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REHS EXAM | 2 ACTUAL CURRENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE AND DETAILED ANSW, Exams of Nursing

Chamberlain College of NursingNursing

REHS EXAM | 2 ACTUAL CURRENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE AND DETAILED ANSWERS EACH AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS NEWEST

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

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REHS EXAM | 2 ACTUAL CURRENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM
VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE AND DETAILED ANSWERS EACH
AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS
NEWEST
1. This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its
presence in water usually
Indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it?
a. ammonia
b. sugar
c. carbon dioxide
d. hydrogen sulfide - ammonia
2. One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock,
clay, or hardpan is
a. seepage of pollutants through soil
b. failure to seal well casings properly
c. porosity of the rock
d. use of inferior quality well casings - failure to seal well casings properly
3. In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using a.
aluminum salts
b. tincture of iodine
c. salt tablets
d. direct exposure to sunlight for 22 hours - tincture of iodine
14. Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method of device to prevent
backsiphonage?
a. vacuum breakers
b. cross-connections
c. air gap separation
d. back pressure units - cross-connections
18. Back flow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by
a. back pressure
b. backsiphonage
c. vacuum in the volume
d. a and b above - a and b above
19. Which of the following statements should not be a consideration in locating a
groundwater supply?
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pf13
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Partial preview of the text

Download REHS EXAM | 2 ACTUAL CURRENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE AND DETAILED ANSW and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

REHS EXAM | 2 ACTUAL CURRENTLY TESTING REAL EXAM

VERSIONS WITH ACCURATE AND DETAILED ANSWERS EACH

AND A STUDY GUIDE | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

NEWEST

  1. This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually Indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it? a. ammonia b. sugar c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen sulfide - ammonia

  2. One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is a. seepage of pollutants through soil b. failure to seal well casings properly c. porosity of the rock d. use of inferior quality well casings - failure to seal well casings properly

  3. In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using a. aluminum salts b. tincture of iodine c. salt tablets d. direct exposure to sunlight for 22 hours - tincture of iodine

  4. Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method of device to prevent backsiphonage? a. vacuum breakers b. cross-connections c. air gap separation d. back pressure units - cross-connections

  5. Back flow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by a. back pressure b. backsiphonage c. vacuum in the volume d. a and b above - a and b above

  6. Which of the following statements should not be a consideration in locating a groundwater supply?

a. the probable travel of pollution through the ground b. the well construction practices and standards c. the sanitary seal provided at the point where the pump lines pass out of the casing d. the distance that the water will need to travel - the distance that the water will need to travel

  1. It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than ____ of harsh temperature extremes a. 2 months b. 5 months c. 2 years d. 5 years - 2 years
  2. A storm sewer is used to a. remove rain or other standing surface water b. remove sewage and storm water c. remove household water waste and gutter drain water d. remove non-toxic, non-hazardous wastewater - remove rain or other standing surface water
  3. Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by a. increased levels of available oxygen in the water b. a zone of degradation c. large numbers of crayfish and cristivomer species d. large numbers of small fish - a zone of degradation
  4. If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it a. the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent b. the tank should have an agiator c. the tank should not be equipped with a gas baffle d. the tank should not be constructed with precast concrete - the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent
  5. How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced? a. every year b. every 5 to 10 years c. every 3 to 5 years d. every 10 years - every 3 to 5 years
  6. Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater, using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains

d. ticks - ticks

  1. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. viruses d. fungi - fungi
  2. The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is a. entomology b. biology c. endocrinology d. epidemiology - epidemiology
  3. Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution? a. fecal streptococci b. escherichia coli c. aerobacter aerogenes d. clostridium sporulates - clostridium sporulates
  4. Engineering controls are a. controls that isolate or remove hazards from the work place b. less effective than good training c. the last option that should be considered d. less effective than personal protection processes - controls that isolate or remove hazards from the workplace
  5. Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in Well systems? a. abandoning the well b. boiling the water c. building a new, properly constructed, drilled well - boiling the water
  6. Which of the following chemicals is most widely used to destroy microorganisms? a. chlorine b. copper sulfate c. chloramine d. hydrogen sulfate - chlorine
  7. Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium? a. ion exchange b. lime softening c. reverse osmosis

d. iron coagulation - reverse osmosis

  1. A measure of the relativity constant rate at which clear water, maintained at a relatively constant depth, will seep out of a standard size test hole that has been previously saturated is the a. hydraulic conductivity b. soil permeability test c. soil percolation test d. Baird-Parker saturation test - soil percolation test
  2. The ability of a soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is related to all of the following except a. chemical composition b. texture c. cation exchange capacity d. granular structure - cation exchange capacity
  3. Bacteria that require oxygen for their growth are called a. anaerobic bacteria b. aerobic bacteria c. viruses d. fungi - aerobic bacteria
  4. The examination of the stool for cysts and/or ova is the common diagnosis for which food borne pathogen? A. Parasitic infections B. Viral infections C. Bacterial infections D. Non-infectious agents E. None of the above - parasitic infections
  5. If you are counseling a pregnant patient, what foods should she avoid to decrease her risk for listeriosis? A. Honey B. Fresh soft cheese C. Sauerkraut D. Cooked mushrooms E. Caffeine - fresh soft cheese
  6. Which scenario(s) may present a risk to immunocompromized patients. A. Animals in the Home Use
  1. The typical limitation of use of the septic tank absorption field system is due to a. cost b. land use considerations c. soil type and size requirements d. appearance - soil type and size requirements
  2. Which of the following is true about disposal of animal wastes? a. If wet manure is plowed under, fly eggs present will not hatch. b. Composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate. c. Where a small number of animals are kept, the manure should be collected once a week. d. Odors associated with the handling and disposal of these wastes do not determine the disposal method or its location. - composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate
  3. Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start a. at the point of generation b. at the sanitary landfill c. in the home d. at the transfer station - at the point of generation
  4. ______can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incineration or water-wall incinerator. a. glass b. aluminum c. ferrous metal d. energy - energy
  5. Incinerators are rated in terms of a. percent fuel capacity per day b. BTU's per day c. tons of burnable waste per day d. cubic feet of solid waste per day. - tons of burnable waste per day
  6. The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are a. temperature, time and heat b. time, temperature and moisture c. temperature, heat and fuel d. time, temperature and turbulence - time, temperature and turbulence
  1. The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least a. 1500o to 1600oF b. 1500o to 1800o F c. 1900o to 2000o F d. 1800o to 1900o F - 1500 to 1800 F
  2. A landfill site should not a. be located near a major highway b. be given and attractive entrance and approach road c. house equipment on site d. be inexcessible during bad weather conditions - be inexcessible during bad weather conditions
  3. Determining what a landfill can be used for when completed should be planned a. when the landfill is half full b. before you build the landfill c. when the landfill is full d. any time during the operation of the landfill - before you build the landfill
  4. Hazardous waste is governed by the a. Clean Air Act b. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act d. Food and Drug Act - Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act
  5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? a. ignitability b. corrosivity c. reactivity d. combustibility - combustibility
  6. The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ________ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill. a. 99.99 percent b. 95.00 percent c. 99.9999 percent d. 0.05 percent - 99.9999 percent
  7. When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called? a. commensalism b. synergism c. magnification d. multiplication - synergism
  1. A primary pollutant is a. one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of reactions such as hydrolysis, oxidation, and photochemistry b. one that is found in the atmosphere due to natural reactions c. one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists - one that is found in the atmosphere due to natural reactions
  2. How are total suspended particles measured? a. flame photometry and weighing b. gas filtration c. flame ionization d. collection and weighing - collection and weighing
  3. Which of the following inversions develop at night under conditions of relatively clear skies and very light winds? a. subsidence inversion b. frontal inversion c. radiational inversion d. stack emission inversion - radiational inversion
  4. The pitch of a sound is determined primarily by a. frequency b. wavelengths c. sound pressure d. all of the above - frequency
  5. The distance that a sound wave travels in on cycle of period is the a. sound intensity b. wavelength of the sound c. sound pressure d. frequency - wavelength of the sound
  6. The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on a. the compressibility of the medium b. the density of the medium c. the compressibility and density of the medium d. none of the above - the density of the medium
  7. A __________is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels. a. noise level b. decibel c. hertz

d. sound pressure level (SPL) - decibel

  1. If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense in 20 decibels than one decibel? a. 20 b. 30 c. 100 d. 1000 - 100
  2. The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by a. the Department of Transportation b. the Federal Aviation Administration c. the Department of Housing and Urban Development d. the Department of Labor - the Department of Labor
  3. The shorter the wave length a. the higher the frequency and lower the energy b. the lower the frequency and energy c. the lower the frequency and higher the energy d. the higher the frequency and energy - the higher the frequency and energy
  4. The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to a. x-rays or gamma rays b. alpha particles c. beta particles d. all of the above - x-rays or gamma rays
  5. The term "rad" means a. required administered dose b. radiation admitted dose c. roentgen absorbed dose d. radiation absorbed dose - radiation absorbed dose
  6. The term "half-value layer" (HVL) is used to designate the thickness of a particular material that will reduce by ½ the intensity of radiation passing through the material. Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by a. lead b. concrete c. glass of plastic d. aluminum - glass of plastic
  7. The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the US is estimated to be a. $1.2 million to $5 million per year b. $5 trillion per year

d. by the FDA in accordance with federal regulations - at the farm where the milk is produced

  1. Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of a. 20 mg/l b. 2 mg/l c. 200 mg/l d. 220 mg/l - 200 mg/I
  2. After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below _____ so that _____. a. 45o F; any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change b. 40o F; molecular activity in any remaining organisms will be stopped c. 40o F; lactic acid bacteria will be slowed in reproduction d. 45o F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase - 45 F; any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change
  3. Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than _____ at the end of the system. a. 170o F for 5 minutes b. 180oF for 5 minutes c. 185o F for 5 minutes d. 187o F for 5 minutes - 170 F for 5 minutes
  4. Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams - hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations
  5. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states? a. Washington and Illinois b. Minnesota and Kentucky c. Texas and Iowa d. Oregon and Michigan - Oregon and Michigan
  6. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become a. less of a problem due to antibiotics b. a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef c. a minor threat to children d. not a threat to the elderly - a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef
  7. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the a. intestines of man and animals

b. water c. soil d. air - intestines of man and animals

  1. Listeriosis is a a. skin irritation caused by contact with cold products b. serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes c. disease caused by exposure to lysolic agents d. disease that attacks people in their early 20's - a serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes
  2. Stong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because a. shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera and typhoid fever b. seafood is in popular demand c. the shellfish population is decreasing due to water pollution d. a great number of shellfish are bought and sold illegally - shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera and typhoid fever
  3. Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of a. 0.42 to 0. b. 0.24 to 0. c. 2.5 percent d. greater than 0.31 - 0.24 to 0.
  4. Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature? a. 6.2 to 6.4 and 37o F b. 6.2 to 6.8 and 41o F c. 6.4 to 7.0 and 45o F d. 6.0 to 6.9 and 32o F - 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 F
  5. Oyster shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of _________ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish. a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 - 240
  6. To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, _____ of 5.25% bleach with one gallon of water should be used. a. 0.5 oz. b. 1.0 oz. c. 0.33 oz. d. 0.25 oz. - 0.25 oz
  1. To raise pH, add a. chlorine b. muriatic acid c. soda ash d. sulfuric acid - soda ash
  2. To mix acid and water always a. add water to acid b. add acid to water c. add soda ash to acid d. stir while pouring water into the acid - add acid to water
  3. "Swimmers itch" is also known as a. gastroenteritis b. trichinosis c. schistosomiasis d. leptospirosis - schistosomiasis
  4. Rodents are the primary reservoir/host of the hantavirus. In particular, _______ appears to be the primary Reservoir for the newly recognized (1993) hantavirus in the southeastern US. a. rat b. rabbit c. house mouse d. deer mouse - deer mouse
  5. Bacteria may be carried in the digestive system of the housefly for as long as a. 1 week b. 3 months c. 4 weeks d. 2 days - 4 weeks
  6. Pediculosis is an infestation of a. chiggers b. mites c. lice d. roaches - lice
  7. ___________is an infectious disease of the skin caused by burrowing of the female mite into the skin where it deposits its eggs. a. tularemia b. scabies c. psittacosis

d. pediculosis - scabies

  1. Rattus Rattus is also referred to as the a. house rat b. norway rat c. roof rat d. all of the above - roof rat
  2. Psittacosis/Ornithosis is spread by a. bats b. shellfish c. rodents d. pigeons - pigeons
  3. In general, there are three kinds of weeds. These are a. srads, clowds, and mullahs b. bronzes, slorles, and direals c. annuals, biennials, and perennials d. milkweeds, bindweeds, and perennials - annuals, biennials, and perennials
  4. A pollen count index of less than _____ pollen grains/m3 of air in a 24 hour period is considered practically free of ragweed contamination. a. 1 b. 5 c. 20 d. 40 - 5
  5. A minimum of _____ of sleeping area per person is required in the APHA appraisal method. a. 10ft b. 20ft c. 40 ft d. 60 ft2 - 40 ft
  6. The ASHRAE recommended minimal thermal standard for dwellings is ___________ F at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm. a. 57oF b. 60oF c. 68oF d. 76oF - 76 F
  7. The drain line of an ice machine should connect to the sewer system through a. a grease trap

c. 24 inches d. 48 inches - 24 inches

  1. A biohazard is a. any material that negatively impacts a biological organism b. a material of biological composition, especially if ineffective, that constitutes a threat to man or his environment c. a chemical that constitutes a threat to man or his environment d. any virus that causes fatal disease - any material that negatively impacts a biological organism
  2. The control of bloodborne pathogens is regulated by a. OSHA b. USDA c. NIH d. CDC - OSHA
  3. Muerto Canyon Virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by a. woodchucks b. beavers c. deer mice d. skunks - deer mice
  4. The Muerto Canyon Virus causes disease of the _____ in humans. a. lungs b. kidneys c. intestine d. brain - lungs
  5. Universal precautions refer to a. specific respiratory protection used in hospitals b. an infection control measure in which all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious c. procedures used when handling hazardous wastes d. none of the above - an infection control measure in which all humans blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious
  6. Herpesvirus simiae (B-virus) is naturally occurring in certain species of monkeys namely the macaque. The highest risk of humans acquiring this virus is from a. primary cell cultures b. the bite of a macaque c. aerosol exposure to saliva and urine

d. mouth pipetting in the laboratory - the bite of a macaque

  1. The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between humans and the environment b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment c. encourage greater understanding of the environment d. all of the above - all of the above
  2. An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is a. an environmental evaluation dealing with fish b. a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible c. a public document of environmental concern dealing with acid rain only d. an environmental evaluation dealing with air pollution control - a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible
  3. An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except a. project description and land use relationships b. probable impact of the proposed action on the environment c. probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided d. relationship between local short term uses of the environment and enhancement of long term productivity - probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided
  4. Sanitarians, environmental health scientists, and other environmental specialists must obtain which of the following minimum educational requirements? a. an associate degree in environmental health b. an associate degree in science c. a baccalaureate degree d. a master's degree - a baccalaureate degree
  5. The random inspection approach a. averages out in the end b. fails to focus on recurring problem establishments c. is the most comprehensive d. alleviates staff shortage - fails to focus on recurring problem establishments
  6. Natural disaster victims should be provided with _____ of water per day. a. 1 to 3 gallons b. 3 to 6 gallons c. 6 to 9 gallons d. water is not necessary for this population - 3 to 6 gallons