SAEM EXAM SET 1 |GUARANTEED PASS, Exams of Nursing

Download SAEM EXAM SET 1 |GUARANTEED PASS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! SAEM EXAM SET 1 |GUARANTEED PASS "The chest X-ray in the Figure was taken in an intoxicated patient who is conversant, but an unreliable historian. The X-ray findings are best described as indicating: [image] A. Esophageal foreign body B. Intratracheal foreign body C. mediastinitis from esophageal perforation D. normal chest" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. Esophageal foreign body The answer is A. The film reveals a classic appearance of a round foreign body (in this case, a pull-top from a beer can) in the esophagus. The foreign body appears to lie outside the tracheal shadow. There is no sign of mediastinal air (which would be expected with penetrating trauma). The X-ray reveals no signs of mediastinitis, but the risk of esophageal perforation and ultimate mediastinitis prompts endoscopic intervention in this patient." "An 18 year old hockey player is hit in the mouth with a puck, fracturing a maxillary canine tooth. He brings the severed piece of tooth with him. On physical exam, the tooth is fractured halfway between the tip and the gumline. The root of the tooth is still firmly intact. The exposed fracture site has a yellowish tinge without blood. Of the following choices, which is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. No specific treatment required B. Application of calcium hydroxide, placement of aluminum foil, and dental follow-up C. Placement of tooth fragment in saline gauze, outpatient dental follow-up D. Immediate dental consult to avoid abscess formation E. Replace fractured piece and place acrylic splint" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. Immediate dental consult to avoid abscess formation The answer is D. Ellis II dental fracture involves enamel and dentin. The fracture site typically has a yellowish tinge. Ellis III dental fractures are characterized by exposure of pinkish pulp and often blood. These fractures require immediate dental consultation to prevent abscess formation." "A 22 year old man is punched in the nose during a fight. He presents to the emergency department with obvious nasal bone deformity. Pressure controls the bleeding. Physical exam reveals no maxillary bone or orbital rim tenderness, intact vision and extraocular movement. The oropharynx and mandible are unremarkable. Nasal inspection reveals a swollen, ecchymotic, tender nasal septum. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step? A. Outpatient follow-up with an ENT specialist to surgically correct a deviated septum B. Plastic surgery consult for immediate reduction of nasal fracture C. Facial CT scan to rule out more serious facial fractures D. Placement of a needle decompression device, followed by repeat CXR" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. Placement of a needle decompression device, followed by repeat CXR This patient needs emergent chest decompression and this is rapidly done by needle thoracostomy. A chest CT may be performed, but only once he is stabilized. A formal chest tube will be placed, but placement may not be rapid enough and he may decompensate in the meantime. Transfusion of blood does nothing to correct the physiology of a tension pneumothorax" "The most sensitive bedside test for nerve injury in a finger after trauma is: A. light touch B. O'Riain wrinkle test C. pain D. temperature sensation E. two-point discrimination" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. two-point discrimination The correct answer is E. Light touch is a good screening test, but two- point discrimination is more sensitive and should be used routinely in evaluating injuries to digits. The O'Riain wrinkle test involves placing the digit in warm water and looking for wrinkling of the digital pulps. Presence of wrinkling indicates the nerve is intact." "Which is not part of the Ottawa ankle rules? A. inability to walk 4 steps at the time of the injury B. inability to walk 4 steps in the emergency department C. tenderness over the lateral malleolus D. tenderness over the medial malleolus E. tenderness over the talus" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. tenderness over the talus The correct answer is E. The Ottawa ankle rules are a validated (for adults) set of physical exam findings to determine if an ankle X-ray is needed after an injury. If any of the first 4 answers is present or if there is tenderness over the navicular or base of the 5th metatarsal, an X-ray should be obtained. If the correct answer to all questions is no, then an X-ray is not needed." "Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding thoracentesis from the anterior approach (needle decompression): A. An upright chest X-ray should always be performed following a thoracentesis to confirm the successful relief of a tension pneumothorax and the absence of hemothorax or other complications. B. A 14- to 20-gauge needle is inserted perpendicularly over the superior edge of the rib. C. The recommended insertion site is the second intercostal space, midaxillary line. D. After the needle is inserted into the pleural space, a rush of air confirms the presence of a tension pneumothorax. E. If a tension pneumothorax is confirmed via needle decompression, then a thoracostomy tube should be placed as soon as possible." - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "C. The recommended insertion site is the second intercostal space, midaxillary line. The answer is C. The recommended insertion site for needle decompression of tension pneumothoraces is the second intercostal space along the midclavicular line. If a lateral approach is needed, the recommended insertion site is the fourth or fifth intercostal space in the midaxillary line. The lateral approach poses a greater risk of parenchymal injury. The needle should always be inserted over the superior edge of the rib as the neurovascular bundle runs along the inferior margin (answer B). The remaining answers are all correct statements regarding thoracentesis (answers C, D, E)." "In a patient with a suspected ruptured globe from penetrating trauma to the eye, all of the following should be performed EXCEPT: A. ascertainment of intraocular pressure via tonometry B. administration of broad spectrum antibiotic therapy C. visual acuity assessment D. ascertainment of tetanus status E. ophthalmology consultation" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. ascertainment of intraocular pressure via tonometry The answer is A. Tonometry should not be performed in patients with suspected ruptured globe, as application of the Tono-Pen pressure to the eye may cause the vitreous humor to exude from the eye, thereby complicating the injury. Tetanus status is important to check, as ocular injuries, like skin injuries, may be a portal for tetanus exposure. Broad- spectrum antibiotic therapy is indicated. Anti-emetic therapy may be B. iritis C. keratitis D. pterygium E. hypopion" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. hyphema The answer is A. The patient has a fluid level/meniscus in the anterior chamber, that is most likely indicative of hyphema (collection of blood). Hypopion (collection of purulent material) is less likely in this setting, and keratitis (corneal inflammation) and iritis (inflammation of the iris) are not indicated by the arrows. A pterygium is a growth which is visible on the sclera, and which crosses the limbus onto the cornea." "The patient in the figure sustained minor blunt trauma to the eye, and has a normal head/orbital computed tomography (CT) scan. Ophthalmological examination is normal, other than the blood as shown in the figure (the blood does not cross the limbus). Of the choices below, which diagnosis is the most likely based upon the figure? [image] A. foreign body B. ruptured anterior chamber C. subconjunctival hemorrhage D. hyphema E. globe rupture" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "C. subconjunctival hemorrhage The answer is C. The subconjunctival blood as depicted in this patient, can be expected to resorb without intervention over days to weeks. The figure does not suggest rupture of anterior chamber or hyphema; globe rupture and foreign body are less likely given the normal examination and CT scan." "A patient presents with a self-inflicted wound, with resultant loss of vision in the right eye. With regard to the figure, which of the following statements is most likely true? [image] A. Medial canthotomy should be performed immediately. B. If ambulance providers contact medical control about a patient with this injury, they should be directed to replace the globe back into the orbit. C. Search for other self-inflicted injuries (or ingestions) is paramount. D. Life-threatening hemorrhage is a major risk with this injury. E. The patient will probably recover visual function." - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "C. Search for other self-inflicted injuries (or ingestions) is paramount. The answer is C. The patient is unlikely to recover any visual function, which renders more important parallel efforts to identify (treatable) injuries or ingestions that are less obvious than the ocular avulsion. Lateral (not medial) canthotomy is an emergency procedure that may be indicated in some patients with ocular injury and retrobulbar hematoma (with resultant traction on the optic nerve), but the procedure is unlikely to help this patient. Since manipulation of an injured globe risks further trauma and extrusion of vitreous humor, prehospital recommendations for eye trauma are limited to protection of the injured eye and expedited transport to definitive care. Life-threatening hemorrhage is not a major risk with this type of injury." "What is the most common cause of death in Americans aged 20 to 40 years? A. Drug overdose B. Trauma C. Cancer D. AIDS-related illness E. Pneumonia" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. Trauma" "Following a motor vehicle collision, in which of the following patients is an emergency department Caesarian section most likely indicated, assuming a fetus at 29-weeks gestation? A. Mother with gunshot wound to abdomen, blood pressure 96/42; fetal heart tones undetectable B. Mother with severe head trauma, blood pressure 170/90; fetal heart tones 120 beats per minute C. Mother with abdominal pain, blood pressure of 80/40; fetal heart tones 100 beats per minute D. Mother with vaginal bleeding, blood pressure 118/78; fetal heart tones 80 beats per minute E. Mother pulseless and apneic for 2 minutes' duration and still in arrest; fetal heart tones of 100 beats per minute" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. Mother pulseless and apneic for 2 minutes' duration and still in arrest; fetal heart tones of 100 beats per minute A transverse process fracture involves only one of the supporting spinal columns (the posterior column) and is therefore stable." "A 23 year old man is stabbed in the anterior neck with a 3-inch knife during a street fight. At the scene, there is some bleeding, which is controlled with direct pressure. He presents to the emergency department breathing comfortably and in no distress. His pulse is 88, blood pressure 126/76, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. There is a 1cm laceration 2cm above the right sternoclavicular junction, lateral to the trachea. There is mild oozing and no obvious underlying hematoma. There is no obvious subcutaneous air, and he has clear lung sounds. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. Local wound exploration and discharge home if no significant injury identified B. Angiography, esophogram, and admission for observation C. Local wound exploration and discharge home after 6-hour observation period D. CT scan of the neck and discharge home after 6 hours of observation E. Immediate operativ - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. Angiography, esophogram, and admission for observation The answer is B. Zone I penetrating neck injuries are located between the sternal notch and the cricoid cartilage. A major concern is injury to non-compressible vascular structures such as common carotid, vertebral, subclavian, aortic arch. Other structures in this area include trachea, esophagus, and lung apices. Physical exam is often unreliable and angiography, esophogram, and observation are warranted." "Which of the following patients should undergo abdominal trauma evaluation? A. 22 year old with stab wound to fourth intercostal space on right B. 30 year old with pelvic pain and tenderness after fall C. 25 year old restrained passenger in high-speed MVA; no abdominal complaints D. None of the above E. All of the above" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. All of the above The answer is E. The diaphragm can rise to as high a level as the fourth intercostal space and can be injured by stab wounds at this level. Unsuspected injuries are common in high speed motor vehicle crashes. Pelvic injuries are associated with intra-abdominal injuries and can distract a patient from such an injury. Therefore, all of these patients need an evaluation of their abdomens." "Which of the following trauma patients can be managed conservatively without immediate laparotomy in the OR? A. 27 year old man with hemoperitoneum by bedside ultrasound; hypotensive B. 19 year old man with splenic laceration; peritoneal signs on exam C. 24 year old man with liver laceration; hemodynamically stable D. 30 year old man with a gunshot wound to the epigastrium E. All of the above should go to the OR for exploratory laparotomy." - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "C. 24 year old man with liver laceration; hemodynamically stable" "Which of the following is an accurate statement? A. Bedside ultrasound is the test of choice for diagnosing solid organ injury. B. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage usually cannot identify the presence of hemoperitoneum. C. Bedside ultrasound can image the retroperitoneum. D. Bedside ultrasound can reliably determine the etiology of hemoperitoneum. E. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage cannot determine the etiology of hemoperitoneum." - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage cannot determine the etiology of hemoperitoneum. The answer is E. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is extremely sensitive for the detection of hemoperitoneum and can lead to many negative laparotomies. Neither bedside ultrasound nor diagnostic peritoneal lavage can identify the source of the hemorrhage though. A trauma ultrasound at the bedside can only identify fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and CT scan is the test of choice for diagnosing solid organ injury." "A 36 year old man is a restrained driver involved in a high speed MVA where his car is struck on the driver's side door with significant intrusion. His physical exam is significant for a large contusion on his left flank. His abdominal exam is benign and rectal exam reveals a normal prostate. A Foley catheter is placed with return of gross hematuria. Which test is indicated to evaluate for the presence of urologic injury? A. CT abdomen / pelvis with IV and transurethral contrast of 94% on room air. He has absent breath sounds on the left side; you note a small puncture wound in the midaxillary line at the level of the 10th rib. His abdominal exam is normal. Two large-bore IVs are established. What is the appropriate management of this patient? A. Left-sided chest tube, portable chest x-ray, and admission B. Left-sided chest tube, portable chest x-ray, diagnostic peritoneal lavage, and admission C. Endotracheal intubation, left-sided chest tube, portable chest x-ray, and admission D. Endotracheal intubation, portable chest x-ray, exploratory laparotomy in the OR, and admission E. Left-sided chest tube, portable chest x-ray, and abdominal CT scan" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. Left-sided chest tube, portable chest x-ray, and abdominal CT scan" "Which is the most common associated neurological finding with a distal radius fracture? A. Weakness with flexion at the finger MCP joints B. Wrist drop C. Decreased sensation over the hypothenar eminance D. Weakness of finger adduction E. Decreased sensation over the thenar eminance" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "E. Decreased sensation over the thenar eminance The answer is E. This finding is due to median nerve injury." "An 82 year old woman with osteoporosis slips and falls onto her right hip. She cannot get up and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. As you enter the room you notice her right leg is abducted and externally rotated. What type of injury does she most likely have? A. Subtrochanteric femur fracture B. Intertrochanteric femur fracture C. Femoral neck fracture D. Acetabular fracture E. Posterior hip dislocation" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "C. Femoral neck fracture The answer is C. Patients with dislocation tend to have internal (not external) rotation." "A 22 year old running back is struck from behind by a 300-pound lineman. The blow occurs below the knee as his foot is firmly planted and two other linemen are holding his upper body. He presents to the emergency department with gross anterior dislocation of the tibia on the femur. His foot is cool and pale, and dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are not detected by Doppler ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? A. Open reduction in OR with exploration of popliteal artery B. Immediate reduction in emergency department under conscious sedation without X-rays C. Immediate orthopedic consultation without attempts to manipulate the knee D. Immediate arteriography to assess for popliteal artery disruption" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. Immediate reduction in emergency department under conscious sedation without X-rays The answer is B. A knee dislocation frequently injures the popliteal artery, threatening the survival of the limb. Immediate reduction for the dislocation is warranted to attempt to restore flow through the artery, and should be attempted by the ED physician without waiting for orthopedics. Transport to the OR is an unnecessary delay, and while arteriography will be indicated, the most urgent priority is restoring blood flow." "A patient falls onto his face, and has a CT scan of the face as shown in the Figure. Which indirect finding suggestive of possible facial fracture is present on the CT? [image] A. Fluid (blood) in the sinuses B. Nasal fracture C. Exopthalmos D. Extra-sinus air" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. Fluid (blood) in the sinuses "A patient presents to the ED after a fall with chest pain. A chest xray shows a rib fracture but no pneumothorax, and a chest CT is ordered. What is the most appropriate treatment for a small pneumothorax, detected only on chest CT, in a hemodynamically stable trauma patient? A. 100% oxygen B. Heliox by face mask C. Immediate needle decompression D. Chest tube placement" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. 100% oxygen The answer is A. An occult pneumothorax may resorb with only oxygen administration, not requiring invasive management. Needle decompression is used for tension pneumothorax, and heliox may be used for reactive airway disease to reduce resistance to flow." "A blunt trauma patient presents, transported by EMS from a motor vehicle collision, with inability to provide a history, due to alcohol intoxication. He has no signs of trauma on external evaluation, but he is hypotensive. An ED ultrasound is performed at the bedside, and is depicted in the figure. Given the patients' clinical condition and image seen, what is the most likely diagnosis? [image] A. Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Free intraabdominal fluid C. Ruptured gallbladder D. Fat embolus from femur fracture" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. Free intraabdominal fluid" "You are practicing in a trauma center a receive a call from an outlying facility that they would like to transfer a male patient to you with a spinal cord injury after significant flexion and compression of the vertebral body. What does this injury pattern tell you about the patient's symptoms? [image] Figure used with permission from Hamilton et al, Emergency Medicine: An approach to clinical problem-solving A. The patient likely has symptoms on only one side of the his body B. Patients with anterior cord syndromes have only sensory symptoms C. The patient likely disproportionately greater weakness in the lower extremities (as compared to the upper extremities) D. The patient likely has paralysis and loss of sensation to pain and temperature bilaterally below the lesion" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. The patient likely has paralysis and loss of sensation to pain and temperature bilaterally below the lesion The answer is D. Answer A describes central cord syndrome, typically caused by hyperextension. Answer C describes Brown-Sequard Syndrome, caused by hemisection of the cord. Answer B is anterior cord, often caused by flexion and injury to the anterior spinal artery; patient with this cord syndrome often have more than just sensory symptoms." "A trauma patient resuscitated in the ED, has a post-tube thoracostomy computed tomography (CT) scan as depicted in the figure. What finding is present? [image] A. Pericardial tamponade B. Aortic rupture leading to a right hemothorax C. Chest tube not within the thoracic cavity D. Persistent pneumothorax" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. Persistent pneumothorax The answer is D. The chest CT shows a chest tube in place on the right, with incomplete reinflation of the lung. The left hemithorax is grossly normal, but there is a large right pulmonary contusion, as well as pneumothorax and small hemothorax on the right. The aorta appears intact (aortic injuries usually leak into the left hemithorax, not the right)." "he major abnormality on the image below is at which level? [image] A. C3/C4 B. C4/C5 C. C5/C6 B. The patient has no history of medical illness C. There is no family history of depression D. The patient has a history of Crohn's disease" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. The patient has a history of Crohn's disease The answer is D. In SAD CAGES is a screening mnemonic for symptoms, not causes, of major depression. Depression is more common in patients with history of other medical illnesses, some of which may actually cause depressive symptoms. As compared with major depression, dysthymic disorder is a more chronic, and less severe, form of depressive illness." "A 42 year old male with end stage liver disease due to chronic hepatitis C infection arrives to the emergency department in stable condition after an unsuccessful suicide attempt by bilateral wrist laceration. He reports no history of depression or psychiatric disorder. Aside from his liver disease, for which he takes interferon alpha and ribavirin, he reports that he is in good health and takes no other medications. Which of the following factors increased this patient's risk of new-onset suicidal ideation? A. end-stage liver disease B. chronic hepatitis C infection C. ribavirin therapy D. interferon alfa therapy" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. interferon alfa therapy The answer is D. Interferon alfa, an important cytokine in the early immune response to viral infection, has both antiproliferative and antiviral properties. It is the only therapy approved by the Food and Drug Administration for hepatitis C infection. Interferon alfa has been associated with high rates of central nervous system side effects, including anhedonia, fatigue, anorexia, impaired concentration, sleep disturbance, and suicidal ideation. Clinicians should always look up the side effects of their patients' medications, especially unfamiliar drugs. This can both expedite diagnosis of drug-induced complications and prevent them with appropriate pretreatment. Pretreatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor appears to be an effective strategy to minimize depression induced by interferon alfa. Chronic hepatitis C infection and end-stage liver disease can both be difficult diseases to live with, however, these conditions are not known to significantly increase a patients' risk for new suicidal ideation. Depression is not a known side effect of ribavirin treatment. Although males have a higher percentage of successful suicide attempt than females, females have a much higher incidence of suicide attempt and ideation than males overall." "A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after family members called the police to say she was threatening to kill herself by jumping out a window. She has a long history of depression. Regarding suicide, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The majority of suicide attempts involve minor injuries or drug overdoses. B. All states have laws giving law enforcement the right to place into custody any individual suspected of being a danger to themselves or others. C. The patient's room needs to be cleared of all potentially dangerous objects such as blunt instruments, glass objects, and the patient's belongings. D. Family sitters provide the best option for close observation of suicidal patients since they often have a calming influence on the patient." - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. Family sitters provide the best option for close observation of suicidal patients since they often have a calming influence on the patient. The answer is D. For any patient presenting with suicidal ideation, the emergency department physician must first stabilize medical condition as most attempts involve minor injury or drug overdoses treatable by emergency room staff. Secondly, all objects and substances should be kept strictly out of reach of the suicidal patient. Once stabilized these patients may be kept under direct supervision. It is not recommended that family members provide the direct supervision because of a possibility of collaboration between family and patient to leave the hospital. In this event, or even before coming into the hospital, all law enforcement has the right to bring into custody any patient at risk of harming self or others." "Suicide rates are consistent with the average population in this population: A. Presence of underlying panic disorder B. African-American males C. Men with AIDS D. Females with breast implants" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. African-American males point on the suicide scale. All the others are high-risk factors and are each assigned 2 points on the suicide scale. A score of 6 or more has a sensitivity of 94% and a specificity of 71% compared with formal psychiatric evaluation to identify the need for hospitalization in patients who present immediately after a suicide attempt." Silent Suicide" is defined as: A. B. C. D. E. "Toxicological screening is indicated in which patient with suicidal ideation? A. Patient who ingested unknown amount ibuprofen 48 hours earlier B. Patient who threatens to cut both wrists with a knife C. Patient who takes lithium for bipolar affective disorder D. Patient who ingested a "bottle" of tylenol" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "D. Patient who ingested a "bottle" of Tylenol The answer is D. Routine toxicological screening is unnecessary in the evaluation of suicidal patients in whom there are no clinical indications for such testing. With the exception of acetaminophen, essentially all patients with dangerous overdoses and poisoning will demonstrate clinical signs within several hours of ingestion. History, physical examination, and risk determination of suicide, however, is part of the routine evaluation of the suicidal patient." "Suicide risk is increased in this patient population: A. Patients who are elderly and Caucasian B. Patients who have not been involuntarily committed C. Patients who directly questioned about suicide D. Patient who takes lithium for bipolar affective disorder" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. Patients who are elderly and Caucasian The answer is A. TRoutine toxicological screening is unnecessary in the evaluation of suicidal patients in whom there are no clinical indications for such testing. With the exception of acetaminophen, essentially all patients with dangerous overdoses and poisoning will demonstrate clinical signs within several hours of ingestion. History, physical examination, and risk determination of suicide, however, is part of the routine evaluation of the suicidal patient." "A 22 year-old man, recently released from hospital with a newly diagnosed psychiatric disorder, was found dead at his home from an overdose of medications prescribed by his doctor. Of the following drugs, which one (taken in isolation), would be most likely to be associated with fatal outcomes in an overdose scenario? A. lithium B. amitriptyline C. lorazepam D. fluoxetine" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "B. amitriptyline The answer is B. Antidepressant overdose is the most common cause of suicide by ingestion. Cyclic antidepressants are associated with a higher potential for lethality than other antidepressant medications. Often during the early stages of recovery from major depression, patients may have a mobilization of energy"" which allows them to act on their suicidal thoughts, for which they previously lacked the energy.""" "The joint fluid from a patient's knee arthrocentesis shows 75,000 WBC with 75% PMNs, no organisms, no crystals and a glucose of 35. What does the patient need next? A. antibiotics for septic joint and admission for operation B. antibiotics and discharge home C. narcotic pain medicine and discharge home D. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine for gout and discharge home E. treatment for gonorrhea and discharge home" - Accurate Answers✔✔✔ "A. antibiotics for septic joint and admission for operation The correct answer is A. The key to successful treatment of a septic joint is rapid diagnosis and treatment. Hospital admission for wash out of the joint and IV antibiotics are indicated for a septic joint. Antibiotics should be started based on gram stain or consideration of likely organisms and then adjusted based on final culture results."/d "A patient presents after slamming her index finger in a window one day ago (see Figure). Her X-ray is negative. Of the steps listed below, which is the best option for her management? [image] A. antibiotics and discharge