RHIT Exam Prep Practice Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Download RHIT Exam Prep Practice Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! RHIT EXAM PREP PRACTICE QUESTIONS and answers latest updated 2024/2025. (113) If a patient has an excision of a malignant lesion of the skin, the CPT code is determined by the body area from which the excision occurs and which of the following? A) Length of the lesion as described in the pathology report B) Dimension of the specimen submitted as described in the pathology report C) Width times the length of the lesion as described in the operative report D) Diameter of the lesion as well as the margins excised as described in the operative report - answers D) Diameter of the lesion as well as the margins excised as described in the operative report (114) According to CPT, a repair of a laceration that includes retention sutures would be considered what type of closure? A) Complex B) Intermediate C) Not specified D) Simple - answers A) Complex (115) The patient was admitted with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. The physician documents the following on the discharge summary: acute cholecystitis, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. Which of the following would be the correct coding and sequencing for this case? A) Acute cholecystitis, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain B) Abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea, acute cholecystitis C) Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain D) Acute cholecystitis - answers D) Acute cholecystitis (116) A patient is admitted with spotting. She had been treated two weeks previously for a miscarriage with sepsis. The sepsis had resolved, and she is afebrile at this time. She is treated with an aspiration dilation and curettage. Products of conception are found. Which of the following should be the principal diagnosis? A) Miscarriage B) Complications of spontaneous abortion with sepsis C) Sepsis D) Spontaneous abortion with sepsis - answers A) Miscarriage (117) An 80-year-old female is admitted with fever, lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and elevated WBC. The patient has more than 100,000 organisms of Escherichia coli per cc of urine. The attending physician documents "urosepsis". How should this case be coded? A) Code sepsis as the principal diagnosis with urinary tract infection due to E.coli as secondary diagnosis B) Code urinary tract infection with sepsis as the principal diagnosis C) Query the physician to ask if the patient has septicemia because of the symptomatology D) Query the physician to ask if the patient had septic shock so that this may be used as the principal diagnosis - answers C) Query the physician to ask if the patient has septicemia because of the symptomatology (118) The practice of using a code that results in a higher payment to the provider than the code that actually reflects the service or item provided is known as: A) Unbundling B) Upcoding C) Medically unnecessary services D) Billing for services not provided - answers B) Upcoding (119) A 65 year-old patient with a history of lung cancer is admitted to a healthcare facility with ataxia and syncope and a fractured arm as a result of falling. The patient undergoes a closed reduction of the fracture in the emergency department as well as a complete workup for metastatic carcinoma of the brain. The patient is found to have metastatic carcinoma of the lung to the brain and undergoes radiation therapy to the brain. Which of the following would be the principal diagnosis in this case? A) Ataxia B) Fractured arm C) Metastatic carcinoma of the brain D) Carcinoma of the lung - answers C) Metastatic carcinoma of the brain (120) A patient was admitted for abdominal pain with diarrhea and was diagnosed with infectious gastroenteritis. The patient also had angina and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would be the correct coding and sequencing for this case? A) Abdominal pain; infectious gastroenteritis; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina B) Infectious gastroenteritis; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina C) Gastroenteritis; abdominal pain; angina D) Gastroenteritis; abdominal pain; diarrhea; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina - answers B) Infectious gastroenteritis; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; angina (133) Which of the following is the planned replacement for ICD-9-CM Volumes 1 and 2? A) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) B) 'International Classification of Diseases', Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD- 10-CM and ICD-10-PCS) C) 'International Classification of Diseases', Tenth Revision (ICD-10) D) 'International Classification of Diseases', Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD- 10-CM) - answers D) 'International Classification of Diseases', Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) (134) Which organization originally published ICD-10? A) American Medical Association B) Centers for Disease Control C) United States federal government D) World Health Organization - answers D) World Health Organization (135) When reporting an encounter for a patient who is HIV positive but has never had any symptoms, the following code is assigned: A) B20, Human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] disease B) Z21, Asymptomatic HIV infection status C) Z21, Asymptomatic human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] infection status D) Z20.6, Contact with and (suspected) exposure to human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] - answers B) Z21, Asymptomatic HIV infection status (136) Identify the two-digit modifier that may be reported to indicate a physician performed the postoperative management of a patient but another physician performed the surgical procedure. A) -22, Increased procedural services B) -54, Surgical care only C) -32, Mandated service D) -55, Postoperative management only - answers D) -55, Postoperative management only (137) Assign the correct CPT code for the following procedure: Revision of the pacemaker skin pocket A) 33223, Relocation of skin pocket for cardioverter-defibrillator B) 33210, Insertion or replacement of temporary transvenous single chamber cardiac electrode or pacemaker catheter (separate procedure) C) 33212, Insertion of a pacemaker pulse generator only; with existing single lead D) 33222, Relocation of skin pocket for pacemaker - answers D) 33222, Relocation of skin pocket for pacemaker (138) The ICD-10-CM utilizes a placeholder character at certain codes to allow for future expansion of the classification system. What letter is used to represent this placeholder character? A) A B) G C) U D) X - answers D) X (139) Assign the correct CPT code for the following: A 63 year-old female had a temporal artery biopsy completed in the outpatient surgical center. A) 32405, Biopsy, lung or mediastinum, percutaneous needle B) 37609, Ligation or biopsy, temporal artery C) 20206, Biopsy, muscle percutaneous needle D) 31629, Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, including fluoroscopic guidance, when performed; with transbronchial needles aspiration biopsy(s), trachea, mainstem and/or lobar bronchus(i) - answers B) Ligation or biopsy, temporal artery (140) In ICD-10-PCS, the root operation defined as taking or letting out fluids and/or gases from a body part is: A) Control B) Drainage C) Excision D) Release - answers B) Drainage (141) A physician query may not be appropriate in which of the following instances? A) Diagnosis of viral pneumonia noted in the progress notes and sputum cultures showing Haemophilus influenzae B) Discharge summary indicates chronic renal failure but the progress notes documents acute renal failure throughout the stay C) Acute respiratory failure in a patient whose lab report findings appear not to support this diagnosis D) Diagnosis of chest pain and abnormal cardiac enzymes indicative of an AMI - answers C) Acute respiratory failure in a patient whose lab report findings appear not to support this diagnosis (142) Which of the following provides a system for coding the clinical procedures and services provided by physicians and other clinical professionals? A) Current Procedural Terminology B) 'Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders', Fourth Revision C) Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System D) 'International Classification of Diseases', Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification - answers A) Current Procedural Terminology (143) Which of the following conditions are included on the hospital-acquired conditions provision list? A) Pressure ulcers, Staphylococcus infections, gunshot wounds B) Staphylococcus infections, air embolism, physical and substance abuse C) Catheter-associated urinary tract infections, gunshot wounds D) Pressure ulcers, catheter-associated urinary tract infections, falls and fractures - answers D) Pressure ulcers, catheter-associated urinary tract infections, falls and fractures (144) The coding manager at Community Hospital is seeing an increased number of physicians failing to document the cause and effect of diabetes and its manifestations. Which of the following will provide the most comprehensive solution to handle this documentation issue? A) Have coders continue to query the attending physician for this documentation B) Present this information at the next medical staff meeting to inform physicians on documentation standards and guidelines C) Do nothing because coding compliance guidelines do not allow any action D) Place all offending physicians on suspension if the documentation issues continue - answers B) Present this information at the next medical staff meeting to inform physicians on documentation standards and guidelines (145) Which of the following elements of coding quality represent the degree to which codes accurately reflect the patient's diagnoses and procedures? A) Reliability B) Validity C) Completeness D) Timeliness - answers B) Validity (146) A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute lower abdominal pain. The principal diagnosis is acute appendicitis. The patient also has a diagnosis of diabetes. The patient undergoes an appendectomy and subsequently develops two wound infections. In the DRG system, which of the following could be considered a comorbid condition? A) Acute appendicitis B) Appendectomy C) Diabetes D) Wound infection - answers C) Diabetes (150) Which of the following is the condition established after study to be the reason for hospitalization? B) Report the practice to the OIG C) Counsel the coder and stop the practice immediately D) Put the coder on unpaid leave of absence - answers C) Counsel the coder and stop the practice immediately (162) The National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) was developed to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment for: A) Part A Medicare claims B) Part B Medicare claims C) Medicaid claims D) Medicare and Medicaid claims - answers B) Part B Medicare claims (163) The function of the NCCI editor is to: A) Report poor performing physicians B) Identify procedures and services that cannot be billed together on the same day of service for a patient C) Identify poor performing coders D) Identify problems in the national coding system - answers B) Identify procedures and services that cannot be billed together on the same day of service for a patient (164) NCCI edit files contain code pairs, called mutually exclusive edits, that prevent payment for: A) Services that cannot reasonably be billed together B) Services that are components of a more comprehensive procedure C) Unnecessary procedures D) Comprehensive procedures - answers A) Services that cannot reasonably be billed together (165) The evaluation of coders is recommended at least quarterly for the purpose of measurement and assurance of: A) Speed B) Data quality and integrity C) Accuracy D) Effective relationships with physicians and facility personnel - answers B) Data quality and integrity (166) Quality standards for coding accuracy should be: A) At least 90 percent B) At least 95 percent C) As close to 100 percent as possible D) No specific standards are possible - answers C) As close to 100 percent as possible (167) The acute-care hospital discharges an average of 55 patients per day. The HIM department is open during normal business hours only. The volume productivity standard is six records per hour when coding 4.5 hours per day. Assuming that the standards are met, how many FTE coders does the facility need to have on staff in order to ensure that there is no backlog? A) 2.85 B) 5 C) 14.26 D) 27 - answers A) 2.85 (168) A coder notes that the patient is taking prescribed Haldol. The final diagnoses on the progress notes include diabetes mellitus, acute pharyngitis, and malnutrition. What condition might the coder suspect the patient has and should query the physician? A) Insomnia B) Hypertension C) Mental or behavioral problems D) Rheumatoid arthritis - answers C) Mental or behavior problems (169) Mary Patient presented to the emergency department with chest pains and shortness of breath. She was treated for congestive heart failure and returned home. Two days later, her symptoms had worsened. She presented again to the emergency department and was admitted to the hospital for inpatient treatment of congestive heart failure. The hospital will bill Medicare for: A) Two emergency department visits as an outpatient service and the inpatient visit under MS-DRGs B) One inpatient visit under MS-DRGs C) One emergency department visit as an outpatient service and one inpatient visit under MS-DRGs D) Two emergency department visits as an outpatient service and the inpatient visit at a reduced rate under MS-DRGs - answers B) One inpatient visit under MS-DRGs (170) The coding supervisor has compiled a report on the number of coding errors made each day by the coding staff. The report data show that Tim makes an average of six errors per day, Jane makes an average of five errors per day , and Bob and Susan each make an average of two errors per days. Given this information, what actions should the coding supervisor make? A) Counsel Tim and Jane because they have the highest error rates B) Encourage Tim and Jane to get additional training C) Provide Bob and Susan with incentive pay for a low coding error rate D) Take no action because not enough information is given to make a judgment - answers D) Take no action because not enough information is given to make a judgment (172) The practice of undercoding can affect a hospital's MS-DRG case mix in which of the following ways? A) Makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility B) Makes it higher than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility C) Does not affect the hospital's MS-DRG case mix D) Coding has nothing to do with a hospital's MS-DRG case mix - answers A) Makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility (173) Which condition is not included on the hospital-acquired conditions provision list for FY 2009? A) Pressure ulcers B) Staphylococcus infections C) Catheter associated urinary tract infections D) Air embolism - answers B) Staphylococcus infections (174) When multiple burns are present, the first sequenced diagnosis is the: A) Burn that is treated surgically B) Burn that is closer to the head C) Highest-degree burn D) Burn that is treated first - answers C) Highest-degree burn (175) A coding professional may assume a cause-and-effect relationship between hypertension and which of the following complications? A) Hypertension and heart disease B) Hypertension and chronic kidney disease C) Hypertension and heart and chronic kidney disease D) Hypertension and coronary artery disease - answers B) hypertension and chronic kidney disease (176) A patient known to have AIDS is admitted to the hospital for treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Assign the principal diagnosis for this patient: A) B20 Human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] disease B) J18.9, Pneumonia, unspecified organism C) B59, Pneumocytosis D) Z21, Asymptomatic human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] infection staus - answers A) B20, Human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] disease A) Echocardiogram B) Fall from curb C) Adenocarcinoma D) Admission for plastic surgery - answers B) Fall from curb (190) The physician documents that she changed the cardiac pacemaker battery. In CPT, the battery is called a(n): A) Generator B) Electrode C) Dual System D) Cardioverter - answers A) Generator (191) A patient is scheduled for an outpatient colonoscopy, but due to a sudden drop in blood pressure, the procedure is cancelled just as the scope is introduced into the rectum. Because of moderately sever mental retardation, the patient is given general anesthetic prior to the procedure. How should this procedure be coded? A) Assign the code for colonoscopy with modifier -74, Discontinued outpatient procedure after anesthesia administration B) Assign the code for a colonoscopy with modifier -52, Reduced services C) Assign no code because no procedure was performed D) Assign an anesthesia code only - answers A) Assign the code for colonoscopy with modifier -74, Discontinued outpatient procedure after anesthesia administration (192) When documentation in the health record is not clear, the coding professional should: A) Submit the question to the coding clinic B) Refer to dictation from other encounters for the patient to get clarification C) Query the physician who originated the progress note or other report in question D) Query a physician who consistently responds to queries in a timely manner - answers C) Query the physician who originated the progress note or other report in question (193) Providers should be queried regarding information in the health record for all of the following EXCEPT: A) Conflicting documentation B) Ambiguous documentation C) Incomplete information D) Insignificant information - answers D) Insignificant information (194) MS-DRG refers to a DRG system developed by: A) Microsoft B) 3M Corporation C) Yale University D) CMS - answers D) CMS (195) The ______ operates in the systems of Medicare administrative contractors and provides a series of flags that can affect APC payments because it identifies coding errors in claims. A) POA B) OCE C) CPT D) DRG - answers B) OCE (196) The main purpose of the Correct Coding Initiative edits is to prohibit: A) ICD-10-CM procedure error codes B) DRG assignment errors C) Unbundling of procedures D) Incorrect POA assignment - answers C) Unbundling of procedures (197) Continuing education is vital to ensure accurate coding. Which of the following is NOT true about continuing education for coders? A) Physicians from the medical staff can be asked to present clinical topics to coders B) Coding managers can use member resources from AHIMA to educate coders C) Coding education is best accomplished by sending staff to external seminars D) Coding managers can have coders research clinical topics to present to each other - answers C) Coding education is best accomplished by sending staff to external seminars (198) Which of the following would generally be found in a query to a physician? A) Health record number and demographic information B) Name and contact number of the individual initiating the query and account number C) Date query initiated and date query must be completed D) Demographic information and name and contact number of individual initiating the query - answers B) Name and contact number of the individual initiating the query and account number (199) An accuracy calculation method that divides the number of records where there was no change in APC or DRG assignment by the total number of cases reviewed is considered: A) Code over code method B) Record over record method C) Code over record method D) Code determination method - answers B) Record over record method (200) An outcome of coding quality reviews may be any EXCEPT which of the following? A) Coding documentation issues that prevent the coder from performing comprehensive coding are identified B) Redundant codes on the claims are identified C) Cases where excellent penmanship created challenges for the coders are identified D) Areas where coding could be improved if physician queries are identified - answers C) Cases where excellent penmanship created challenges for the coders are identified (201) When assigning evaluation and management codes for hospital outpatient services, the coder should follow: A) AHA guidelines B) AHIMA guidelines C) CMS guidelines D) The hospital's own internal guidelines - answers D) The hospital's own internal guidelines (202) Which of the following is NOT one of the components that make up the total relative value unit for a given procedure? A) Staff work B) Physician work C) Practice expense D) Malpractice expense - answers A) Staff work (203) Which of the following neoplasm types is correct for adenocarcinoma? A) Benign B) Malignant C) Uncertain behavior D) Unspecified - answers B) Malignant (204) Date of service: 1/3/2014. Last date of treatment:2/12/2013. The patient is seen in the physician's office for a cough and a sore throat. The physician performs a problem- focused history, expanded problem-focused examination, and medical decision making is straightforward. What is the correct E/M code for this service? A) 99213, Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient, which requires at least two fo these three components: expanded problem focused history and expanded problem focused examination, medical decision making of low complexity