REHS Study Guide 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Physical Activity and Sport Sciences

Download REHS Study Guide 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025 and more Study Guides, Projects, Research Physical Activity and Sport Sciences in PDF only on Docsity! REHS Study Guide 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025 What would you expect from a swimming pool with a high pH reading? Cloudiness and irritation to the eyes. Which will raise pH in the pool? Soda Ash Which chemical is used to oxygenate swimming pool water? Ozone ????? Swimming pool water clarity is measured in NTUs, it is recommended that a level of .5 NTU shall not be exceeded How would a swimmer most likely contract Legionella Pneumophila from a pool? Inhalation of pool water vapor Microbe entirely responsible for skin infections in a whirlpool pseudomonas aeruginosa Formula: Volume Pool (gal) / Pump flow rate x 60 (min/hr) Turn overrate. Number of hours it will take for the entire contents of pool to pass through the filters. A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water every ... 6 to 8 hours the water depth should clearly be marked on the pool perimeter for every ___ of depth change 2 ft it has been found that pools less than 30 feet wide with a surface area less than 1600 sqr ft may utilize skimmers instead of gutters pool must be designed to fit the expected numbers of swimmers the fresh water supply line to the pool must fill to the pool through an approved air gap in large pools with outlets more than 5 ft from the end wall, pool inlets should be located every 20 ft pool inlets should be located a min of 10 to 15 inches below water line to prevent loss of disinfectant the main drain should have a grate that is __ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects 4 times When chlorine is added to water a and c first thing you do when a new septic tank is installed? use as normal how deep should the absorption beds and trenches in a drain field be for a septic field shallow (1-5ft) what formation should an absorption bed be with a water table of 6 inches Mounded how often should a septic tank be inspected biannually how often should a septic tank be pumped 3-5 years a new septic tank is found to be sitting in a high water table, what is a possible consequence the tank may float or tilt a newly installed septic system can be used within immediately sludge can be disposed of in all of the following ways except ocean dumping solid waste can be disposed of in every following way EXCEPT dilution what kills pathogens in composting temp above 140 groundwater water samples are taken all of the following ways except percolation test whats the purpose of a p trap stops sewer gases from passing into the home and clogs from forming EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform when coliforms are 200 collonies per 100ml or less a wastewater treatment plant employee is likely to get what Hep A how to determine the amount of coliforms in water total coliform count or the Colilert test what soil type granule has the smallest surface area silt which produces the most BOD restaurant Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce: EPA priority pollutants plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater. using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains cadmium the reliability and interpretation of the soil percolation test are affected by all of the following EXCEPT shape of the test hole which soils would be most suitable for subsurface absorption of waste water a yellow, brown, or red soil which soil is least suitable for subsurface absorption of waste water Mottled brown or bluish gray the most effective method of discovered for running a percolation test is to make tests in holes that have been filled with water overnight leachate and methane monitored in a garbage dump why? leachate (liquid) containing water may contaminate groundwaters and methane production can be explosive at 5 -15% which pathogen travels further in a wastewater treatment plant drain field virus what is the best method for removing phosphorus from water chemical precipitation when writing regulation for a wastewater system, and REHS should consult with 5 ug/dl EPA air pollutants SO2, CO, OZONE, LEAD, PM, NO2 in children, blood lead levels more than __ are associated with decreased intellectual performance and other adverse health events any lead in blood leads to health defects or 10 ug Vent gases combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form: sulfuric acid lead poisoning is commonly associated with children living in homes built before 1978 houses built pre-1978 cause an increase in what disease lead poisoning concentrations of radon from EPA action level is 4 pCi/L what four characteristics are used to classify hazardous materials EXCEPT Lethality how does one prevent corrosion in underground hazardous waste storage tanks use corrosive-resistant materials, epoxy resin hazardous waste information for truck wreck The drivers of vehicles carrying hazardous materials should always carry a material safety data sheet (MSDS) so they have full knowledge of their cargo and its dangers. The vehicle should be clearly marked with a sign, indicating that hazardous materials— or HazMat— are aboard. In the event of an accident or spill, any cleanup efforts will be informed by this sign, ensuring the safety of the individuals charged with assisting in the spill. what is not considered as hazardous waste autoclave serum and REHS receives a call about hazardous 55 gal container, what should they do first evacuate the area get info off the label?? respirators are inspected and approved by NIOSH what kind of respirator is needed in an environment consisting of 15% oxygen self-contained rebreather when inspecting bio-medical wastes, an REHS should look for sharps container and red bags trichloroethylene is used in the industry in what dry cleaning what is in crankcase oil? heavy metal and additives people in the building are complaining of respiratory issues when in a specific building, what is most likely the cause HVAC why are personal monitors better than area monitors they are more accurate for individuals exposure during shift high concentrations of Nitrates in drinking water are a possible cause of methemoglobinemia which of the following is not required in an emergency response plan at a hazardous waste site EPA library telephone number which part of the resource conservation and recovery act RCRA covers hazardous waste? Nonhazardous? Hazardous = Subtitle C Nonhazardous = subtitle D RCRA requires that buried hazardous waste storage tanks have what cover, liner, leachate monitoring system, and leachate collection system the US department of Transportation USDOT emergency response guidebook can be used to quickly identify the specific or generic classification of hazardous materials during the initial response phase of an incident vector for rocky mountain spotted fever dog tick or wood tick virus which hep is tramitted fecal oral hep a and e Influenza is spread by direct contact order of recall/ epidemic investigation Prepare for field work establish the existence of an outbreak verify the diagnosis construct a working case definition find cases systematically and record information perform descriptive epi develop hypothesis evaluate hypothesis reconsider, refine, and re-evaluate hypothesis compare and reconcile with laboratory and/or environmental studies implement control and prevention measures initiate or maintain surveillance communicate findings what is the benefit of using a licensed pest control company less risk of pests developing chemical resistance what is the carrier of hantavirus rodents in an outbreak of hantavirus, what should you educate the public about eliminating rodent breeding areas and harborage conditions nosocomial infections are found here hospitals what is the most likely cause of nosocomial infections in hospitals poor handwashing which air flow pattern in a hospital is least risky hallway to dirty linen closet what should be the minimum temp of hospital laundry 160F what are the RCRA requirements for disposing of household hazardous waste they are EXEMPT from RCRA requirements what are the three things for protection against radiation time, distance, shielding at a minimum what will protect you from alpha particles a sheet of paper where do you sample radon in schools stairwells and locations with poor ventilation What pet is not allowed in a daycare? parrot what pet causes psttacosis bird what should a homeowner use to get rid of rats and how long warfarin for 2-3 weeks what of the following is not a housing code violation refuse in the attic??? which is not a result of substandard housing increase in congenital birth defects what would a home inspector not need to check for argon windows how do you sample for giardia 500 gal through 1 um pore filter what is the incubation period for a chemical foodborne illness 1-7 hours a description is given on the types of environments microbes like to grow in. what microbe grows best with a lack of oxygen anaerobe if you receive a call saying that a house/building/place of residence is overrun with cats, which is the BEST agency to have assist you with the inspection animal control ??? what on a tattoo gun should be cleaned between every use metal grip the quantity of liquid bleach used to treat 1,000 gal of bacterially contaminated water for drinking is 1 pint freezing food does what to toxins nothing how to tell if food has been taken from the freezer Will be a lot more frozen juices in the bag. H2O crystalline structure, when frozen, pierces the cells and some microorganisms. These will leak out of the product in the form of juices. If done again, the quality of the product goes down and there will be more juice and shit like that. Frozen solid is not the answer. chicken from a freezer placed into a fridge to be used later is called thawing what are the critical control points in receiving and preparing chicken receiving at 41 F or under, heating to 165F what is the onset time for symptoms of a chemical foodborne infection 1-7 hours Bringing frozen chicken from -32 degrees F to 12 degrees F for the purpose of deep frying is called...? slacking what tactical way can you help a food establishment with its ice machine Spray biocide on it's walls every day. Empty and clean it daily. Put a cleaning schedule on the machine. What pH encourages staph growth? 7.2 (7.2-7.6) all of the following containers should be disposed of after a flood except sealed cans you see a dumpster overflowing with food what should you communicate to the owner as the biggest concern breeding areas, vectors who is ultimately responsible for not transferring disease in a tattoo parlor owner/ artist an ice machine is supposed to be drained how through an air gap to an open drain a chef prepares sandwiches with cold cut meats for a catering event. how soon should they be eaten after preparation 4 hours a bushel of apples tests higher than tolerant levels of pesticides, the food is adulterated shellfish tags should be kept for how many days 90 what does it mean when milk tests negative for phosphatase pasteurization was successful you do an inspection of a facility on April 8th, and find milk with a date that says april 4th. what does the data on the carton of milk indicate last date milk can be SOLD an REHS gets a call from a retirement facility with moldy baseboards in an empty room. what does the REHS do first find source of water what determines risk categorization of establishment outbreaks, class 1 recalls, and inspection history when raw eggs are used in food, what is the best way to prevent salmonella thoroughly cook eggs and all foods containing eggs which of the following defines effective porosity or specific yield the amount of water that will drain out of saturated rock or soil by gravity milk is considered Ultra-high temp pasteurized if it reaches 280F for 1 second Staphylococcus aureus pH range 5.2-9 Clostridium botulinum pH range above 4.6 Bacillus cereus pH range USDA, HHS, EPA, Fern and eLEXNET what is the ration for the steepness of a ramp 1:12 what is the population growth of the world annually 83 million what is a prevalent wind wind that is blown predominantly FROM a single general direction most of the time what legal principle protects people's rights due process you would expect to see an an increase in all of the following during a disaster situation EXCEPT brown recluse spider population how should you bury an animal after a natural disaster 3 ft deep and at least 100 feet from nearest water source a major constituent of landfills is what paper and paper products the __ inspections are annual or scheduled inspections to determine compliance with laws, codes, rules, and regulations routine which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action reinspection an example of __ is closing down an establishment without first giving a required statutory notice misfeasance NIMS vs ICS NIMS represents a core set of doctrines, concepts, principles, terminology, and organizational processes that enables effective, efficient, and collaborative incident management. ICS, is the actual response of officials (On Scene) that have collaborated with their local, tribal, or state counterparts to a natural or man-made disaster. what amendment/ bill protects against search and seizures 4th 3 epi surveillance measures Person, place, time What is prevalence number of new and existing cases during a specific time / total pop during the same time period what is incidence total number new cases of a specific disease during specific time / total pop at risk during same time what requires a HACCP Plan Sous vide, ROP, smoking cured meats What is the main purpose of ICS Joint Communication system integrate incident information and public affairs across ICS, multi-agency coordination groups, and emergency operations centers appropriate sqr footage per person at beach 25 what would you want in your tube to titrate/ measure chlorine sodium thiosulfate Passive surveillance more common form of surveillance used by most local and state health departments; health care providers report notifiable conditions active surveillance data actively collected, more specific objective, information-gathering tools (questionnaires etc), more useful in epidemiological research than passive. health agency (HD) contacts health providers seeking reports what level is noise protection required 90 decibels how many more times are children affected by lead than adults 5 times maggot/ fly larvae in childs nose myasis how is water measured BTU (British thermal unit) Best soil conditions to remove viruses fine loamy sand over course sand or gravel What type of well is considered LEAST likely to become contaminated? drilled Steps required to take during a waterborne outbreak investigation 1. Preparation and planning, 2.detection, 3.confirmation 4.description5. Hypothesis formulation 6. Hypothesis testing 7. Control measures 8.formal report how do you filter out giardia rapid sand filteration pharmaceuticals in water treatment plants are both solid and liquid which mosquito is the highest cause of encephalitis in the US? Culex what is is called when you heat milk to 191-212F Pasteurization what is an antibacterial agent used on skin tissue called? Antiseptic what is the most common cockroach in the US german What type of cockroach is referred to as a water bug? Oriental or american what is the minimum distance between a water line and a sewer line in a trailer park? 10ft what is the slope of ramps determined by the Americans with Disabilities Act ADA 1:12 or less NSF and USL are organizations that Certify food service equipment. what is the amount of soil you must put on a finished landfill 24 inches what is the most likely to carry hantavirus rodents which is least likely to cause bites and itching in an urban area ticks What does HACCP stand for? Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point Methemoglobinemia is caused by: nitrates Hazardous waste CRIT Corrosive, reactive, ignitable, toxic organization that tests breathing apparatus OSHA who is the incident commander The person with jurisdiction, person responsible for all aspects of emergency response what is the calculation for pool turnover rate Turnover rate (hours)= pool volume (gallons) / flow rate (gallons per minute) / 60 (minutes per hour) Sous vide foods can lead to what foodborne illness? clostridium botulinum what can you use after a national disaster canned goods where do you store iced fish in the fridge below ready to eat foods and above raw meats what is considered comminuted Hot dogs and hamburgers which of these is different from the others? NSF, UL, ASNI, TLE TLE freezing a toxin will have what effect no affect What particle is the easiest to absorb Hep A what guidance do you give a homeowner with a new septic tank pump regularly what is the system for a small community rapid sand Nitrogen is transformed into what during conventional biological processes ammonia and biological sludge A family complains of multiple bites and a rash. What is the least likely organism to cause it? tick There is a vacant lot that has been used for dumping of unwanted items. What is the correct action that REHS should perform? contact the owner and explain the PH dangers. what is toxicity toxic wastes are harmful or fatal when ingested or absorbed define reactivity Reactive wastes are unstable under normal conditions. They can cause explosions, undergo violent reactions, generate toxic fumes, gas , or vapors when heated compressed or mixed with water. Example: lithiumsulfur batteries Define ignitability Ignitable wastes can create fires under certain conditions, are spontaneously combustible, or have a flash point less than 60 degrees celcius. Ex: waste oils what is due process fair treatment through the normal judicial system what is not a concern of silicosis Tiles containing asbestos what part of schools should be tested for radon First floor classrooms, stairways or basements what is the biggest obstacle in communicating food inspection results loud/ busy kitchen what would be least likely to contain asbestos ceramic tiles what type of soil is best for onsite wastewater systems red, brown, or yellow how fast can chemical food poisoning symptoms occur one hour what is is called when you clean human skin? asepsis / antisepsis what is the pH range of Staph? 4.0-9.8 chemical sanitizer does what kill some but not all bacteria. reduces to a generally acceptable level for PH standards what are the three primary water pollutants Nutrients, sediments, chemicals? sewage waste, chemical, agricultural human, industrial, chemical runoff what agency would you refer to for writing water policy? EPA, AWWA, NGWA, UsGS NGWA (national ground water association) what is the correct order of inspections based on priority recalls, food inspections, failure of a residential septic system Come across a gasoline spill on the highway, what are the appropriate steps to take contain the spill which is an example of a non-communicable disease diabetes, heart disease, cancer, Define nonfeasance Failure to perform official duty or legal requirement not acting when you should define malfeasance Wrongful conduct, doing something unlawful and in an unapproved way define misfeasance humans by how many millions of pople is the population growing 80 mil what is the best way to minimize odors in a privy or latrine biological activities and ventilation is household hazardous waste exempt from RCRA yes what does RCRA stand for resource conservation and recovery act what is the cuase of swimmers itch shistosome dermatitis what are common chemicals for disinfection of water chlorine, ammonia, chlorine dioxide, ozone what is hard water makes water more difficult to produce suds or rinse laundry, dishes, caused by calcium and bicarbonates, sulfates, and chlorides in well water what does NPEDS stand for National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System what temperature for hospital laundry 160-167 degrees F for 25 min. Dilution, use of bleach, and drying cycle more important than temperature how much water is required per day per person after a natural disaster 3-5 gals per day sanitization in dish machine is achieved by 1. low temp chemical rinse 2. high temp final rinse (plate temp 160 water temp 180F) what is formaldehyde a colorless gas that can cause contact dermatitis and extreme discomfort in an indoor environment excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew can occur when relative humidity exceeds 60% what are some backflow prevention devices air gap, atmospheric vacuum breaker, pressure vacuum breaker, dual check valves what is the cause of hot tub rash pseudomonas aeruginosa what is a proper emergency water treatment 1-2 drops of chlorine what is the cause of amoebic dysentery Entamoeba histolytica (protozoa) what could travel furthest in a septic field viruses what temp should you store a pool chemical test kit 36-85F what happens if alkalinity is too low in pools Damages pool, unstable ph, chlorine is less effective, results in acidic water: stinging eyes, nasal passages, and skin what is the max temp for a spa 104F what temps are shell eggs received 45F or less ham sandwich prepared by caterer must be discarded after how many hours 4 what is the process of moderating the temp of a food such as allowing a food to gradually increase form a frozen temp to facilitate heat penetration during cooking slacking what is not commonly found in effluent ammonia trioxide what is effluent liquid waste or sewage (usually from a factory) discharged into a river or the sea. What is thiosulfate used for? Sodium thiosulfate is used to dechlorinate water for sampling when you move food from one container to another you must put this on the new container use by date Salmonella grows best at what pH 6.5-7.5 wastewater treatment workers are more susceptible to Hep A how to detect a gas leak in the home Soapy bubble method Recycling effluent into septic tank is primary, secondary, or tertiary treatment? secondary Acceptable sludge disposal? Agriculture, landfill, incineration, ocean dumping are employers required to provide training in hazardous materials yes, it is required by osha before REHS begins a community project meetings of the community group must be called to identify problems what are the 2 parts of HACCP Hazard analysis, critical control point what does ISO stand for International Organization for Standardization (ISO) any person who violates any of the health quarantine laws may be guilty of a misdemeanor sound is brought about through vibration conducted through matter (solid liquid gas) what is trichloroethane A cleaner and degreaser of metals what is the waterborne disease mortality rate about 3.4 mill people yearly what are the MCLS max contaminant levels. enforceable and must be set as close to MLCG's as feasibly possible what are MCLgS Max contaminant level goals. Ideal levels, not enforceable what is extrinsic incubation period the time a pathogen requires to develop or multiply in the vector before it can be transmitted to another host what is an embargo Action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement for the protection of public health safety and welfare what is legionnaires disease caused by Legionella pneumophila which is found in warm, stagnant water, such as hot water tanks, and spread by aerosolized routes from the environmental source to the client caused by commercial air circulation system. atypical pneumonia caused by legionella bacteria what are the four stages of an infected individual incubation period, carrier state, fulminate infection, remission/ immunity what is the principle of multiple barriers interruption of disease at each if the three points of disease transmission (host, environment, agent) how is E. coli 0157:H7 spread By direct contact and under-cooked food what is the desirable alkalinity of water 30-100 mg/l a hydropneumatic tank typically contains what percent of its volume of water 20% or 1/5 how frequently are emergency response plans, nuclear power plants, reviewed? every 2 years what is the most practical method of removing nitrates form water ion exchange water related diseases occupy what percentage of hospital beds worldwide What is passive health surveillance? Regular reporting of disease data by all institutions that see patients (or test specimens) and are part of a reporting network When addressing the public on emergency situation Be accurate and authoritative What is the solid waste collection frequency? Residential: 2 times per week summer, 1 times per week min Business: daily except Sunday Radiation shielding Half valve layer (HVL) Dichloroethylene: 1.1: solvents 1,2: cleaning fluid What are outbreak times? Less than 1 hour: chemical poisoning 1-7 hours: staphylococcus food poisoning 8-14 hours: C. Perfringens food poisoning Greater than 14 hours: other infectious or toxic agents Who protects waterways? EPA Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds 60% What is a Roentgen? A unit of radiation or intensity (x-rays or gamma rays) What does ozone cause in plants? Bleaching, freckles, stipple and growth suppression What are the three stages of lakes? Oligotrophic (young), mesotrophic, eutrophic (mature) Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by Discoloration in the geometric center Fluorides cause what damage in cattle? Crippling skeletal damage Where are photochemical oxidants produced? The troposphere What are the nonpotable uses of water? Industrial purposes, agricultural irrigation, GWr recharge, desert reclamation, fish farming, irrigation of lawns etc., landscape and golf course watering, toilet flushing What are white goods? Refrigerators, freezers, home appliances When using liquid, unscented household chlorine bleach to disinfect water in an emergency, how many drops per gallon should be added? 8 drops per gallon What level of methane is explosive in landfills? Between 5-15% What temperature is chlorine most effective at? Per COMAR: 50 ppm at 75 °F for more than 7 seconds. Per food code: about 75 °F What is a priority foundation item? Purposeful incorporation of specific actions, equipment, or procedures by industry management, HACCP, record keeping, labeling What is a priority item? Quantifiable measure to show control of hazards such as cooking, reheating, cooling and handwashing What is a core item? General sanitation, operational controls, SSOPs, facilities or structures, equipment design, general maintenance When must a core violation be corrected? Within a 90 day timeframe When must a priority foundation violation be corrected? Immediately or within 10 days the langelier index is used to determine the point of stability of calcium carbonate Residential cess pools and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge_________ gallons per day? 400 billin gallons department of labor how should you properly cook custard pies Heat to 155 degrees F fo 15 seconds what is a biohazard a biological substance which poses a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans what are the four types of incinerators mass-fixed, refuse-derived fuel fixed, modular combustion units, on-site commercial and industrial units microwaves use ___ energy sources non-ionizing lead poisoning is commonly associated with children living in homes built before 1970 a minimum of __ ft squared of sleeping per person is required in the APHA appraisal method 40 what sound level is considered unsafe greater than 90 dba Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge how many gallons per day? 400 billion what does valley or ravine method (sanitary landfill) have placed on lifts from 8-10 ft deep. left occurs in 7 year increments sound frequencies of ___ intensity, but ___ frequency are most effective against bacteria low, high what agencies response to bioterrorism attack FBI weapons of mass destruction coordinator, FBI joint terrorism task force, certified hazmat unit, local law enforcement, local public health department which type of ionizing radiation travels in tortuous paths through absorbing material beta radiation On what may food service equipment be installed on caster what is the correct effect of adding CO2 to a septic tank it reduces pH. by adding CO2 you can prevent high pH in effluent what is onchocerciasis river blindness, caused by a worm and transmitted by black flies what is leptospirosis Bacterial disease caused by contaminated animal urine. Symptoms; kidney damage and meningitis who are the primary stakeholders of a temporary food event health department or regulating authority and the food vendors and event planners skimmers and gutters should receive what minimum percent of flow in a standard pool 60% what is soda ash used in pool water for raise pH what is slacking The gradual thawing of frozen food to prep it for deep-frying what is red squill single dose rodenticide what is norway rat home range 100-150ft how much food does an adult rat eat> 1 oz food per day what is a ratite a flightless bird (emu, ostrich, rhea) what are the problems of food technology Contamination, food spoilage, canning spoilage how does meat spoil Beef spoils from surface inward. Pork spoils bone outward. Ground beef decomposes rapidly when using liquid, unscented household chlorine bleach to disinfect water in an emergency, how many drops per gall should be added 8 drops per gallon what are white goods Refrigerators, freezers, home appliances what are the nonpotable uses of water Industrial purposes, agricultural irrigation, GWr recharge, desert reclamation, fish farming, irrigation of lawns etc, landscape and golf course watering, toilet flushing where are photochemical oxidants produced the troposphere fluorides cause what damage to cattle Crippling skeletal damage contamination in a block of ice can be identified by discoloration in the geometric center what are the three stages of lakes Oligotrophic (young), mesotrophic, eutrophic (mature) what does ozone cause in plants Bleaching, frecks, stipple and growth suppression what is food net Foodborne diseases active surveillance network. Has been monitoring foodborne diseases in US since 1996 how much air do humans breathe 35lbs per day in a stratified reservoir, the best quality water is usually contained in what zone metalimnion Tenement housing act of 1867 provisions: Fire escapes for each suite, all rooms for sleeping must have a ventilating window (NY state law) what are the three things that provide protection against radiation time, distance, sheilding what scale is used when measuring noise in a sheet metal shop the A-weighted scale is most commonly used. it considers frequency, intensity, and impact level what is aggressive water? water that is acidic, or has low pH. water from deep wells tend to be more acidic, and in some city water supplies, a buffer is added to raise the pH. Acidic water causes more damage to the pipes. Corrosive water. water that will dissolve material s it comes into contact with What causes listeriosis? Listeria bacterium How far apart do beds have to be placed in daycares? If toe to head, 3 feet. How often should a wading pool at a daycare be checked and what should be the result? It should be checked every 1-2 hours and the residual chlorine should be 1.5-3.0 ppm (fill and draw pools are prohibited) how long does it take class A radioactive waste to degrade to a safe level 100 years what are the characteristics of alpha particles they are easily absorbed and have low penetrating ability what are the criteria air pollutants sulfer dioxide, nitrogen oxide, carbon monoxide, lead, pm, ozone how is dust from a cement kiln cleaned electrostatic precipitater. particles pass through an electical field, are charged, then are attracted to a plate. the particles then fall into a hopper. how far can a fly penetrate the soil compacted, six inches how do you prevent lyme disease • Avoid ticks: Use insect repellents, wear long pants, socks, make frequent body checks • Reduce tick numbers in your yard with the correct insecticide in areas with lots of ticks • Prevent more serious late symptoms by early treatment clean up the area, cover entrance holes, and bat with red squill what is the purpose of sanitizer reduce microorganisms to a safe level how do you compute prevalence rate [(The total number of cases of a disease existing in the population at a given time -new and old cases)/(total number of persons in the population ] x 1,000 = prevalence rate what is it called when an employer is liable for the employees actions within the scope of employment respondent superior (parens patriae) how far apart should water and sewer lines be installed 10 ft what are ringelmann charts ringelmann smoke charts are used to determine particulate emission density. what disease can be contracted from swimming in a pond adjacent to a stock yard primarily leptospirosis. Also, a primary amoebic meningoencephalitis, schistomiisis, salmonella, legionella and pseudomonas. (not giardia) what does a sling psycrometer measure relative humidity is asbestosis malignant or nonmalignant non malignant how soon after preparation should a ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food be consumed 2 to 4 hours after prep what is it called if apples test higher for pesticides than regulated tolerance level adulterated which institutions are most susceptible to nosocomial infections hospitals what are the requirements for the temporary storage of hazardous waste a basin with 2 layers of liner, intermediate collection system, and groundwater monitoring how often should underground storage tanks be replaced every twenty years how long do you have to keep shellfish tags 90 days how long should public swimming pools run their recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day what is the turnover rate for hot tubs public hot tubs 30 mins or less, residential 1 hour or less what tick causes rocky mountain spotted fever wood tick, rabbit tick, dog tick Bacillus cereus can form what as part of its reproductive cycle spores is clostridium botulism an aerobe or anaerobe? anaerobe which swimming pool filters function the slowest diatomaceous earth filters what do you use to measure pH phenol red what is oxidation in swimming pools The process of nitrogen based organics (snot, sweat, pee, feces, etc.) combining with the chlorine and then evaporating off. The large contaminants are filtered and everything else is oxidized. what causes hemolytic uremic syndrome E. coli O157:H7 what is the most important rule of food storage first in first out what is a sign of a fresh fish red gills, spoiled fish will have sunken eyes, elastic flesh and be gray in color when should alternative small wastewater systems be considered what is the most important element in preventing food borne illness training employees about personal hygiene where do you sample for radon in schools in stairwells with poor ventilation how is ozone created photochemically. Naturally, as sunlight passes through oxygen molecules, and by high voltage electricity (lightening). O + UV light what does sodium thiosulfate do to chlorine it neutralizes it. It destorys the free available chlorine present without effecting pH what is the difference between primary and secondary waste water treatment Primary sewage treatment is a physical process that removes large impurities and about 40% of BOD. while secondary sewage treatment is a biological process that removes organic matter of sewage through the action of microbes and removes about 45-55% of BOD Water is servicing 45 students, 9 months out of the year. What kind of community is this? Non-transient non-community water systems (NTNCWS) Going from house to house collecting sampled for data analysis? Quantitative census What is the best soil for septic systems? Sandy loam ? how do you recalibrate a pH meter? buffer solution A swimmer complains of a rash and burning skin after getting out of a hot tub or whirpool?, what microbe is responsible? pseudomonas aeruginosa What document lists whether a food establishment is following all health regulations Inspection form What is the amount of backfill required for sanitary landfill 24 inches What causes giardia? Protozoa You had five inspections to do today, but because you got pulled into some other work, you only have time to do one of them. Of those below, which should be the highest priority? Full-service restaurant that has buffet food and new ownership What is the legal principle that protects our rights? Due Process If you are the manager of a public pool, how many hours should you run the circulation pumps for? 24 hours What water source is unsuitable for a dry well? Laundry wastewater The main drain should have a grate that is __________ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects. four times What are the ideal levels for chlorine in a pool? 1-3 ppm Ideal pH range in a pool 7.2 - 7.8 The U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) emergency response guidebook can be used to Quickly identify the specific or generic classification of hazardous materials during the initial response phase of an incident Amoebic Dysentery is most likely caused by? Protozoan This system has 15 service connections used by year around-round residents. Or regularly serves 25 people year around. What type of water system is this> Community Water System A public water system that regularly supplies water to at least 25 of the same people at least six months per year. Some examples are schools, factories, office buildings, and hospitals which have their own water systems. What type of water system is this? Non-Transient Non-Community Water System (NTNCWS) False Utensils that are in continuous use must be washed, rinsed, and sanitized every: 4 hours backflow can be caused by either back pressure or back siphonage true two types of cross connections are direct and indirect direct cross connections are subject to back pressure true air gaps are subject to back flow false what are examples of backflow prevention devices air gap, atmospheric vacuum breaker, pressure vacuum breaker, and dual check valves or double check valve assembly why are air gaps important they are a physical separation that provides protection from back siphonage and back pressure Does a carbonator require a backflow prevention device ? yes food service equipment may be constructed of any material as long as it is smooth and easily cleanable false What can food service equipment be installed on on casters or mounted and sealed to the floor a large mixer can be washed, rinsed, and sanitized in place layout of equipment affects the flow of food in the establishment and the potential for cross contamination sanitization in a dish machine typically is achieved through one of these two methods low temp chemical or high temp final rinse what is the purpose of inspections of food facilities to reduce the occurrence of foodborne illness the concept of personal hygiene includes proper handwashing, no bare hand contact with RTE foods, an employee health policy that restricts and/or excludes sick employees, does active managerial control provide purposful incorporation of specific action or procedures by food service industry management into the operation of their business to attain control over foodborne illness risk factors yes inspectors should set an example during a food facility inspection by washing hands before they start the inspection and sanitizing their thermometer between foods. what is ciguatera a naturally occuring chemical hazard in large reef fish what are the types of hazards found in food physical, chemical, and biological What are the key factors that affect bacterial growth in food nutrients, acidity, temp, time, oxygen, and moisture critical limits must be measurable and verifiable what is an example of a critical limit cooking chicken to 165F for 15 sec what does hazard analysis involve identification of biological hazards inherent with a specific food Bacillus cereus is an example of spore forming bacteria what is the filtration step in water treatment once the floc has settled to the bottom of the water supply, the clear water on top will pass through filters of varying compositions and pore sizes, in order to remove dissolved particles, such as dust, parasites, bacteria, viruses, and chemicals what is the disinfection step in water treatment process Define PPE level C concentrations and types of airborne substances is known and the criteria for using air purifying respirators are met Define PPE level D nuisance level contaminants and offers minimal protection. What is SARA Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act: major focus on hazardous waste site clean up, establish national baseline with regard to planning, response, management, and training for chemical emergencies Title I and Title III What is SARA Title III? Emergency Planning, Community, Right-to-know act (EPCRA) which mandates the establishment of state and local planning groups specifically to review or develop hazardous materials response plan. Also requires national response team to develop guidance documents to assist in the preparation and implementation of emergency plans. What is SARA Title 1? required OSHA to establish training requirements for hazardous waste operations and emergency response personnel What does OSHA stand for and what do they do? Occupational Safety & Health Administration >OSHA prevents work-related injuries, illnesses, & deaths. Also established regulations governing the selection, use, and care of respiratory protection. What is NIOSH and what do they do? National Institute of Occupational Health & Safety. Handle research and set the standards for health and safety. established a respiratory equipment evaluation and certification program. this program is dedicated toward improving the quality and reliability of respirators What is ANSI, and what do they do? American National Standards Institute, they create official standards for networking procedures. Committee established to investigate, research, and report on various of respiratory protection. What diseases do Ades mosquitoes transmit chikungunya, dengue fever, rift valley fever, yellow fever, zika What disease does Anopheles mosquito carry/ transmit malaria what diseases does Culex mosquitos carry/ transmit Japanese encephalitis, lymphatic filariasis, and west nile fever Shorter the wavelength higher frequency, higher energy Longer the wavelength lower frequency, lower energy what is non-ionizing radiation series of energy waves composed of oscillating electric magnetic fields traveling at the speed of light Non-ionizing radiation the spectrum of ultraviolet (UV) light what is ionizing radiation a charged portion of a molecule (usually an electron) is given enough energy to break away from the atom this process results in the formation of 2 charged particles or ions: the molecule with a net positive charge, and the free electron with a negative charge all ionizing radiation is capable, directly or indirectly of removing elections from molecules the energy of ionizing radiation is measured in electron volts (EV). isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but different masses different types of ionizing radiation alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, x-rays, neutrons the rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in curies What does RAD mean radiation absorbed dose what does REM mean Many MCLs and MCLGs for microbials and chemical contaminants, treatment requirements for several microbials, and monitoring and reporting requirments. What is TRUE about the potential consequences of a minor exposures above chemical MCL it is not usually a significant risk bc MCLs usually have large margins of safety why should all water supplies have periodic sanitary surveys Sanitary surveys can identify potential problems and help prevent quality and compliance problems, sanitary surveys are good way to become familiar with water suppliers and operators and to assist them, sanitary surveys are teaching tool that helps water suppliers understand their system and do a better job. what is TRUE about source water protection programs? they reduce risk and costs for water suppliers and they are an important part of the multiple barrier system what are states NOT permitted to do with respect to safe drinking water regulaiton produce regulations that are less stringent that EPA regulations What is TRUE about Ct values that indicate the concentration of time conditions theoretically required to achieve a particular log reduction of a microorganism at a particular temperature Ct is the product of disinfectant concentration in mg/L and contact time in minutes at a particular temperature What is true about total coliforms and E.coli detection of E.coli probably indicates contamination from sewage what is TRUE about excess nitrates and/or nitrites in drinking water Nitrates/ nitrites are often caused by sewage or fertilizer contamination, they are water soluble and will move through soils to contaminate groundwater, and infants 3-6 months old are at risk to methemoglobinemia from high nitrate or nitrite levels, especially if the water is also microbially contaminated. what is TRUE about waterborne disease occurrence? the risk of waterborne disease outbreaks seems to be reduced over the last many years in the US, untreated contaminated groundwater and distribution system problems have been most frequent recent causes of waterborne disease outbreaks What is TRUE about regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act MCLs are legally enforceable drinking water standards, MCLGs are health goals but not enforceable standards, and though MLCs could be higher than MCLG it is still 'safe' standard which of the following are correct statements about risk considerations in drinking water regulations development most chemicals have MCLGs calculated from No Observed Adverse Effects Levels (NOAELs) and include safety (uncertainty factors, genotoxic chemicals have MCLGs of zero and hypothetical cancer risk levels are calculated from mathematical models, and MCLs are set as close to the MCLGs as technically and economically feasible. what is TRUE about the lead and copper rule lead sampling is done in the home on 1 L first draw water samples that have been stagnant for at least 6 hours in the pipe what is correct about Drinking Water supplies they always have the potential risk of microbial contamination that must be managed and prevented why are indicator organisms rather than individual pathogens usually used as standards for water quality management indicators are easier and less expensive to monitory water quality, it would be necessary to monitor for dozens of individual pathogens, it is generally not necessary to know which specific pathogens might be present in the source water, but just that they are being controlled bacteria with the ability to live under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions are called: facultative bacteria The difference between the initial dissolved oxygen in a sample of water and the dissolved oxygen in a duplicate sample after a stated period of time is referred to as Biochemical Oxygen Demand what is NOT a disease/ infection associated with drinking contaminated water Hep D Nitrogen, Phosphorous, and Ammonia are chemical compounds that are commonly found in wastewater and are capable of contaminating groundwater supplies and aquatic environments. Collectively, these compounds are often referred to as Nutrients Which of the following measurements of water pollution is considered the best single-strength measure of polluted water containing degradable wastes BOD True Wastewater from toilets is what type of water? Blackwater two functions of a septic tank are to settle solids and to provide for anaerobic digestion Fats, oils, and greases floating on the surface inside a septic tank collectively form the _________ layer scum a biomat: Is made up of microbes feeding on the solids and wastes found at the gravel-soil interface in a soil absorption field Protozoa, fungi, nematodes, and rotifers are simple organisms and thus are NOT capable of reducing the complex organic matter found in wastewater to simpler forms False In a conventional onsite treatment and disposal system consisting of a septic tank and drain field, most of the biological treatment occurs in the: Soil Because septic tanks are so effective at treating wastewater, pumping of the tank only needs to be performed once every 10 years false Soil permeability is closely related to the openings or pore spaces in the soil. The size and amount of these pore spaces in a soil are MOST influenced by: soil texture The color that most always indicates the point at which the soil is saturated during wetter parts of the year is grey he soil particle that is sticky and plastic when wet is Clay The soil particle that is the smallest in size and has the slowest percolation rates is clay Identifying the type of vegetation (i.e trees and shrubs) found in a particular soil can be very helpful in determining that soil's suitability for onsite systems true what is not a common method for evaluating soils for onsite systems spectrometry test What are common methods for evaluating soils for onsite systems In-situ soil pits, borings, and percolations test Identifying the type of structures built in a particular soil can be very helpful in determining that soil's suitability for onsite systems False All of the following are good sources of information about soils and landscape features for particular parcels of land Natural Resource Conservation Service, Soil Survey Maps, and Geological Maps In general, soils are made up of minerals, gases, liquids and organic matter true Alternative (advanced) secondary treatment filters are considered for use with onsite wastewater treatment systems UNLESS impervious formations are found at a deep depth in the native soil Alternative (advanced) secondary treatment filters are considered for use with onsite wastewater treatment systems WITH space is limited and surface water supplies are inadequate, highly porous, sandy soils exist, and where high groundwater exists What are examples of attached-growth treatment system open-cell foam bio-filter and geo-textile filter What is NOT an example of an attached-growth treatment system activated sludge system Secondary treatment systems for onsite applications are designed to provide treatment that normally occurs in the soil column. According to the Food code, which includes a critical point that can be checked? Priority Putting waterborne disease investigation steps in order what is the vector for lyme disease Ixodes scapularis (deer tick) What is(are) the best way(s) to control mosquitoes? (you may select more than one answer choice) drain areas of standing water, apply pesticides to kill mosquito larva which mosquito is the major vector for yellow fever aedes aegypti What are the parts of IPM education, habitat source reduction, use of biological controls, use of mechanical controls, use of chemical controls, legislation if you touched a poison oak plant and developed itchy blisters, what substances caused that to happen urushiol what is the primary host of tularemia rabbits Rabies is a serious illness because: A. Once symptoms are observed the person will almost always die what is a zoonotic disease A disease that's spread from an animal to a human what is a vector an animal that passes a disease from animal to animal or humans or between humans where do Norway rats usually make their home A. In burrows in the ground How is Hantavirus transmitted? inhalation of mouse feces carried by deer mouse what are generally considered a poisonous or potentially poisonous plant rhubarb, pokeweed, rye what is the primary host of Psittacosis birds Which of the following makes up the majority of non-hazardous waste generated within the United States each year manufacturing waste The first American law passed to influence the disposal of solid waste was Rivers and Harbors Act This method is the primary means by which solid waste is disposed of within the United States landfill Which of the following waste streams are a component of Municipal Solid Waste residential refuse, commercial garbage, institutional trash According the US Environmental Protection Agency, the average American generates approximately how much waste per day 4.6 pounds This is the preferred method of solid waste management reduce Americans currently "recycle" __________ percent of their waste annually. 30% This method allows Americans to "Reuse" up to 25% of their discarded waste composting "Waste to Energy" facilities can effectively reduce MSW volume up to 90% This gas, a by-product of decomposition, is mostly released from landfills methane This is utilized by landfills to limit vectors, fires, scavengers, odors, and the ilk daily covers Landfill liners, which can be up to 4 feet thick, are primarily constructed to protect groundwater After a landfill has stopped accepting waste, owners must ensure environmental safe operation for how long 30 years The primary costs associated with solid waste management are: collections National revenues associated with solid waste management are in the annual range of