over the apex. D) It does not vary with respiration.:ANS: A
  6. Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measure-ment? A) It is measured with the patient at a 45-degree angle. B) The vertical height of the blood column in centimeters, plus 5 cm, is

the JVP. C) A JVP below 9 cm is abnormal. D) It is measured above the sternal notch.:ANS: B

  1. Which of the following regarding jugular venous pulsations is a systolicphenomenon? A) The "y" descent B) The "x" descent C) The upstroke of the "a" wave D) The downstroke of the "v" wave:ANS: B
  2. How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mmHg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%:ANS: D
  3. In healthy adults over 20, how often should blood pressure, body mass index, waist circumference, and pulse be assessed, according to AmericanHeart Association guidelines? A) Every 6 months B) Every year C) Every 2 years D) Every 5 years:ANS: C
  4. Which of the following is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome? A) Waist circumference of 38 inches for a male B) Waist circumference of 34 inches for a female C) BP of 134/88 for a male D) BP of 128/84 for a female:ANS: C
  5. Mrs. Adams would like to begin an exercise program and was told to exercise as intensely as necessary to obtain a heart rate 60% or greater ofher maximum heart rate. She is 52. What heart rate should she achieve? A) 80 B) 100

C) 120

D) 140 :ANS: B

  1. In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following isimportant? A) Keep the patient's torso at a 45-degree angle. B) Measure the highest visible pressure, usually at end expiration. C) Add the vertical height over the sternal notch to a 5 - cm constant. D) Realize that a total value of over 12 cm is abnormal.:ANS: B
  2. You find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62 - year-old patient. Which murmurshould you search out? A) Mitral valve prolapse B) Pulmonic stenosis C) Tricuspid insufficiency D) Aortic insufficiency:ANS: D
  3. To hear a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary? A) Asking the patient to hold her breath B) Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV C) Checking your stethoscope for air leaks D) All of the above:ANS: D
  4. Which of the following may be missed unless the patient is placed in theleft lateral decubitus position and auscultated with the bell? A) Mitral stenosis murmur B) Opening snap of the mitral valve C) S3 and S4 gallops D) All of the above:ANS: D
  5. How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic? A) Palpate the carotid pulse. B) Palpate the radial pulse. C) Judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation. D) Correlate the murmur with a bedside heart monitor.:ANS: A
  6. Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI?

A) Hyperthyroidism B) Anemia C) Fever D) Hypertension:ANS: D

  1. You are examining a patient with emphysema in exacerbation and are having difficulty hearing his heart sounds. What should you do to obtain agood exam? A) Listen in the epigastrium. B) Listen to the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. C) Ask the patient to hold his breath for 30 seconds. D) Listen posteriorly.:ANS: A
  2. You are listening carefully for S2 splitting. Which of the following will help? A) Using the diaphragm with light pressure over the 2nd right intercostalspace B) Using the bell with light pressure over the 2nd left intercostal space C) Using the diaphragm with firm pressure over the apex D) Using the bell with firm pressure over the lower left sternal border:ANS: B
  3. Which of the following is true of a grade 4 - intensity murmur? A) It is moderately loud. B) It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest. C) It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest. D) It is associated with a "thrill.":ANS: D
  4. Which valve lesion typically produces a murmur of equal intensitythroughout systole? A) Aortic stenosis B) Mitral insufficiency C) Pulmonic stenosis D) Aortic insufficiency:ANS: B
  5. You notice a patient has a strong pulse and then a weak pulse. Thispattern continues. Which of the following is likely?

A) Emphysema B) Asthma exacerbation C) Severe left heart failure D) Cardiac tamponade:ANS: C

  1. Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched soundin systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S2. This isheard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systolealong with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Mitral stenosis B) Mitral insufficiency C) Mitral valve prolapse D) Mitral valve papillary muscle ischemia:ANS: C
  2. A 57 - year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation ofpain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but heis otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vasculardisease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system? A) Intermittent claudication B) Chest pressure with exertion C) Shortness of breath D) Knee pain:ANS: A
  3. A 72 - year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. Sheis concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know if she has this or not. Which of the following disease process is a risk factor for peripheral vasculardisease? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease B) Coronary artery disease C) Migraine headaches D) Osteoarthritis:ANS: B
  1. A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to controlhis hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition? A) Venogram B) CT scan of the lower legs C) Ankle-brachial index (ABI) D) PET sca:ANS: C
  2. A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for whichshe underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects ofthe physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms? A) Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse B) Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse C) Carotid pulse D) Radial pulse, brachial pulse:ANS: D
  3. You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you performyour examination? A) Size, symmetry, and skin color B) Muscle bulk and tone C) Nodules in joints D) Lower extremity strength:ANS: A
  4. You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms,secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 3? A) 0

B) 3+

C) 2+

D) 1+:ANS: B

  1. You are obtaining an ABG in the radial artery on a retired cab driver whohas been hospitalized in the intensive care unit for a stroke.You are concernedabout the possibility of arterial insufficiency. You perform the Allen test. Thismeans that you A) Checked for patency of the radial artery B) Checked for patency of the brachial artery C) Checked for patency of the ulnar artery D) Checked for patency of the femoral artery:ANS: C
  2. You are assessing a 59 - year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis inthe lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient'spain make you concerned for this disease process? A) Thigh B) Knee C) Calf D) Ankle:ANS: C
  3. You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the vascular surgery clinic. You note that he has a history of chronicarterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings inthe lower extremities would be expected with this disease? A) Normal pulsation B) Normal temperature C) Marked edema D) Thin, shiny, atrophic Skin:ANS: D
  4. A 77 - year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you areasked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term carefacility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition? A) Arterial insufficiency B) Venous insufficiency

C) Diminished sensation in pressure points D) Hypertension:ANS: D

  1. As the internal diameter of a blood vessel changes, the resistance alsochanges. Which of the following descriptions depicts this relationship? A) Resistance varies linearly with the diameter. B) Resistance varies proportionally to the second power of the diameter. C) Resistance varies proportionally to the third power of the diameter. D) Resistance varies proportionally to the fourth power of the diameter.:ANS: D
  2. Which area of the arm drains to the epitrochlear nodes? A) Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and ulnarmiddle finger B) Radial surface of the forearm and hand, thumb and index fingers, and radialmiddle finger C) Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers D) Radial surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers:ANS: A
  3. Mr. E complains of cramps and difficulties with walking. The cramps occurin his calves consistently after walking about 100 yards. After a period of rest,he can start to walk again, but after 100 yards these same symptoms recur. Which of the following would suggest spinal stenosis as a cause of this pain? A) Coldness and pallor of the legs B) Relief of the pain with bending at the waist C) Color changes of the skin D) Swelling with tenderness of the skin:ANS: B
  4. Which of the following pairs of ischemic symptoms versus vascularsupply is correct? A) Lower calf/superficial femoral B) Erectile dysfunction/iliac or pudendal C) Buttock/common femoral

D) Upper calf/tibial or peroneal:ANS: B

  1. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated by dividing the systolic BPat the dorsalis pedis by the systolic BP at the brachial artery. Which of the following values would be consistent with mild peripheral arterial disease?A) 1.1 B) 0.85 C) 0.65 D) 0.35:ANS: B
  2. Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions? A) Coronary artery disease B) Congenital narrowing of the aorta C) Diffuse atherosclerosis D) Vasculitis, as seen in systemic lupus erythematous:ANS: B
  3. Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of thefollowing? A) Aortic insufficiency B) Hyperthyroidism C) Arterial emboli D) Early "warm" septic shock:ANS: C
  4. When assessing skin temperature, which portion of your hand should beused? A) Fingertips B) Palms C) Backs of fingers D) Ulnar aspect of the hand:ANS: C
  5. A patient presents with claudication symptoms and diminished pulses.Which of the following is consistent with chronic arterial insufficiency? A) Pallor of the foot when raised to 60 degrees for one minute B) Return of color to the skin within 5 seconds of allowing legs to dangle C) Filling of the veins of the ankles within 10 seconds of allowing the legs todangle D) Hyperpigmentation of the skin:ANS: A