Research and Statistics II - Liberty University, Exams of Business Economics

Download Research and Statistics II - Liberty University and more Exams Business Economics in PDF only on Docsity!   Research and Statistics II - Liberty University D - Correct answer 1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2 Exhibit: A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2 C - Correct answer 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to test are items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items. A. ii, iv and v. B. ii, iii and iv, C. i, ii and iv. D. i, iii and v. A - Correct answer 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks. B. Initiating corrective actions. C. Monitoring progress and test coverage. D. Measuring and analyzing results. A - Correct answer 4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications A. a, e and f B. a, c and d C. a, b and f D. a, d and e D - Correct answer 5: Which is a potential product risk factor A. Failure of third party vendor B. Training issues C. Problems requirements definition D. Poor software functionality B - Correct answer 6: Who typically use static analysis tools A. Customers and users B. Developers and designers C. Business and systems analysts D. System and acceptance testers A - Correct answer 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities A. Developers. B. Analysts. C. Testers. D. Incident Managers. C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location. D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations. B - Correct answer 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1 C - Correct answer 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width print "Length: " & length How many more test cases are required A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage. B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage. C. None, existing test cases can be used. D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage. C - Correct answer 18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove A. Usability defects found by customers B. Defects in infrequently used functionality C. Defects that were detected early D. Minor defects that were found by users A - Correct answer 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution A. Implementation and execution. B. Planning and control. C. Analysis and design. D. Test closure. A - Correct answer 20: Which of the following is TRUE A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects. A - Correct answer 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions Age <21 yrs 21-29 yrs 30-50yrs > 50yrs Insurance Class A A or B B. C or D C or D Actions Premium � 100 � 90 � 70 � 70 Excess � 2,500 � 2,500 � 500 A - Correct answer 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in an organization A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews A - Correct answer 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria A. To define when a test level is complete. B. To determine when a test has completed. C. To identify when a software system should be retired. D. To determine whether a test has passed. B - Correct answer 30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior thorough knowledge of the system A. Data driven testing technique B. Experience-based technique C. White-box technique D. Structure-based technique C - Correct answer 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated A. Tool support for performance and monitoring. B. Tool support for static testing. C. Tool support for test execution and logging. D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests. B - Correct answer 32: Which activities form part of test planning i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions. A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false. A - Correct answer 33: Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes. Options: A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y. C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y. D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W. B - Correct answer 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component A. Black Box Techniques. B. White Box Techniques. C. Glass Box Techniques. D. Experience Based Techniques. D - Correct answer 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful A. Supporting reviews. B. Validating models of the software. C. Testing code executed in a special test harness. D. Enforcement of coding standards. D - Correct answer 36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently A. S4, T3, U2, V1 B. S1, T2, U3, V4 C. S2, T3, U1, V4 D. S3, T4, U2, V1 B - Correct answer 37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party A. Exploratory testing B. Independent testing C. Integration testing D. Interoperability testing C - Correct answer 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence A. It does not require familiarity with the code. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers. A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them. C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs. D. All of the above E - Correct answer 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: A. Deviations from standards, B. Requirement defects, C. Design defects, D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of the above. A - Correct answer 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective A. Identifying defects. B. Fixing defects. C. A. and B D. None of the above A - Correct answer 49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the specifications are outdated A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques B. Black-box and specification-based techniques C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing A - Correct answer 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well. B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result. C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. D. All of the above. D - Correct answer 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers): A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above. B - Correct answer 52: Poor software characteristics are A. Only Project risks B. Only Product risks C. Project risks and Product risks D. Project risks or Product risks C - Correct answer 53: System testing should investigate A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements B - Correct answer 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of A. System testing B. Acceptance testing C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing C - Correct answer 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off D - Correct answer 56: Which is not the testing objectives A. Finding defects B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information C. Preventing defects. D. Debugging defects A - Correct answer 57: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester A. Reviewing tests developed by others B. Writing a test strategy for the project C. Deciding what should be automated D. Writing test summary reports D - Correct answer 58: Which is not the project risks A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered D - Correct answer 68: Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the fundamental test process A. Initiating and planning B. Documenting r oot-causes C. Capturing lessons learned D. Planning and control C - Correct answer 69: Purpose of test design technique is A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases B - Correct answer 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions. B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person� s opinion, and ask for someone else� s opinion. C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion. D. Express an opinion that differs from the person� s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas. C - Correct answer 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method A. Heuristic testing approach B. Methodical testing approach C. Model based testing approach D. Process or standard compliant testing approach C - Correct answer 72: A software model that can't be used in functional testing A. Process flow model B. State transaction model C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model A - Correct answer 73: Arc testing is known as A. Branch testing B. Agile testing C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing D - Correct answer 74: The purpose of exit criteria is A. Define when to stop testing B. End of test level C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition D. All of the above C - Correct answer 75: Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software I. Setting aggressive schedule II. Integrating complex systems III. Allocating adequate resources IV. Failing to control changes A. I and II are true; III and IV are false B. II and IV are true; I and III are false C. I, II and IV are true; III is false D. I, II and III are true; IV is false B - Correct answer 76: Which sections are included as part of the test summary report W. Variances X. Comprehensive assessment Y. Evaluation Z. Summary of activities A. W, X and Y B. W, X, Y and Z C. W and X D. W, X and Z A - Correct answer 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit B. Find defects C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems D - Correct answer 78: Which is not a Component testing A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables C - Correct answer 79: Which test can be performed at all test levels A. System testing B. Operational testing C. Structural testing D. Integration testing D - Correct answer 80: Which is not the fundamental test process A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities C. Analysis and design D. None D. Usability Testing B - Correct answer 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect C - Correct answer 92: What can static analysis NOT find A. The use of a variable before it has been defined B. Unreachable ("dead") code C. Memory leaks D. Array bound violations A - Correct answer 93: White Box Techniques are also called as: A. Structural Testing B. Design Based Testin C. Error Guessing Technique D. Experience Based Technique A - Correct answer 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting A - Correct answer 95: Component Testing is also called as :- i. Unit Testing ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing . A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false B. i,ii,iii,iv are false C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false D. all of above is true C - Correct answer 96: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following items be recorded Sections a) Test incident report identifier b) Summary c) Incident description d) Impact Items 1. Impact on test plans 2. Unique identifier 3. Anomalies 4. Procedure step 5. Environment 6. References to other relevant documents A. a: 2; b: 4; c: 1, 3 and 5; d: 6 B. a: 2; b: 3; c: 4, 5 and 6; d: 1 C. a: 2; b: 6; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 1 D. a: 2; b: 1; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 6 B - Correct answer 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false C - Correct answer 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. i. Planning ii. Review Meeting iii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow Up A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi B - Correct answer 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is : A. System Level Testing B. Integration Level Testing C. Unit Level Testing D. Component Testing A - Correct answer 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:- A. Breadth Test and Depth Test B. Re-testing C. Confirmation Testing D. Sanity Testing C. Performance Testing D. Functionality Testing . 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review. A. Moderator. B. Scribe C. Author D. Manager result: - B - Correct answer . 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level result: - A - Correct answer . 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class A. BOOK B. Book C. Boo01k D. book result: - C color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> - Correct answer . 112: Which of the following are potential benefits of using test support tools - Correct answer A. Ensuring greater consistency and minimizing software project risks B. Reducing repetitive work and gaining easy access to test information C. Performing objective assessment and reducing the need for training D. Allowing for greater reliance on the tool to automate the test process result: - B . 113: Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a formal review - Correct answer A. Looking for defects occurs during kick-off phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase B. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Gathering metrics happens during the review meeting phase C. Distributing documents occurs during the planning phase Personal review happens during individual preparation phase D. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase result: - D . 114: A Project risk includes which of the following : A. Organizational Factors B. Poor Software characteristics C. Error Prone software delivered. D. Software that does not perform its intended functions result: - A - Correct answer . 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group B. Pre Meeting Preparations C. Formal Follow Up Process D. Includes Metrics result: - A - Correct answer D - Correct answer 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique A. Statement Testing and coverage B. Decision Testing and coverage C. Condition Coverage D. Boundary value analysis . 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :- A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting result: - B - Correct answer . 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to : i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false result: - C - Correct answer . 119: Incidents would not be raised against: A. Requirements B. Documentation C. Test cases D. Improvements suggested by users result: - D - Correct answer . 128: What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of failures in software - Correct answer A. Validation B. Testing C. Debugging D. Verification result: - C A - Correct answer 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase A. Requirements Phase. B. Analysis and Design Phase C. Development Phase D. Testing Phase . 130: Which of the following is a MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria - Correct answer A. Creating test suites and cases for efficient execution B. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders C. Handing the testware to the maintenance organization D. Identifying any required infrastructure and tools result: - B . 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance. A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% result: - D - Correct answer C - Correct answer 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called A. Regression testing B. Maintenance testing C. Confirmation testing D. None of the above B - Correct answer 133: Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report A. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system. B. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement. C. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign. D. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes. . 134: When to stop Testing - Correct answer A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected. C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors. D. None above result: - A . 135: Which of the following are success factors for reviews - Correct answer I. Clear objectives for each review. II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification. III. There is an emphasis on process improvement. IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed. A. I and III B. II, III and IV C. I, II and III D. IV result: - C D - Correct answer 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project A. Traditional system development B. Iterative development C. System maintenance D. Purchased/contracted software C - Correct answer 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed A. Severity B. Priority C. All of the above D. None of the above . 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting A. Reviewer B. Author C. Moderator D. Auditor result: - C - Correct answer C - Correct answer 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system is called as _____________ A. Regression Testing B. Exhaustive Testing C. Basic Path Testing D. Branch Testing . 140: Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team - Correct answer A. Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures. B. System, integration, unit, validation C. Unit, integration, validation, system D. None of the above result: - A D - Correct answer 148: During testing, a defect was found in which the system crashed when the network got disconnected while receiving data from the server. The defect was fixed by correcting functionality which checks the network availability during data transfer. Existing test cases did cover 100% of the module statements. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are mentioned above I. Functional testing II. Structural testing III. Confirmation testing IV. Performance testing A. I, III and IV B. I and III C. II and IV D. I, II and III . 149: What is a scripting technique that uses data files to contain not only test data and expected results, but also keywords related to the application being tested - Correct answer A. Automation technique B. Scripting language C. Process-driven testing D. Keyword-driven testing result: - D C - Correct answer 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are A. Speed & efficiency B. Accuracy & precision C. All of the above D. None of the above . 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or types randomly. A. Random testing B. Gorilla testing C. Adhoc testing D. Dumb monkey testing result: - D face=Arial> - Correct answer . 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an application system is called A. Checklist B. Checkpoint review C. Decision table D. Decision tree result: - A - Correct answer C - Correct answer 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called A. Black-box testing B. Glass-box testing C. Grey-box testing D. White-box testing B - Correct answer 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions executed by the test case designed is called A. Condition coverage B. Decision/Condition coverage C. Decision Coverage D. Branch coverage . 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications. A. Test Summary report B. Test Log C. Test Incident Report D. Test Script result: - C - Correct answer B - Correct answer 156: Which test investigates both functional and non-functional system requirements A. Alpha testing B. System testing C. Acceptance testing D. Confirmation testing D - Correct answer 157: Which test ensures that modifications did not introduce new problems A. Stress testing B. Black-box testing C. Structural testing D. Regression testing . 158: Which of the following are potential benefits of adding tools to the test process - Correct answer I. Reduction of repetitive testing procedures. II. Ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills. III. Ability to get an objective assessment of progress. IV. Greater consistency in testing procedures. A. II, III and IV B. I, III and IV D. Documenting lessons learned and determining the root cause of problems result: - D B - Correct answer 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations A. Functional testing B. Structural Testing C. All of the above D. None of the above A - Correct answer 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features A. Gray Box Testing B. Hybrid Testing C. A. & B. D. None . 169: Which of the following are the main stages of a formal review - Correct answer A. Initiation, Preparation, Informal Review Meeting, Status, Rework, and Follow up. B. Planning, Preparation, Technical Review, Rework, and Closure. C. Preparation, Inspection, Rework, Closure, and Follow up. D. Planning, Kick off, Individual Preparation, Review Meeting, Rework, and Follow up. result: - D . 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and features. A. Incident management tools B. Requirements management tools C. Configuration management tools D. None result: - B - Correct answer . 171: Which of the following are success factors when rolling out a new tool - Correct answer I. Roll the tool out to the entire organization to ensure reasonably even coverage. II. Avoid changing existing processes to reduce impact of the tool. 0in 0in 0pt" class=MsoBodyText>III. Provide training and mentoring to new users. IV. Allow users to determine where the tool fits into the process best. A. I and II B. I, III and IV C. III D. IV result: - C . 172: As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle � covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact - Correct answer A. It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail. B. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources on Subsystem A. C. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing. D. We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly. result: - A . 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing - Correct answer A. Determine the productivity of programmers B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance C. Eliminate every error prior to release D. Uncover software errors result: - D . 174: Failure is _________ A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program B. Bug found before product Release C. Bug found after product Release D. Bug found during Design phase result: - A - Correct answer . 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start - Correct answer A. When the code is complete. B. When the design is complete. C. When the software requirements have been approved. D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing result: - C . 176: "How much testing is enough - Correct answer " A. This question is impossible to answer B. This question is easy to answer C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers result: - C D - Correct answer 177: Which approaches can help increase the quality of software I. Incorporating rigorous testing . 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data. A. Stub B. Driver C. Proxy D. None of the above result: - B - Correct answer . 186: Pick the best definition of quality A. - Correct answer uality is job one B. Zero defects C. Conformance to requirements D. Work as designed result: - C - Correct answer B - Correct answer 187: Boundary value testing A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes C. Tests combinations of input circumstances D. Is used in white box testing strategy . 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field are A. 0,1900,2004,2005 B. 1900, 2004 C. 1899,1900,2004,2005 D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005 result: - C - Correct answer C - Correct answer 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other: if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi if (Condition 2) then statement 3 fi A. 2 Test Cases B. 3 Test Cases C. 4 Test Cases D. Not achievable A - Correct answer 190: A common test technique during component test is A. Statement and branch testing B. Usability testing C. Security testing D. Performance testing . 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who A. Takes minutes of the meeting B. Mediates between people C. Takes telephone calls D. Writes the documents to be reviewed result: - B - Correct answer . 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what - Correct answer A. Requirements B. Design C. Code D. Decision table result: - A . 193: Which documents specify features to - be tested, approach, and pass / fail criteria - Correct answer A. Test plan and test design specification B. Test plan and test case specification C. Test procedure specification and test design specification D. Test case specification and test procedure specification result: - A . 194: Independent Verification & Validation is A. Done by the Developer B. Done by the Test Engineers C. Done By Management D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project� s sphere of influence result: - D - Correct answer . 195: Defect Management process does not include A. Defect prevention B. Deliverable base-lining C. Management reporting D. None of the above result: - D - Correct answer . 196 What is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together - Correct answer A. Test procedure specification B. Test level C. Test case specification D. Test plan result: - B D. Test plan result: - A . 205: Inspections can find all the following except A. Variables not defined in the code B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents D. How much of the code has been covered result: - D - Correct answer . 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability - Correct answer A. Operability B. Observability C. Simplicity D. Robustness result: - D . 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs - Correct answer A. 10-20 B. 40-50 C. 70-80 D. 5-10 result: - B B - Correct answer 208: Which tool can be used to support and control part of the test management process A. Coverage management tool B. Test management tool C. Data preparation tool D. Performance testing tool . 209: If an expected result is not specified then: A. We cannot run the test B. It may be difficult to repeat the test C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed D. We cannot automate the user inputs result: - C - Correct answer . 210: When should we stop our testing - Correct answer A. This question is difficult to answer B. The answer depends on the contract with the client, special requirements if any & risks your organization is willing to take C. The answer depends on the experience & maturity of your developers D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry result: - B D - Correct answer 211: The purpose of requirement phase is A. To freeze requirements B. To understand user needs C. To define the scope of testing D. All of the above D - Correct answer 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology A. Simple Loops B. Nested Loops C. Concatenated Loops D. All of the above A - Correct answer 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method. A. White box B. Black box C. Green box D. Yellow box . 214: A reliable system will be one that: A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule B. Is unlikely to cause a failure C. Is likely to be fault-free D. Is likely to be liked by the users result: - B - Correct answer . 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester - Correct answer A. Being diplomatic B. Able to write software C. Having good attention to detail D. Able to be relied on result: - B B - Correct answer 216: A regression test: A. Will always be automated B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing . 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of A. Interim Test report B. Final test report C. Project status report D. Management report result: - C - Correct answer . 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called: A. Top-down integration B. Bottom-up integration C. None of the above D. Module integration result: - B - Correct answer B. 9999, 50000, 100000 C. 10000, 50000, 99999 D. 10000, 99999 E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000 result: - C - Correct answer . 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called: A. An error B. A fault C. A failure D. A defect E. A mistake result: - C - Correct answer . 229: Which of the following can be tested as part of operational testing - Correct answer A. Component interaction B. Probe effect C. State transition D. Disaster recovery result: - D . 230: Given the following: Switch PC on Start "outlook" IF outlook appears THEN Send an email Close outlook A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage result: - B - Correct answer . 231: Test managers should not: A. Report on deviations from the project plan B. Sign the system off for release C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement result: - C color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> - Correct answer E - Correct answer 232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing: A. Business process-based testing B. Performance, load and stress testing C. Requirements-based testing D. Usability testing E. Top-down integration testing . 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool C. The independent testing team D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts result: - B - Correct answer C - Correct answer 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing: A. Measuring response time B. Measuring transaction rates C. Recovery testing D. Simulating many users E. Generating many transactions . 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan: A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs D. To know when test planning is complete E. To plan when to stop testing result: - E - Correct answer . 236: Given the following code, which is true: IF A > B THEN C = A � B ELSE C = A + B ENDIF Read D IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage result: - B - Correct answer A - Correct answer 237: Unreachable code would best be found using: A. Code reviews B. Code inspections C. A coverage tool D. A test management tool E. A static analysis tool C. 5 D. 4 A - Correct answer 245: Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false: A. Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique B. White box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique D. Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique E. White box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique . 246: Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing: A. No, because they apply to development documentation B. No, because they are normally applied before testing C. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality E. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities result: - D - Correct answer D - Correct answer 247:The main focus of acceptance testing is: A. Finding faults in the system B. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users C. Testing the system with other systems D. Testing for a business perspective E. Testing by an independent test team . 248: Which of the following can help testers understand the root causes of defects from previous projects - Correct answer A. Ishikawa diagram B. Cause-and-effect diagram C. Lessons learned D. Fishbone diagram result: - C C - Correct answer 249: Which technique is appropriate to test changes on old and undocumented functionalities of a system A. Specification-based technique B. Black-box technique C. White-box technique D. Data driven testing technique B - Correct answer 250: Non-functional system testing includes: A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function E. Testing for functions that should not exist C - Correct answer 251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique: A. Equivalence partitioning B. State transition testing C. LCSAJ D. Syntax testing E. Boundary value analysis . 252: Expected results are: A. Only important in system testing B. Only used in component testing C. Never specified in advance D. Most useful when specified in advance E. Derived from the code result: - D - Correct answer . 254: Consider the following: Pick up and read the newspaper Look at what is on television If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword A. SC = 1 and DC = 1 B. SC = 1 and DC = 2 C. SC = 1 and DC = 3 D. SC = 2 and DC = 2 E. SC = 2 and DC = 3 result: - E - Correct answer A - Correct answer 255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT: A. Generating expected outputs B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes D. Recording test inputs E. Reading test values from a data file . 256: Consider the following statements about early test design: i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii. Early test design can find faults iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements v. Early test design takes more effort A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false D. Individual Meeting preparations result: - A - Correct answer . 263: Peer Reviews are also called as : A. Inspection B. Walkthrough C. Technical Review D. Formal Review result: - C - Correct answer . 264: Validation involves which of the following i. Helps to check the - Correct answer uality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness. A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true. B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false. result: - B - Correct answer . 265: Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct D. ii is correct result: - A - Correct answer B - Correct answer 266: Which test measures the system at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements A. Structural testing B. Stress testing C. Error guessing D. Black-box testing A - Correct answer 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect D. iv, ii is correct B - Correct answer 268: Which defect can typically be discovered using a static analysis tool A. Inconsistencies in numerical calculations B. Programming standards violations C. Problems related to system usability D. Internal and external system reliability . 269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique - Correct answer A. State transition testing B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) C. Syntax testing D. Boundary value analysis result: - B A - Correct answer 270: Features of White Box Testing Technique: i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality. A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false . 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as A. Configuration Control B. Status Accounting C. Configuration Identification D. Configuration Identification result: - A face=Arial> - Correct answer . 272: The selection of a test approach should consider the context: i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team A. i,ii,iii,iv are true B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false. A. Moderator. B. Scribe C. Author D. Manager result: - B - Correct answer . 281: In case of Large Systems : A. Only few tests should be run B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed. D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed. result: - B - Correct answer D - Correct answer 282: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases Rule1 Rule2 Rule3 Rule4 Conditions Citibank Card Member Yes Yes No No Type of Room Silver Platinum Silver Platinum Actions Offer upgrade To Gold Luxury Yes No No No Offer upgrade to Silver N/A Yes N/A No A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room A. A Don't offer any upgrade, B Don't offer any upgrade. B. A Don't offer any upgrade, B Offer upgrade to Gold. C. A Offer upgrade to Silver, B Offer upgrade to Silver. D. A Offer upgrade to Gold, B Don't offer any upgrade. A - Correct answer 283: Which typical defects are easier to find using static instead of dynamic testing L. Deviation from standards M. Requirements defects N. Insufficient maintainability O. Incorrect interface specifications A. L, M, N and O B. L and N C. L,N and O D. L,M and N . 284: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded - Correct answer a) Test incident report identifier b) Summary c) Incident description d) Impact 1. Expected results 2. Actual results 3. Procedure step 4. Environment 5. Revision level 6. Date and time A. a: 3; b: 5; c: 1, 2, 4 and 6 B. b: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 C. b: 5 and 6; c: 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. a: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 result: - B C - Correct answer 285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component: A. Re Testing B. Confirmation Testing C. Regression Testing D. Negative Testing C - Correct answer 286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid state transition A. OFF to ON B. ON to OFF C. FAULT to ON . 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing: A. User Acceptance Test Cases B. Integration Level Test Cases C. Unit Level Test Cases D. Program specifications result: - A - Correct answer A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2 result: - C - Correct answer . 295: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b result: - D - Correct answer . 296: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities - Correct answer i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false D. All of above are true result: - C . 297: What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems constructively" represent - Correct answer A. Preventive testing and reactive testing B. Experience-based testing and interoperability testing C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills D. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships result: - C . 298: Which test is OFTEN the responsibility of the customers or users of the system - Correct answer A. Usability testing B. Functional testing C. Maintenance testing D. Acceptance testing result: - D A - Correct answer 299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis: A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis. B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed. C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing. D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed. . 300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class - Correct answer A. $5800; $28000; $32000 B. $0; $200; $4200 C. $5200; $5500; $28000 D. $28001; $32000; $35000 result: - A . 301: Cost of the reviews will not include. A. Review process itself B. Metrics analysis C. Tool support. D. Process improvement. result: - C - Correct answer C - Correct answer 302: Regression testing always involves A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed. B. Executing a large number of different tests. C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects. D. Using a test automation tool. D - Correct answer 303: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______ A. Performance testing B. Recovery testing C. GUI testing D. User requirements. A - Correct answer 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers A. Dynamic analysis tool B. Static Analysis tool. C. Maintenance tool. D. Configuration tool. . 305: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program B. Number of binary decisions + 1 C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once D. Number of branches and decisions result: - B - Correct answer . 306: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan. C - Correct answer 313: How are error guessing and exploratory testing similar A. Both are widely used formal techniques B. Both are white-box test design techniques C. Both are experience-based testing D. Both are effective at all testing levels . 314: What technique would be MOST appropriate to check status changes based on certain events - Correct answer A. State transition B. Equivalence partitioning C. Boundary value analysis D. Decision table result: - A A - Correct answer 315: In a formal review, who is primarily responsible for the documents to be reviewed A. Author B. Manager C. Moderator D. Reviewers . 316: What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution - Correct answer A. System integration B. Functional testing C. Non-functional testing. D. Requirements testing result: - C . 317: Which of the following are false - Correct answer A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved. B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ. C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement. D. An incident can be raised against documentation. result: - C . 318: Testing is not done to ______ A. Find faults B. Improve quality C. Check user friendliness. D. Improve software accuracy result: - D - Correct answer . 319: A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true - Correct answer A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system. B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed. C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested. D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release. result: - C . 320: People who don� t participate in technical reviews A. Analysts B. Management C. Developers D. Testers result: - B - Correct answer . 321: What is failure - Correct answer A. Deviation from expected result to actual result B. Defect in the software. C. Error in the program code. D. Fault in the system. result: - A color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> A - Correct answer 322: Which test support tool can be used to enforce coding standards A. Static analysis tool B. Performance testing tool C. Test comparator D. Test management tool . 323: Which of the following is least important in test management - Correct answer A. Estimating test duration. B. Incident Management. C. Configuration Management. D. De-bugging. result: - D C - Correct answer 324: A standard for software testing terminology is: A. IEEE 802.11 B. ISO 9001 C. BS 7925-1 D. BS 7925-2 . 325: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing - Correct answer A. Use of automated test execution tools. B. Testing performed by users. C. Testing against acceptance test criteria. D. Integration of system with user documentation. result: - A . 326: Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST - Correct answer A. Test management B. Test design C. Test planning D. Test execution result: - D C. The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc D. None of the above result: - C . 336: Which set of test data demonstrates equivalence partitioning to check whether a customer is a teenager or not - Correct answer A. 10, 15 and 19 years B. 13, 19 and 25 years C. 13, 16 and 19 years D. 12, 13 and 20 years result: - D . 337: Which technique if OFTEN considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning - Correct answer A. Decision table testing B. State transition testing C. Use case testing D. Boundary value analysis result: - D D - Correct answer 338: Software testing activities should start A. As soon as the code is written B. During the design stage C. When the requirements have been formally documented D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle . 339: A company by the name Software Testing Genius Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Software Testing Genius Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3-day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true - Correct answer A. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience B. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate C. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes D. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool. result: - A . 340: A test design technique is A. A process for selecting test cases B. A process for determining expected outputs C. A way to measure the quality of software D. A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done result: - A - Correct answer D - Correct answer 341: What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it A. To show that system will work after release B. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release C. To find as many bugs as possible before release D. To give information for a risk based decision about release . 342: Testware(test cases, test dataset) A. Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or use D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system result: - A - Correct answer B - Correct answer 343: Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing A. IEEE829 B. IEEE610 C. BS7925-1 D. BS7925-2 . 344: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report - Correct answer a) Test summary and report identifier b) Comprehensive assessment c) Summary of results d) Evaluation e) Observers f) Approvals A. a, b, c, d and e B. a, b, c, e and f C. a, c, d, e and f D. a, b, c, d and f result: - D . 345: What analysis determines which parts of the software have been executed - Correct answer A. Impact analysis B. Code coverage C. Gap analysts D. Cyclomatic complexity result: - B . 346: Which of the following is not the integration strategy - Correct answer A. Design based B. Big-bang C. Bottom-up D. Top-down result: - A D. Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing result: - B - Correct answer A - Correct answer 356: Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test A. State-Transition B. Usability C. Performance D. Security D - Correct answer 357: Which of the following is the component test standard A. IEEE 829 B. IEEE 610 C. BS7925-1 D. BS7925-2 . 358: A program validates a numeric field as follows: Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions - Correct answer A. 10,11,21 B. 3,20,21 C. 3,10,22 D. 10,21,22 result: - C A - Correct answer 359: Which of the following are KEY tasks of a test leader i. Understanding the project risks ii. Measuring performance of components iii. Scheduling tests and other activities iv. Using monitoring tools as needed A. i and iii B. i and ii C. iii and iv D. ii and iii A - Correct answer 360: Which of the following is a static test A. Code inspection B. Coverage analysis C. Usability assessment D. Installation test . 361: A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be: A. Large B. Small C. Difficult to write D. Difficult to test result: - D size=2 face=Arial> - Correct answer D - Correct answer 362: Which of the following is the odd one out A. White box B. Glass box C. Structural D. Functional . 363: Which of the following techniques are black box techniques - Correct answer A. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing B. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing C. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning D. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing result: - B A - Correct answer 364: What is the KEY difference between black-box and white-box testing A. Black-box is functional; white-box is structural B. Black-box is functional; white-box is non-functional C. Black-box has a wider statement coverage than white-box D. Black-box can only be performed after white-box C - Correct answer 365: What technique captures system requirements that contain logical conditions A. Boundary value B. Equivalence partition C. Decision table D. State transition . 366: What makes an inspection different from other review types - Correct answer A. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists B. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected C. It can only be used for reviewing design and code D. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement result: - A . 367: Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases - Correct answer A. Because it is an industry standard B. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the � edges� of the range of values C. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test cases D. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits result: - B