RPSGT EXAM / RPSGT LATEST EXAM TEST BANK 2024 COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIO, Exams of Physics

Download RPSGT EXAM / RPSGT LATEST EXAM TEST BANK 2024 COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIO and more Exams Physics in PDF only on Docsity! RPSGT EXAM / RPSGT LATEST EXAM TEST BANK 2024 COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) NEW UPDATED VERSION LATEST 2024/2025 GUARANTEED A+ (REVISED EXAM) Which filter settings are most appropriate for the associated channel types? EEG, EOG, EKG, and EMG, - EEG - 0.3 / 35 - EOG - 0.1 / 35 - EKG - 1.0 / 35 - EMG - 10 / 70 The E2 electrode is placed out and up from the outer canthus of the right eye, and E1 is placed out and down from the outer canthus of the left eye. If the E2 channel on the PSG is channel 4, and E1 is channel 5, what will the waves on these channels do when the patient looks up? Move towards each other. What is the purpose of the Low Frequency Filter? Eliminating undesired slow frequencies What should a technician do first to make sure the proper test is being performed? Review the chart for the physician's orders The symbol "G1" represents: The exploring electrode If G1 receives a signal of -100uV at the same time G2 receives a signal of -50uV, what is the output signal? -50 uV Which of the following is a process performed by a differential amplifier? Recording the differences in the voltage of two (2) inputs. If G1 and G2 simultaneously receive an input of 50uV, what is the output signal? (G1 - G2 = x) (50uV - 50uV = x) 0 G2 - G1 = X The frequency of an EEG signal: Can be determined by counting the number of waveforms recorded during one second. How is the amplitude of a wave determined? By comparing the height of the waveform against a calibration signal of known value. The purpose of a high frequency filter is: To attenuate undesirable fast frequencies. height, speed EEG amplitude is measured in __________, while EEG frequency is measured in __________. Microvolts, Hertz Which of the following equations is true regarding sensitivity? Sensitivity = Voltage / Pen Deflection (S=V/Pd) The low frequency filter is most closely associated with: The time constant Which of the following are the recommended impedance levels for EEG electrodes? Less than 5K ohms A sleep study usually includes all but which of the following measurements? ERG, a recording of electrical activity in the retina The measure distance from the nation to the inion is 36cm. What is the distance from Cz to Pz? (20% x total distance from nasion to inion = X) (20% x 36cm = X) 7.2 cm The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to Oz? (10% x distance from the nasion to inion = X) (10% x 32cm = X) 3.2 cm The measured distance from Cz to T4 is 14cm. What is the distance from C4 to T4? Cz is the midpoint. 7.0cm The measured distance from ear to ear is 40cm. What is the distance from Cz to C3? Distance from Cz to C3 is 20% of the distance from ear to ear. (20% x Distance from ear2ear = x) 8.0cm The circumference of the patient's head is 56cm. What is the distance from O2 to T4? The distance from Oz to O1 is 5% of the total circumference of the head. (5% x Tc = X) 2.8cm The circumference the patient's head is 60cm. What is the distance from O2 to T4? (5% x Tc = X) 12.0cm Which electrode site is half the distance from F8 to Fz? F4 Which EEG electrode site is half the distance from O1 to T3? T5 The distance from Fp1 to O1 through C3 is 24cm. What is the distance from C3 to P3? (25% x 24cm = X) 6.0cm The distance from Fp2 to T4 is 10cm. What is the distance from Fp2 to F8? (F8 is half the distance from T2 to Fp2) (10cm/ 2 = X) 5.0cm Which electrode site is located half the distance between Fp2 and C4? F4 Which of these montage includes a pressure channel and an airflow channel from a DC device? CPAP What percentage of the circumference of the head is T5 from T3? 10% Where should the chin EMG electrodes be placed? Above and below the chin Which of these electrode sites is not typically used in a baseline montage? Arm EMG The exploring electrode detects a voltage of -20uV. The output voltage is 50uV. What voltage did the reference electrode detect at this time? (Output voltage = Voltage detected - Voltage Detected by the reference) (-20 - X = 50) -70uV Which muscle are the leg EMG electrodes placed over? Anterior tibialis G1 and G2 both equal -25uV. What is the output voltage? 0uV Which of these electrodes is located 20% of the horizontal measurement of the head (pre-auricular point to pre-auricular point) to the left of Cz? C3 The E2 electrode is placed out and up from the outer corner of the right eye, and the E1 electrode is placed out and down from the outer corner of the left eye. If the montage has the E2 channel as channel 5 and the E1 channel as channel 6, what will the waves on these channels do when the patient looks up? Move towards each other G1 = -80uV and the output voltage is 20uV. What is the voltage at G2? ( G1 - G2 = 20uV) (-80 - G2 = 20uV) -100uV Which electrode site is half the distance from Fp2 to T4? F8 What percentage of the vertical measurement of the head (nasion to inion) is Pz from the inion? 30% The distance from pre-auricular point to pre-auricular point is 36cm. What is the distance from the left pre-auricular point to T3? (10% from pre-auricular point to T3) 3.6 cm The measurement from T6 to Pz is 8cm. What is the distance from P4 to Pz? (P4 is half the distance from T6 to Pz) 4cm The measurement from F7 to F3 is 6cm. What is the distance from P3 to Fz? 6.0cm What electrode site is located half the distance from O2 to C4? P4 Which electrode site is 10% above the inion? Oz A stress loop can be most helpful when applying which electrodes? Leg EMGs example if minor 60Hz interference occurs in one of the leg EMG channels Electrical baseline refers to: - The starting point position for a pen deflection - The position of a pen when the PSG is powered on, but no signal is received into the amplifier -The position of a pen when both input terminals to the differential amplifier receives an identical voltage If 60Hz artifact is present during physiologic calibrations, the technologist should: Find the source of the problem and correct it before beginning the study. Slow frequency artifact appearing in an EEG channel: - May be identified by a lack of correlation to EEG or EOG channels - Can impair the accuracy of the recording - May appear similar to EEG slow waves Which of the following factors is most likely to cause 60Hz artifact? High and unequal electrode impedances Which of the following factors are most likely to cause electrode popping? - Electrodes not firmly attached to the face or scalp - Direct pressure against an electrode Which of the following conditions are most likely to cause slow wave artifact in the EEG or EOG channels? Sweat The optimal method of correcting undesirable artifacts while the patient is asleep is by: Changing the input signal derivations During a recording, an identical slow wave artifact appears in three EEG channels sharing a common reference. The appropriate response is to: Eliminate the artifact by re-referencing the input signal derivation to a back-up reference electrode. If a high frequency artifact appears in a single EEG channel that shares a reference electrode with other channels, the appropriate response is to: Eliminate the artifact by changing the input signal derivation to a back-up exploring electrode. If mixed frequency artifact appears in a channel due to a faulty electrode, and no back-up derivation is available, the appropriate response is to: Weight the importance of the missing channel against the interruption to the patient's sleep study, then either enter the patient's room and fix the electrode or wait until an appropriate time to do so. Strong EKG artifact in an EMG channel: - May be caused by poor electrode placement - May be caused by high electrode impedances If a low frequency artifact appears in all the EEG and EOG channels, the appropriate response is to: Attempt to cool the patient by using a fan or air conditioner; then, if necessary, temporarily raise the low frequency filters to 1Hz. Double-referencing may be beneficial for: Reducing EKG artifact in the EEG or eye channels If the thermistor becomes removed during a study causing a flat line in the airflow channel, the best solution is to: Enter the patient's room quietly and re-adjust the thermister When an artifact is present, changing the high and low frequency filters: - Is only effective if the underlying physiological signals are still intact - Should only be used as a last resort, when other methods of correcting the artifact are unavailable The preferred type of amplifier in PSG is Differential High and unequal electrode impedances: Which of these stores and releases energy in an alternating current circuit? Capacitor What is the maximum allowable leakage in diagnostic equipment? 100uA A frequency response curve is: A visual representation of the amplifier's ability to eliminate frequencies outside the filter settings The rise time is the time it takes the pen to reach what percentage of its deflection? 63% The fall time is the amount of time for the pen to return to __________% of its baseline during amplifier calibrations. 37% A pen's vertical position when the power to the PSG is turned off is called: Mechanical baseline During amplifier calibrations, the PSG displays signals of: 50uV and -50uV The fall time constant is also referred to as the Signal decay Which of these factors does not tend to increase impedances? Increased site preparation Which of these does not tend to increase leakage current? Shorter power cords Which of these channel types produces a square calibration wave? DC Which of these devices receives and transmits signals from 0 - 1 Volts? DC amplifier Which of these respiratory effort devices uses coiled bands that are stretched during respiration? Inductive plethysomnograph A time constant of 1 second is equal to a LFF setting of: 0.16Hz Amperes are measured in: Coulombs/ seconds When electrical signals from external sources interfere with signals derived from the patient, this is referred to as: Stray capacitance Which of these monitoring devices can be used for long-term circadian rhythm monitoring? Actigraph Which respiratory parameter does an End-Tidal CO2 monitor not detect? Respiratory effort What is the danger of using two ground wires on a piece of diagnostic equipment? Electric shock Which of these devices produces its own electricity? Piezo-electric crystal band The positioning of the pens along the horizontal plane is referred to as the: Time axis Which channel's time axis is misaligned? (refer to sample calibration waves) line 6 Which channel has a misaligned electrical baseline? (refer to sample calibration waves) line 4 Which channel has a misaligned mechanical baseline? (refer to sample calibration waves) line 12 Which channel has a LFF of 0.16Hz? (refer to sample calibration waves) The patient's baseline SpO2 is below the wake limits on the lab's protocol. The medical director orders supplemental O2 at 2 L/min. During the night, the patient's TCO2 levels increase by 12mm Hg and the respiratory rate decreases to 6 breathes per minute. What should the technician do? Decrease the O2 flow rate and contact physician The physician's orders are to begin the study with oxygen at 12 L/min. What should the technician do? Call the physician to verify the order for 12 L/min What is the standard device used to verify CPAP pressure? Water column manometer Which of these is not required for in-home CPAP use? A humidifier How can the use of CPAP decrease blood pressure? The change in ventilator pattern leads to an increase in CO2 retention. Which of these characteristics is not a feature of relaxed wakefulness with the eyes open? Vertex sharp waves Which of these characteristics is not a feature of relaxed wakefulness with the eyes closed? Sawtooth waves What is the frequency of alpha waves? 8 - 13Hz What is the frequency of theta waves? 4 - 7Hz Which of these are characteristics of Stage N1 sleep? Relatively low voltage, mixed frequency EEG, slow-rolling eye movements and a normally active chin. Which of these conditions is not likely to contribute to episodes of hyperventilation and/or hypoxemia? Diabetes Which of these statements is true regarding hypoventilation during sleep? It is identified by measuring a reduction in amplitude in the airflow channel tracings Frequent EEG arousals during sleep: - May lead to excessive daytime sleepiness - May occur with or without discernible sleep stage changes or body movement - May be an indication of sleep disordered breathing An irregular pattern seen in the airflow channel may be an indication of: - Artifact caused by body movement - Wakefulness - Sleep-disordered breathing Which of the following is a common complaint immediately following a PAP titration? Nasal dryness and sneezing Sudden apneas in a patient successfully treated with CPAP during REM and NREM sleep in the first half of the night might be explained by which of the following? The patient moves to a supine position Which of the following statements is true regarding patients with central sleep apnea? They may respond well to CPAP If a patient has OSA and the obstruction is at the nasal passages, which of these would be the most appropriate treatment? Surgery The optimal CPAP pressure is best determined in which stage of sleep and in which body position? REM, Supine Which of these is true regarding CPAP? It is the medical therapy of choice for sleep apnea During which stage(s) of sleep is respiration controlled the same as during wake in normal sleepers? NREM Which of the following is not a predisposing factor for OSA? A decreased pH (ABG) Which of the following is within normal ranges? PO2 of 59 (ABG) What is the main difference between SpO2 and SaO2? How they are detected Which of these characteristics is not normally seen at sleep onset? Increase in EEG frequency What happens to the Chin EMG at sleep onset? It decreases in amplitude Which of these is NOT a common characteristic in patients with OSA? Low BMI (Body Mass Index) What is the required oxygen desaturation for a hypopnea with a 50% or greater decrease in airflow? 3% decrease in oxygen desaturation Which of these events can be caused by titrating CPAP too quickly? Central Apnea What is the primary difference between an apnea and a hypopnea? An apnea is a full cessation of airflow, while a hypopnea is a decrease in airflow. What is the required duration of an apnea? 10 seconds What respiratory event is characterized by opposite effort patterns in the chest and abdomen (the abdomen contracting while the thorax is expanding, and vice versa)? Paradoxical Breathing What respiratory event is characterized by a slow waxing and waning pattern? Cheyne-Stokes Breathing What respiratory event is characterized by cessation in respiratory effort at the same time as a cessation in airflow? Central Apnea When performing a CPAP titration, what is the desired Respiratory Disturbance Index (RDI)? < 5 Which of these is a treatment for central sleep apnea? Bi-Level PAP Patients with a hypoxic drive: Do not respond well to CPAP Which of these physiologic calibrations is not performed during an MSLT study? Move foot The sleep latencies for MSLT naps are as follows: 6 min, 7 min, 10 min, 1 min, 6 min. What is the mean sleep latency? (mean - adding up all numbers and dividing by the quantity of those numbers) (6 + 7 + 10 + 1 + 6 = X) (X/ 5 = Y) 6 min Using the sleep latencies from the previous question (212), what is the mode sleep latency 6 min, 7 min, 10 min, 1 min, and 6 min? (mode - the number that occurs most frequently) 6 min The sleep latencies for MSLT naps are as follows: - 8 min - 7 min - 11 min - 14 min - 1 min What is the median sleep latency? It increases during REM sleep Why is REM sleep often referred to as paradoxical sleep? The body is paralyzed although the EEG resembles a waking pattern Which of these practices encourages good sleep? Get out of bed at a regular time Which of these is true regarding narcoleptics? They are sleepy nearly all of the time In which age group are nocturnal sleep and daytime alertness usually at optimal levels? Children Which of these is characterized by a feeling of falling or floating at sleep onset stopped by a sudden jerk and EEG arousal or awakening? Sleep start The most important source of information for diagnosing a sleep schedule disturbance is: A sleep diary Which of these is not a change in sleep that occurs with increasing age? More frequent reports of dreams When all other factors are equal, alertness upon wakening is: Increased if awakened from REM sleep Which of these is not characteristic of REM sleep? Stabilization of blood pressure Which of these is true regarding a Maintenance of Wakefulness Test (MWT)? - It is designed to demonstrate the effectiveness of treatment - It is different from the MSLT in that the patient is instructed to remain awake - It is not designed to test the extent of daytime sleepiness Which of the following is true regarding sleep in old age? REM occupies about 25% of total sleep time at ages 20 and 70 Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent sleep? The first REM period in adolescents may be exceptionally short Which of the following statements is true regarding children's sleep? The have 95% sleep efficiency Which of these often leads to sleep-onset REM periods in normal sleepers? Afternoon naps Which of these medical conditions can lead to insomnia during infancy? - Food allergies - Gastroesophageal reflux - Otitis media A loud noise will most likely awaken an adolescent during which state of sleep? It makes no difference REM sleep is dominant during which portion of the night? Final third Which of the following is not part of the narcolepsy tetrad? Nocturnal myoclonus Which of these structures is responsible for sending signals from the body to the cortex? Thalamus Bruxism is: Characterized by clinching or grinding teeth during sleep What structure of the brain blocks signals from the thalamus to the cortex? Reticular Activating Neurons Which of these EEG waveforms is seen as a result of signals from the thalamus being blocked? Sleep spindles What might be seen in a patient with lesions in the suprachiasmatic nucleus?